Section 2 Flashcards
A 33-year-old African-American female with a history of intravenous drug use and alcohol use presented to the emergency department with eye discharge, painful eye movement, eye swelling on the right side and double vision for two days. The patient reported having a fall two days ago, but she was not able to remember the details. Vitals showed blood pressure 160/95 mmHg, heart rate 105 bpm, and temperature 37.5 C. She is alert and oriented x3. There is chemosis, periorbital edema, proptosis, mild restriction of all extraocular movements of the right eye and mild drooping of the right eyelid. The visual acuity was 20/20 normal on both eyes. A bruit was noticed over the right orbit. Pupillary reflexes were normal. Fundus exam showed mildly dilated vessels but no papilledema. There was a small bruise on the right side of the face on the maxillary area. The rest of the exam was unremarkable. Basic blood workup came back unremarkable. CT head without contrast showed a small maxillary fracture, proptosis, and orbital edema on the right side. What are the most likely diagnosis and the best evaluation for the definitive diagnosis?
1. Cavernous sinus tumor so perform a biopsy
2. Cavernous sinus thrombosis so there is no need for further tests. Start stat treatment with broad-spectrum IV antibiotics including antifungal and anticoagulation
3. Carotid cavernous aneurysm so check intraocular pressure from right eye STAT
4. Carotid cavernous fistula so order conventional digital subtraction angiography
4. Carotid cavernous fistula so order conventional digital subtraction angiography
- The most common symptoms on carotid-cavernous fistula (CCF) are ocular bruit auscultated over the globe in high-flow CCFs, proptosis, chemosis, and conjunctival injection, ocular and/or orbital pain, headache, diplopia, and blurry vision.
- Vascular etiologies can be seen on CTA, MRI, MRA, and orbital or transcranial ultrasound but conventional digital subtraction angiography is the gold-standard test for diagnosis of CCF.
- CCFs may be an indirect (low-flow), or a direct (high-flow) CCFs based on a connection between the cavernous sinus and the intracavernous carotid artery versus the internal or external carotid artery, respectively.
- The management of CCFs depends on the classification of CCFs, the onset of symptoms and the risk of long-term neurological impairment. Twenty to sixty percent of indirect CCFs will close spontaneously. Direct CCFs should be closed by transarterial/transvenous embolization or other treatment options if they are symptomatic and at risk of progression with attendant morbidity.
A 22-year-old male presents after a construction accident. Emergency medical services (EMS) reports there was a crane malfunction, and the patient was hit with a metal bar. Upon arrival, the patient has a Glasgow coma scale of 6, an initial pulse of 102 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 84/48 mm Hg, and an oxygen saturation of 92%. The patient is intubated for airway protection with cervical stabilization. The rest of the primary survey shows no abnormalities. Extended Focused Assessment With Sonography for Trauma. (EFAST) is negative. What is the next most appropriate step in management prior to computed tomography (CT) imaging?
1. High dose methylprednisolone
2. Phenylephrine
3. Corticosteroids
4. Intravenous fluids and packed red blood cell transfusion
4. Intravenous fluids and packed red blood cell transfusion
- This patient is an unstable trauma patient. Hypotension and tachycardia are classically seen in hemorrhagic shock. Hypotension and bradycardia are more characteristic of neurogenic shock and even in the setting of hypotension and bradycardia, one should first exclude and treat possible underlying hemorrhagic shock.
- In accordance with ATLS, an undifferentiated trauma patient should be treated as having hemorrhagic shock until proven otherwise.
- The initial treatment for hemorrhagic shock is volume repletion
- If the patient is found to have spinal cord injury causing neurogenic shock and is appropriately fluid resuscitated, other treatments include vasopressors, anticholinergic medications such as atropine, and pure chronotropes such as isoproterenol. Consider the impact of other injuries when treating these patients.
A 30-year-old male patient presents with complaints of unremitting headaches, dysphagia, shoulder pain, neck pain, stiffness, and weakness. He complains that the pains keep him up at night, and he occasionally has night sweats. On physical examination, the patient appears cachectic, with a BMI of 17.9. On auscultation of the carotid arteries, no bruits are appreciated. On imaging, a mass appears to be occluding an area on the base of the skull lateral to the foramen magnum. What is the likely location of this patient’s lesion?
1. Carotid canal
2. Jugular foramen
3. Internal auditory meatus
4. Hypoglossal canal
2. Jugular foramen
- The jugular foramen is located lateral to the foramen magnum
- The jugular foramen carries the internal jugular vein as well as cranial nerves 9, 10, and 11. Compression of the foramen can cause damage or interruption of proper nerve function.
- Spinal accessory nerve damage can result in shoulder pain, neck pain, shoulder weakness, neck weakness, and stiffness to these areas.
- Damage to the vagus nerve and glossopharyngeal nerve can cause dysphagia, due to interruption of proper signal transmission via the nerves to its target head and neck muscles.
A 65-year-old male patient was diagnosed with tubercular spine disease and associated Frankel type D neurologic deficit six weeks ago. He was started on first-line anti-tuberculosis treatment (ATT). His image-guided biopsy revealed the growth of tubercle bacilli and good sensitivity to first-line ATT. His ESR and CRP have demonstrated an overall downward trend, and his back pain, as well as neurological status, have considerably improved. However, his MRI has shown a significant increase in the size of his abscess since the inception of chemotherapy. What is the appropriate next line of management?
1. Repeat MRI in 6 weeks to assess the need for surgical intervention
2. Continue antitubercular medications; repeat ESR, CRP, liver function tests (LFTs), and MRI at 6 weeks
3. Consider the bacilli as drug-resistant and start second-line ATT
4. Abandon the non-operative line of management and immediately book the patient for surgery
2. Continue antitubercular medications; repeat ESR, CRP, liver function tests (LFTs), and MRI at 6 weeks
- Plain radiographs have an overall 15% sensitivity. In the early stages, with less than 30% vertebral destruction, they do not play much of a role. In later stages, with more than 30% vertebral destruction, patients can present with disc space reduction, endplate rarefaction, vertebral body destruction, instability, and spinal deformity. Computed tomography has almost 100% sensitivity. It can help in the diagnosis at a much earlier stage than plain x-rays. The types of vertebral destructive lesions based on CT in spinal TB include fragmentary, osteolytic, subperiosteal, and localized sclerosis. CT scan can also aid in image-guided biopsy for establishing the diagnosis.
- Magnetic resonance imaging has almost 100% sensitivity and 80% specificity. MRI is the most useful modality in the diagnosis of spinal TB. The extent of soft tissue enhancement, the location of the abscess, and spinal canal compromise is best detected by MRI. Gadolinium-enhanced MRI may provide additional information regarding the diagnosis. Screening sequences involving the whole spine can also help in identifying non- contiguous vertebral involvement. MRI can also help in the assessment of response to treatment; however, immediately after starting antitubercular therapy, the MRI scan can reveal a worsening picture; and often lags behind the clinical improvement.
- At the time of initial evaluation, patients are classified based on clinical examination and detailed radiological imaging (plain radiographs, CT, and MRI) into 5 stages: 1 - predestructive stage - hyperemia on scintiscan; 2 - early destructive stage - disc space reduction and paradisical erosion, knuckle less than 10 degrees, MRI demonstrates marrow edema, and CT shows erosions or cavitations; 3 - mild angular kyphosis, 2-3 vertebrae involved and kyphosis 10 - 30 degrees; 4 - moderate angular kyphosis, 2-3 vertebrae involved and kyphosis 30 - 60 degrees; 5 - severe angular kyphosis, >3 vertebrae involved and kyphosis greater than 60 degrees.
- The most appropriate investigations at the time of follow-up in patients on treatment for TB include thorough clinical evaluation, blood inflammatory parameters (ESR, CRP), plain radiographs, and liver function tests to evaluate drug-associated complications. In a patient with evident clinical improvement and no specific concerns regarding these other targets at follow-up, no further change in antitubercular therapy or need for surgery is indicated. However, if a patient does not show any improvement clinically or based on inflammatory markers, or if they continue to worsen, all possibilities, including wrong diagnosis, poor immune status and nutrition, the inadequate dosage of drugs, drug resistance, or need for surgical intervention (possibility of underlying abscess which needs drainage) need to be considered. A further line of management needs to be individualized under such circumstances.
A 65-year-old man presents with complaints of painless visual blurring, which has happened twice in the last day. He has a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He has a 30 pack-year smoking history, drinks alcohol occasionally, and has never used illicit drugs. He mentions that one day earlier, he lost his speech for a few minutes. On examination, it is determined that he has again lost vision in his left eye. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
1. Heparin infusion
2. Fibrinolytic therapy
3. CT brain scan without contrast
4. Acetylsalicylic acid
3. CT brain scan without contrast
- Before beginning lytic therapy for a developing stroke, it is most essential to obtain CT brain imaging to ensure that there is no hemorrhagic component.
- Only embolic and ischemic strokes can be treated with lytic therapy. It is very dangerous to treat hemorrhagic strokes with lytic therapy.
- In this clinical scenario, painless loss of vision may be amaurosis fugax and may be associated with carotid artery stenosis.
- Thus, another recommended study is a duplex ultrasound of the neck to look at the carotid bifurcation. Alternatively, one could follow the unenhanced brain CT with a head and neck CT angiogram.
An 87-year old female with a history of osteoporosis sustains a ground level fall. She complains only of lower back pain. She is taken to the local hospital where a physical examination reveals only focal tenderness to the lumbar spine and no evidence of neurological deficits. Advanced imaging reveals a spinal fracture of L2 that involves only the anterior 1/2 of the vertebral body. What type of fracture is this according to the Denis classification?
1. Compression
2. Burst
3. Flexion-distraction
4. Fracture-dislocation
1. Compression
- Compression fractures, as defined by Denis, involve injury to the anterior column of the vertebral body with an intact middle column.
- These are inherently stable fractures.
- A burst fracture is defined as fractures of the anterior and middle columns with possible additional involvement of the posterior column if lamina fractures are present or if dural tears or nerve entrapments occur. In this question, only the anterior column is injured.
- A flexion-distraction injury describes an injury incurred on all three columns. In this question, only the anterior column is affected. A fracture-dislocation injury describes an injury incurred on all three columns, with translation. In this question, only the anterior column is affected.
A 65-year-old female was brought to the neurology clinic following sudden onset dropping of her bilateral eyelids. She has no such previous episodes. On examination, she was conscious, oriented, and had no weakness or ophthalmoplegia. However, her left pupil was dilated, and the horizontal pursuit and saccadic eye movements were affected. An urgent MRI brain was advised. Based on the clinical scenario, MRI is most likely to reveal stroke at which region?
1. Anterior midbrain
2. Posterior midbrain
3. Anterior pons
4. Posterior pons
2. Posterior midbrain
- The involvement of the single caudally placed levator palpebrae superioris nucleus that innervates both the eyelid elevators can give rise to bilateral ptosis due to stroke within the oculomotor nuclear complex.
- The neural pathway governing the horizontal pursuit and saccadic eye movements also passes through the tegmentum near the oculomotor nucleus.
- The involvement of the rostral Edinger-Westphal nuclear component within the oculomotor nuclear complex gives rise to an ipsilateral dilated pupil.
- A stroke affecting the posterior midbrain region and affecting the oculomotor nuclear region would account for the pattern of clinical deficits seen in the patient.
A patient has edema and a dilated cardiomyopathy due to a dietary deficiency. What is the most likely etiology?
1. Thiamine deficiency
2. Vitamin C deficiency
3. Niacin deficiency
4. Pyridoxine deficiency
1. Thiamine deficiency
- This patient has wet-beriberi, which results from thiamine (B1) deficiency.
- In the developed world, thiamine deficiency most commonly occurs in patients with alcohol use disorder.
- Thiamine deficiency also causes Wernicke-Korsakoff and dry beriberi.
- Dry beriberi manifests as polyneuritis and symmetrical muscle wasting.
A 36-years-old female presents to the hospital for back pain and fever. Symptoms started four days ago and are getting progressively worse. She was seen in an urgent care center and was given pain medication and antibiotics with no improvement. She had a skin infection some three weeks ago that lasted a few days but disappeared without treatment. Otherwise, she is healthy and takes no medication. Physical exam shows enderness over the thoracic spine, numbness in both thighs and low-grade fever. Her blood count shows leukocytosis. Blood cultures are drawn. The emergency department does not have the capability for emergency MRI. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
1. MRI of the spine with contrast to be done outpatient for better sensitivity and wait for results of culture to be available
2. CT of the spine with contrast followed by neurosurgical evaluation; start antibiotics (vancomycin and cefotaxime)
3. CT scan of the spine without contrast followed neurosurgical evaluation; start antibiotics (vancomycin and ceftriaxone)
4. CT scan of the spine with contrast followed by neurosurgical evaluation; start antibiotics (vancomycin and piperacillin/tazobactam)
2. CT of the spine with contrast followed by neurosurgical evaluation; start antibiotics (vancomycin and cefotaxime)
- Spinal epidural abscess (SEA) is a true medical emergency. 1/3 of patients have no clear etiology for acquiring the infection. Of the other 2/3, the more common site of origin is skin infection followed by complications of spinal surgery.
- Staphylococcus is the organism in the majority of cases followed by gram-negative bacilli.
- CT and MRI with contrast are needed for SEA diagnosis. MRI is preferred, but if not immediately available, CT is a feasible alternative.
- Vancomycin plus a later generation cephalosporin (cefotaxime, ceftriaxone, cefepime) is the empiric antibiotic treatment of choice. If Pseudomonas is suspected (prior surgery or invasive procedures) then ceftazidime is preferred.
A 16-year-old girl who has undergone ventriculoperitoneal shunting for aqueductal stenosis 12 years ago was brought in with a history of high-grade fever, persistent vomiting, and altered sensorium. The child was drowsy with a withdrawal motor response to a painful stimulus. She had neck rigidity as well. A shunt infection was diagnosed. What would be the most rational management strategy in this case?
1. Remove the shunt, place a new shunt, and start high-dose antibiotics
2. Exteriorize the proximal shunt as external ventricular drainage (EVD), start antibiotics and then place a new shunt once the infection is controlled
3. High-dose antibiotics alone
4. Exteriorize the proximal shunt as EVD, start antibiotics and then plan for endoscopic third ventriculostomy (ETV); once the infection is controlled, and the CSF culture is sterile
4. Exteriorize the proximal shunt as EVD, start antibiotics and then plan for endoscopic third ventriculostomy (ETV); once the infection is controlled, and the CSF culture is sterile
- In cases of shunt infection, the ideal approach is to exteriorize its proximal part as EVD and then start antibiotics as per the CSF culture and sensitivity reports.
- Once the culture is sterile, to minimize the risk of subsequent shunt infection, it is a foreign body and a probable site of bacterial colonization; ETV can be undertaken in this patient since it is of an obstructive pattern of hydrocephalus.
- ETV has a high success rate in managing such an obstructive type of hydrocephalus without concurrent risk of infection and obstruction of the shunt tubes.
- Only antibiotics would have less chance of recovery in shunt infection. Placing a new shunt after controlling infection is an option in cases of communicating patterns of hydrocephalus.
A 47-year-old female presents to a pain clinic following the acute onset of severe neck pain radiating to her left arm for the last four days. MRI spine revealed severe left foraminal stenosis following a disc prolapse at the C5-C6 level. The pain has been refractory to pain medications. The treating clinician plans cervical traction therapy for the patient. The patient has a history of heavy smoking and is on bronchodilators for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. There is no history suggestive of exertional dyspnea or orthopnoea. Which of the following modes of traction is most appropriate for this patient?
1. Supine with the neck in the neutral position
2. Supine with neck flexion at 20 to 30 degrees
3. Supine with neck extension at 20 to 30 degrees
4. Traction in a sitting position
2. Supine with neck flexion at 20 to 30 degrees
- The patient has clinical signs, and symptoms that suggest cervical radiculopathy following acute disc prolapse.
- The cervical traction is more effective in a supine position, with the neck flexed to 20 to 30 degrees.
- This allows the most effective separation of the intervertebral disc spaces at C4-7 following elongation of the posterior muscular components aided with a pull from a correct load.
- Although the patient is known to have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, her respiratory functional status is stable. She could handle being in the supine position, which would yield more effective traction than in the sitting position (allowing for more posterior pressure loading). The sitting position is only used in patients strictly cannot lie on their backs (e.g., people who suffer from reflux esophagitis).
A 3-month-old male arrives with a sacral dimple in the midline and peripheral darkened, coarse black hair surrounding the dimple. The only notable finding on the exam is that the child’s left calf is approximately 6 millimeters smaller than his right calf. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
1. Ultrasound of the lumbosacral spine
2. MRI imaging of the lumbosacral spine
3. Plain lateral and AP films of the lumbosacral spine
4. No further workup is warranted
2. MRI imaging of the lumbosacral spine
- Even though an ultrasound of the lumbosacral spine could delineate a low lying conus, it would be difficult to diagnose a fatty filum using ultrasound alone. In addition there is a high rate of false-positives for a low lying conus. MRI imaging of the lumbosacral spine would be the next best step in evaluating this child.
- Definitive imaging using MRI is required to evaluate the patient for significant findings including fatty filum/tethered cord, syrinx, and/or Chiari I malformation. Defining the underlying anatomy would be the next appropriate step to allow the clinician to make appropriate treatment decisions.
- Plain lateral and AP films of the lumbosacral spine would not be useful in further evaluating this child. Any finding of bony abnormalities which still require subsequent MRI imaging to determine the necessity of surgical intervention. Additionally, plain images would not allow for evaluation of a low lying conus or fatty filum. Additionally, a syrinx would not be visualized on these studies.
- No further workup would not be appropriate given the presence of a sacral dimple, associated hairy patch, and muscle asymmetry of the lower extremities. Definitive imaging using MRI would be required to evaluate the patient for important findings including fatty filum/tethered cord, syrinx, and/or Chiari I malformation. Not defining the underlying anatomy would preclude the clinician from making the appropriate treatment decisions.
A 58-year-old male presents with complaints of homonymous hemianopsia of his left visual field and headaches for the past 2 months. MRI of the brain shows a lesion of the right occipital lobe, and glioma is suspected. Surgery for the resection of the tumor in the occipital lobe is planned. Which of the following is an important anatomical reference of approach from the medial surface of the occipital lobe?
1. Transverse sulcus
2. Calcarine sulcus
3. Lingual gyrus
4. Lunate sulcus
2. Calcarine sulcus
- The calcarine sulcus divides the medial surface into the cuneus gyrus and lingual gyrus. The transverse sulcus is present on the lateral surface of the occipital lobe.
- The calcarine sulcus is invariably identified in the posterior interhemispheric fissure region. It has a minimal number of side branches and always arises from the parahippocampal gyrus. Thus, making it an important landmark for surgical approaches of the area.
- The calcarine sulcus extends from the occipital pole to the parieto-occipital sulcus. The lingual gyrus is present on the lateral surface of the occipital lobe.
- The calcarine sulcus divides the medial surface into the cuneus gyrus and lingual gyrus. The primary visual cortex lies in the upper and lower banks of the calcarine sulcus and can manifest with contralateral homonymous hemianopsia when compromised.
A 55-year-old woman is seen after a basilar artery stroke. She has had symptomatic carotid artery stenosis for the past year and has refused to see a surgeon for correction during that time. Imaging shows a persistent, right-sided primitive artery branching proximally to the carotid canal and entering the cranium via an opening directly posterior to the carotid canal. As it enters the cranium, it terminates at the basilar artery, forming an anastomosis. This is the suspected cause of the stroke in this patient, and a surgeon plans for correction. The procedural plan is to approach through a major vessel and tie off the anomalous artery just before it enters the cranium. The surgeon makes note of the nearby structures and proceeds. The procedure is successful; however, on postoperative examination, the patient has developed dysphagia and notes numbness in her throat. Which foramen was accessed during the procedure, and which nerve was most likely injured?
1. Foramen lacerum: nerve of pterygoid canal
2. Foramen spinosum: nervus spinosus
3. Supraorbital foramen: trigeminal nerve
4. Jugular foramen: glossopharyngeal nerve
4. Jugular foramen: glossopharyngeal nerve
- The carotid canal lies immediately anterior to a deep depression, the jugular foramen, formed by the petrous portion of the temporal bone and jugular process of the occipital bone.
- The carotid artery can rarely have a persistent artery that uses the jugular foramen to enter the cranium, which can cause carotid artery stenosis.
- The jugular foramen contains the glossopharyngeal nerve. Injury to this area can result in glossopharyngeal nerve palsy (diminished sensation posterior tongue, palate, and pharynx as well as dysphagia).
- The basilar artery is located on the anterior portion of the brain stem and enters the cranium through the foramen magnum. The foramen magnum is closely medial to the jugular foramina.
A 28-year-old woman with a past medical history of Chiari malformation undergoes posterior fossa decompression in the sitting position. After the procedure, she develops new-onset left- sided facial droop and right-sided weakness. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient’s condition?
1. Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA)
2. Craniotomy
3. Bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP)
4. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT)
4. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT)
- Neurosurgical procedures in the sitting position have a high risk for air embolism.
- The most appropriate treatment for this patient is hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT)
- HBOT helps to reduce the size of air emboli.
- It also can facilitate the diffusion of nitrogen from the emboli back into the bloodstream.
A 67-year-old African American male with metastatic rectal cancer was referred to the interventional pain physician by the oncologist because of intractable back pain. His pain is 10/10 on a high dose of fentanyl patch and oral extended release morphine. Subarachnoid neurolysis was planned. Which of the following is correct?
1. He would benefit from 4mg IV midazolam to help with anxiety during the procedure.
2. He will need admission overnight to monitor for any hypotension from the subarachnoid block
3. He will need to lay still for at least half an hour after the procedure is done
4. This procedure would give him 100 percent pain relief for the next 6 months
3. He will need to lay still for at least half an hour after the procedure is done
- This procedure requires continuous communication with the patient to ensure the needle is in the right level. The provider injects a small quantity (0.1 ml) of alcohol and confirms with the patient that pain in the targeted level. Therefore, any sedative- hypnotic agent should be avoided.
- The concentration of phenol and alcohol in cerebrospinal fluid diminishes rapidly after administration. The patient should be maintained in a position that is often uncomfortable for at least 30 minutes after the injection. It is important to prevent leakage of the alcohol or phenol to unintended nerve roots. This is why the patient should be maintained in a position.
- While the neuraxial neurolysis is not always permanent, there is unlikely to be 100% relief in a patient with metastatic cancer.
- Up to 60% of patients have good pain relief after neuraxial neurolysis.
A 42-year-old female presents with low intermittent back pain for 6 months which worsens as she bends to pull weeds in her garden. The pain improves when she reclines in her recliner. A plain film x-ray of the lumbar spine is reported as showing “mild grade I spondylolisthesis without significant change between flexion or extension and without other significant abnormalities.” What is the probability that she will fail conservative therapy and require surgical treatment?
1. 10% to 15%
2. 45% to 55%
3. 75% to 85%
4. 85% to 95%
1. 10% to 15%
- Conservative therapy will fail in about 10% to 15% of younger individuals with low-grade nontraumatic spondylolisthesis.
- As one ages, conservative treatment can help with low-grade slippage.
- The role of surgery is to decompress the nerves and immobilize the unstable segment(s). Fusion is often necessary at the level of the intervertebral discs.
- Short-term results reveal that surgery has markedly better results compared to conservative approaches, especially in young people.
A 44-year-old male presents with complaints of weakness in both hands that have gradually developed over the last three months. Additionally, he has mild swallowing difficulty and occasional speech slurring. On physical examination, there is marked atrophy of intrinsic hand muscles with diffusely hyperactive deep tendon reflexes and positive Babinski reflex. An electromyogram (EMG) and nerve conduction study (NCS) are ordered. These tests will most likely show which of the following?
1. Slow nerve conduction velocities
2. Decremental response on repetitive stimulation of motor nerves
3. Absent sensory nerve responses
4. Fibrillations on needle EMG
4. Fibrillations on needle EMG
- The patient likely has amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, demonstrated by both upper and lower motor neuron findings on exam.
- EMG and NCS exams most commonly show evidence of active denervation on needle EMG (fibrillations and positive sharp waves) with possible reduced amplitudes of motor nerve conductions due to loss of viable axons supplying the muscles.
- Sensory nerve conductions would be preserved throughout the disease, and motor nerve velocities would be unaffected until very late in the ALS disease process.
- Unfortunately, the diagnosis of ALS is not easy, and it can take months to work up the patient since there is no specific test. Nerve conduction studies and needle EMG can help confirm the diagnosis and exclude other peripheral neurological disorders like demyelinating neuropathies and neuromuscular transmission defects like myasthenia gravis (decremental response seen on repetitive motor nerve stimulation).
A 24-year-old professional gymnast with no past medical history presents with lower back pain that has been present for 3 months. The patient states the pain is exacerbated when he extends his spine. Upon physical examination, placing the patient into lumbar extension exacerbates his pain. Lateral lumbar x-ray shows anterior displacement of L4 in correlation to L5. What is the most common cause of this finding?
1. Spondylolisthesis
2. Spondylolysis
3. Anterolisthesis
4. Osteoarthritis
2. Spondylolysis
- Spondylolysis is a fracture of the pars interarticularis; this is also known as a “Scottie Dog fracture” which can be missed on the lateral lumbar x-ray, and more commonly seen on the oblique lumbar x-ray.
- Spondylolysis is the most common cause of spondylolisthesis. Spondylolysis occurs in patients who may overwork themselves and participate in high impact activities that involve extension and rotation, which is seen in gymnasts.
- Spondylolysis is seen in the L5 region in approximately 90% of cases.
- The patient has spondylolisthesis, specifically anterolisthesis of L4 on L5, meaning there is anterior slippage of the vertebral body in correlation to the one below it. The most common cause of spondylolisthesis is spondylolysis. Anterolisthesis is a specific type of spondylolisthesis; it is specifically anterior displacement in correlation to the one below it. The patient in this scenario does have symptoms and radiographic imaging consistent with anterolisthesis, but the question is specifically asking what the most common cause of anterolisthesis is, for which the answer is spondylolysis. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that is due to wear and tear to the articular cartilage. Although this may be a contributing factor to the patient’s pain, this patient does not fall within the common image of an osteoarthritis patient. Osteoarthritis patient risk factors are obesity, age, and females. This patient is a healthy professional gymnast who fits the criteria more for spondylolysis, which is high impact, overuse, extension, and rotation exercises. Radiographic imaging for patients with osteoarthritis will show spondylosis, which is degenerative changes in the discs, vertebral bodies, and z joints. Spondylolysis, on the other hand, is a fracture of the pars interarticularis.
A 25-year-old male suffers from a transient inability to perform calculations and write. After resolution, he has no residual problems. He has no other neurological disorders. Which of the following tests should be performed in this patient?
1. CT scan without contrast
2. EEG
3. CT scan with contrast
4. MRI
2. EEG
- This patient is most likely suffering from ictal Gerstmann syndrome. An EEG should be performed to confirm the diagnosis.
- CT scan without contrast can be done in this patient to exclude a hemorrhage as a cause of his epileptic syndrome, but EEG is superior in confirming the ictal form of this syndrome.
- CT scan with contrast can be done in this patient to exclude tumors as a cause of his epileptic syndrome, but EEG is superior in confirming the ictal form of this syndrome.
- MRI can be done in this patient to exclude tumors as a cause of his epileptic syndrome, but EEG is superior in confirming the ictal form of this syndrome.
A 16-year-old girl is involved in a serious motorcycle accident. The patient exhibits a fracture-dislocation of a vertebra. The signs and symptoms include (1) bilateral loss of pain and thermal sense within the area of the fracture, (2) lower motor neuron symptoms and vasomotor paralysis in areas supplied by the injured segments on the right side, (3) loss of sensory impulses in the posterior white columns below the lesion on the right side, and (4) upper motor neuron lesion below the level of injury on the right side. The symptoms described are most suggestive of which of the following?
1. Traumatic syringomyelia
2. Anterior spinal cord syndrome
3. Posterior spinal cord syndrome
4. Brown-Sequard syndrome
4. Brown-Sequard syndrome
- Brown-Sequard syndrome characteristically results following hemisection of the spinal cord.
- It is characterized by loss of motor function on the side of the lesion and loss of protopathic sense on the contralateral side.
- It is most commonly caused by penetrating or blunt trauma but can also be caused by mass occupying lesions, bleeding disorders, and disc herniations.
- Syringomyelia typically results in the loss of pain and temperature sensations in the cape-like patterns. Anterior cord syndrome results in loss of motor as well as pain and temperature below the level of spinal injury. Posterior cord syndrome results in loss of proprioception and vibrations sensation below the level of injury
A 28-year-old G2P1 woman notes that fetal movements were less during this pregnancy than in prior pregnancies. At birth, the infant is floppy and has very feeble arm and leg movements. The infant cannot feed, has difficulty breathing, and has a weak cry. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Cerebral palsy
2. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
3. Werdnig-Hoffmann disease
4. Polio
3. Werdnig-Hoffmann disease
- Werdnig-Hoffmann disease, or type 1 spinal muscular atrophy, is characterized by a floppy baby. Marked hypotonia at birth is present.
- Weakness is a prominent feature, and proximal weakness predominates.
- Affected children can never sit or stand up and may require prolonged respiratory support to survive.
- Children born with Werdnig-Hoffman disease have normal intelligence.
A 35-year-old male patient presented with chronic, daily headaches localized to the occipital area and radiating to shoulders bilaterally. Symptoms are not responsive to analgesic medications. He reports occasional gait instability and episodes of dizziness. MRI of the brain and spine showed Chiari malformation type 2. The patient undergoes foramen magnum decompression. At the four-week follow-up visit, the patient reports left-sided shoulder weakness with dropping of the left shoulder and winging of the scapula. There is also some loss of shoulder abduction. What could be the cause of this impairment?
1. Prolonged anesthesia affecting plexus
2. Muscle dissection leading to nerve injury
3. Bone fracture due to abnormal position during surgery
4. Failure of postoperative physical therapy
4. Failure of postoperative physical therapy
- Spinal nerve injury could occur during the posterior fossa decompression surgery for Chiari malformation.
- The surgical position such as semi-sitting could be the main cause of stretching the nerve due to the weight from the unsupported arms. Moreover, a prone position could stretch the nerve when too much retraction is used to hold the shoulders.
- Another possible source of injury to the accessory nerve is a thermal injury during muscle dissection along or near the course of the nerve.
- Using self-retainers and having a thin neck (with small muscle bulk) could lead to excessive stretching of the accessory nerve, causing nerve injury.
A 25-year-old woman admitted to the hospital suffering from pain in the pectoral and axillary region, weakness and muscle loss at the base of the thumb. An x-ray result shows that the patient has a cervical rib. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
1. Arterial thoracic outlet syndrome
2. Venous thoracic outlet syndrome
3. Rib tumor
4. Neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome
4. Neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome
- The cervical rib commonly causes the neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome by compressing the lower trunk of the brachial plexus.
- The base of the thumb muscle’s function is lost due to the compression of the lower trunk; because the lower trunk is the origin of the nerves innervating this muscle.
- The syndrome is common in females.
- The onset of the syndrome is common in people who are 20-50 years of age.
A 55-year-old male with altered cognition and right-sided weakness was diagnosed with primary angiitis of the central nervous system (PACNS) following cerebral angiography and stereotactic biopsy. He was promptly started on combination therapy with oral prednisone and cyclophosphamide. During the follow-up visit, the patient had no resolution of prior symptoms and was noted to have developed new-onset blurring of vision, which was also determined to be secondary to PACNS. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
1. Increase the dose of cyclophosphamide and prednisone
2. Discontinue both the drugs and start on intravenous methylprednisolone
3. Discontinue both drugs and start infliximab
4. Add infliximab to the current drug regimen
4. Add infliximab to the current drug regimen
- The patient has features consistent with primary CNS vasculitis refractory to both glucocorticoids and immunosuppressants, and therefore adjunctive therapy is advocated.
- Tumor necrosis factor-alpha blockers (infliximab, etanercept) and mycophenolate mofetil can be used as adjunctive therapy along with the standard therapy.
- Patients started on tumor necrosis factor-alpha blockers have shown striking resolution of their neurological as well as radiological characteristics.
- The evidence of intravenous (IV) steroids being superior to oral regimens has not been noted. The discontinuation of the primary therapy is not advocated in refractory cases of CNS vasculitis.
A 45-year-old male from Colombia has a brain magnetic resonance image (MRI) performed for evaluation of chronic headaches with findings of multiple brain lesions. The lesions show are consistent with vascular lesions on susceptibility-weighted imaging (SWI) with a “popcorn” like appearance. Which of the following advice should be given to his son and daughter?
1. Genetic counseling should be offered to both son and daughter
2. The son and daughter should be referred for a catheter angiogram to evaluate for vascular malformations
3. Genetic counseling should be offered to the daughter but does not need to be offered to the son
4. No specific advice is required as the cavernous malformations likely occurred de novo
1. Genetic counseling should be offered to both son and daughter
- Cavernous malformations can be either sporadic or familial in etiology.
- Between 40% to 60% of cases of cavernous malformations are familial.
- Familial cases of cavernous malformations are inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion. First-degree relatives of patients with familial type cavernomas should have a screening MRI and genetic counseling.
- Familial cases of cavernous malformations tend to present with multiple cavernomas, compared with solitary cavernomas in sporadic occurrences. A higher proportion of Hispanic patients with cavernomas have familial type cavernomas compared with other populations.
A 35-year-old man presents to the clinic for follow-up. He has presented to the emergency department twice over the past two months with recurrent episodes of left hemiparesis and left homonymous hemianopia which resolved spontaneously. His head CT and subsequent MRI showed a right deep hemisphere infarction. Subsequent CT angiogram showed complete occlusion of his right terminal internal carotid artery with a mesh of distal collaterals. His right internal carotid and middle cerebral arteries were normal. The patient has no history of hypertension, diabetes, or hyperlipidemia. He does not smoke. He does have a history of craniopharyngioma, which was resected when he was a child with good recovery. What is the next best test to determine the efficacy of treatment for him to prevent subsequent ischemic events?
1. Cardiac echocardiogram
2. CT angiogram of his neck arteries
3. Platelet function tests
4. Acetazolamide challenge with CT angiogram
4. Acetazolamide challenge with CT angiogram
- The patient has had recurrent ischemic events related to underlying right Moyamoya disease.
- The most definitive therapy is revascularization with direct extracranial to intracranial bypass grafting or indirect revascularization with omental or dural synangiosis.
- Angiography with acetazolamide and carbon dioxide reactivity are the best tests to determine vascular reactivity and subsequent response to revascularization.
- The patient most likely has terminal right ICA occlusion with Moyamoya collaterals. A neck angiogram will not be helpful at all. Cardioembolism is one of the main causes of stroke in young patients, yet the description of this patient is clearly not embolic. Antiplatelet agents are indicated in secondary prevention of stroke in this patient, yet there is no evidence platelet function tests will help to determine the efficacy of its treatment.
A 72 -year-old male underwent coronary artery bypass grafting. Post-operatively he is diagnosed with ventral cord syndrome at the T6-T7 level on an MRI. What findings will a neurological exam likely show?
1. A motor loss in the upper extremities
2. Hyperactive reflexes
3. Loss of proprioception
4. Flaccidity with absent reflexes
4. Flaccidity with absent reflexes
- T6-T7 is below the innervation of the upper extremities, so these would not be affected.
- Acute VCS will have absent reflexes. However, there is a gradual return of the reflexes with increased tone or spasticity later on.
- Position sense is spared throughout the spinal cord.
- The acute stages of VCS present flaccidity and loss of deep tendon reflexes. Further, spasticity and hyperreflexia will develop in the following days and weeks.
Midway through surgery, a patient’s somatosensory evoked potentials (SEPs) have been stable and consistent. However, over the course of a few minutes, the amplitude drops to 40% of baseline, and the latency increases by 15%. It is thought to be most likely due to drops in the patient’s temperature. Which measure would be most effective in reversing the observed SEP changes?
1. Increase the forced air warmer temperature from 40 C to 43 C
2. Ask the surgeon to flood the surgical field with warmed saline
3. Increase the temperature of the room by 3 to 5 degrees
4. Apply several warm blankets to exposed areas of the patient
2. Ask the surgeon to flood the surgical field with warmed saline
- Many surgical factors can alter SEPs, though the most time- sensitive of these are ischemia, surgical manipulation of structures, cautery, and dissection. Ischemia could be caused by pressure, retraction, clipped vessels, etc.
- Manipulating structures and dissecting in certain areas may compromise neurologic structures and/or tracts, leading to a loss or distortion of evoked potential signals that, if not corrected, could result in permanent neurologic deficits. Cautery, if used too liberally, could compromise blood flow and/or directly injure a nerve or spinal tract.
- Flooding the surgical field with warmed saline would most quickly and effectively warm the components of the sensory pathway being monitored with SEPs, which have likely been exposed to room air and become relatively hypothermic.
- Although this would likely increase the patient’s body temperature given an adequate amount of time, it is not the fastest way to address the SEP changes, nor is it as effective as applying a warm solution to the surgical field, where the sensory path is likely exposed and vulnerable to being cooled to ambient temperatures. Attempts at directly warming the portions of the sensory pathway that are exposed during surgery, such as flooding the surgical field with warm saline, are likely to be more successful more quickly than attempting to warm only exposed parts of the patient.
A patient presents with sudden loss of vision in his right eye that lasted 45 seconds. He also felt weakness in his left arm at the same time, but the symptoms improved rapidly. He is on metoprolol, aspirin, and atorvastatin. Work up reveals a bruit in the neck and a duplex ultrasound reveals 90% stenosis at the right carotid artery bifurcation. However, because of ongoing chest pain, it is decided to stent the lesion. It is decided to perform the carotid artery stenting under intravenous sedation. After the introduction of the lead wire into the neck, an anti-embolic protection device is inserted before angioplasty and stent deployment. Once the stent is applied, the physician is unable to retrieve the anti-embolic device. What should be the next step?
1. Make a neck incision
2. Turn the head to the ipsilateral side
3. Turn the head to the contralateral side
4. If the carotid artery is patent, leave the device alone
3. Turn the head to the contralateral side
- As endovascular procedures grow in numbers, more complications are coming to light.
- During carotid artery stenting, sometimes the anti-embolic device may get stuck, but the device may come loose by altering the head position.
- However, there is a risk of a stroke when manipulating this device.
- Sometimes one may have to gently extend the neck to dislodge the device. The aim is to straighten the internal carotid artery. If preoperatively the internal carotid artery is tortuous, expect this complication to occur.
A 35-year-old male patient is undergoing endoscopic thoracic sympathectomy for benign paraganglioma near T2 of his spine. Sectioning of the rami communicantes between the sympathetic trunk and spinal nerve of T2 would result in which of the following?
1. Paralysis of all intercostal musculature below T2
2. Lack of sensation in intercostal spaces 2 and 3
3. Ptosis of the eyelid
4. Lack of axillary sweating
4. Lack of axillary sweating
- In patients with a history of spinal cord injuries, autonomic dysreflexia can lead to increased axillary sweating. Resection of the rami communicantes, transmitting pre- and post-ganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers, would not affect the somatic motor fibers running in the spinal nerves and thus, there would be no paralysis of intercostal musculature.
- Hyperhidrosis of the axillary sweat glands might be a result of overstimulation of the sympathetic nervous system via the rami communicantes, therefore a lack of sweating would result from an interruption of this system. Resection of the rami communicantes, transmitting pre- and post-ganglionic sympathetic (visceral efferent) nerve fibers, would not affect the somatic afferent fibers running in the spinal nerves. Thus, there would be no general sensory loss in the affected intercostal spaces or the subjacent parietal pleura.
- The superior tarsal muscle receives innervation by sympathetic fibers exiting the spinal cord at T1, synapsing in the superior cervical ganglion, and eventually distributed to the orbit via the oculomotor nerve. The superior tarsal muscle serves to raise the superior eyelid. Its innervation would not be affected by a division of sympathetic innervation below T1, as in this case.
- Sympathectomy is surgical resection of the sympathetic nervous innervation to reduce symptoms such as hyperhidrosis (excessive sweating). The thoracic sympathetic outflow to the axillary sweat glands would be disrupted by cutting the rami communicantes at the second thoracic spinal level.
A 75-year-old with a history of berry aneurysms presents to the ED because of the sudden onset of diplopia. On examination, there is a lack of ability of the right eye to adduct in the primary position (looking straight ahead). All other extraocular eye movements are normal. What would you expect to find if you performed a swinging flash light test on this patient?
1. Shining light in right eye leads to constriction of the right pupil with consensual constriction of the left pupil
2. Shining light in right eye leads to constriction of the right pupil without consensual constriction of the left pupil
3. Shining light in left eye leads to constriction of the left pupil without consensual constriction of the right pupil
4. Shining light in left eye leads to constriction of the left pupil with consensual constriction of the right pupil
3. Shining light in left eye leads to constriction of the left pupil without consensual constriction of the right pupil
- Oculomotor nerve palsies are most commonly caused by microvascular complications of hypertension or diabetes, trauma, or compression via aneurysms or neoplasm.
- The oculomotor nerve handles most movements of the eye, including adduction in primary position (looking straight ahead). In addition to somatic innervation, the oculomotor nerve controls parasympathetic innervation to the pupil and lens. These fibers are located on the outermost part of the nerve, and are thereby prone to compression from the outside via aneurysms, neoplasm, or increased intracranial pressure.
- The pupillary reflex is controlled by the optic nerve (afferent) and oculomotor nerve (efferent). Due to the anatomy at the brainstem, when one optic nerve is stimulated both oculomotor nerves become stimulated. This results in bilateral pupil constriction when light is shined in one eye.
- If the light is shined in one eye and neither pupil constricts, this is likely an optic nerve pathology because the stimulus did not reach the brainstem via the afferent pathway. If the light is shined in one eye and the same eye constricts, but there is no consensual constriction of the other eye, the oculomotor nerve on the other side is likely affected. If the light is shined in one eye and only the other eye constricts, the pathology probably lies within the oculomotor nerve on the same side.
A 72-year-old female with a known diagnosis of obesity hypoventilation syndrome presented to the sleep clinic with complaints of progressively worsening nocturnal choking episodes, despite using continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP). The PaCO2 and pulse oximetry levels obtained in the clinic were 40 mmHg and 80%, respectively. What should be the ideal therapeutic option for this patient at this time?
1. Weight loss surgery
2. Supplemental oxygen therapy
3. Tracheostomy
4. Medroxyprogesterone
2. Supplemental oxygen therapy
- According to current guidelines, if pulse oximetry levels remain persistently below 90% despite the CPAP therapy, supplemental oxygen therapy can be tried.
- Weight loss surgery is usually the last resort.
- Bi-PAP can also be tried in patients with increasing episodes of apnea or hypopnea on CPAP therapy.
- Medroxyprogesterone use is not regularly recommended.
A 72-year-old white man with prostate cancer treated ten years ago with resection presents with the complaint of double vision and not being able to completely open the eyelid on the right side over the past two months. The patient denies any other focal weakness, sensory loss, difficulty breathing, eating, or coughing. Vitals are normal. The neurological exam showed restriction of right eye abduction and right side ptosis with miosis. The fundal exam is unremarkable. Miosis is not changed after cocaine eye drop to the right eye, but the left eye dilated. Basic serum blood workup and CT head are unremarkable. Which of the following structures are involved in having these symptoms?
1. Trochlear nerve and ophthalmic nerve
2. Abducens nerve and sympathetic fibers
3. Oculomotor nerve and sympathetic fibers
4. Maxillary Nerve and abducens nerve
2. Abducens nerve and sympathetic fibers
- If anisocoria increases and one eye shows minimal dilation with cocaine eye drop, it indicates Horner syndrome.
- On examination, he had a right abduction deficit consistent with an abducens nerve palsy.
- The combination of an abducens nerve palsy and a Horner syndrome indicated a cavernous sinus localization. The history of slow progression over months indicated a compressive or infiltrative lesion.
- The proximity to critical neurologic structures makes it difficult for any invasive procedures like biopsy or excision.
A 20-year-old college student from Illinois was admitted for chronic headaches for the past 4 months. She has no travel history or occupational exposure to toxins or infectious agents. Her vital signs are stable. The physical exam is remarkable for lymphadenopathy, erythema nodosum, ataxia, and right facial droop without facial sparing. An MRI with gadolinium shows abnormal signal intensities in the cerebellum and brainstem. A lumbar puncture reveals elevated protein and mild pleocytosis. If a lymph node biopsy is done, what is the most likely histopathology that would be seen?
1. Encapsulated yeast
2. Caseating granulomas
3. Fibrosis
4. Non-caseating granulomas
4. Non-caseating granulomas
- This patient has neurosarcoidosis. Non-caseating granulomas are the hallmark of sarcoidosis.
- A lumbar puncture will show elevated protein and mild-to- moderate pleocytosis.
- An MRI with contrast may show leptomeningeal enhancement.
- A lumbar puncture may help exclude infection of the central nervous system, malignancy, or multiple sclerosis.
A 32-year-old female has been experiencing visual deficits over the last week. She reports that she does not believe her family history includes any major eye conditions. Her extraocular muscle function, intraocular pressure, fundoscopy results, and pupillary reflex are normal. During a confrontation visual field test, the patient demonstrates a wedge-shaped, right homonymous hemianopsia. Which of the following arteries would most likely be obstructed?
1. Posterior pericallosal branch of the posterior cerebral artery
2. Central retinal branch of the ophthalmic artery
3. Lateral posterior choroidal branch of the posterior cerebral artery
4. Supraorbital branch of the ophthalmic artery
3. Lateral posterior choroidal branch of the posterior cerebral artery
- The lateral posterior choroidal branch of the posterior cerebral artery vascularizes the medial and posterior portions of the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN).
- The only other vascularization of the lateral geniculate nucleus is from the anterior choroidal artery.
- Arteriovenous malformation of the lateral geniculate nucleus can produce homonymous hemianopsia.
- Damage to the LGN may present without concomitant effects on visual feedback responses, such as some forms of extraocular muscle function or pupillary reflex.
A 19-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay after being found by his roommate shortly after a suicide attempt by hanging himself in their dorm room. On arrival, the patient is hemodynamically stable and neurologically intact. He is placed in a rigid cervical collar in transport, and he is taken to the CT scanner on arrival. A non-displaced bilateral C2 pars interarticularis fracture with less than 3 mm subluxation of C2 on C3 is reported by the radiologist. The family asks about the prognosis of his injury and plan of care. What is the most appropriate response?
1. His fracture can be treated with a rigid cervical collar for at least four weeks, but we will need to acquire further imaging studies to evaluate his vascular structure and the ligaments in his neck, and he will most likely need surgical fixation as well
2. His fracture will require immediate surgical intervention with permanent fixation
3. His fracture can be treated with a rigid cervical collar for at least eight weeks, but we will need to acquire further imaging studies to evaluate his vascular structure, and the ligaments in his neck and the fracture has a high chance of healing on its own
4. His fracture can be treated with a rigid cervical collar for at least six weeks, but we will need to acquire further imaging studies to evaluate his vascular structure, and the ligaments in his neck and the fracture has a high chance of healing on its own
3. His fracture can be treated with a rigid cervical collar for at least eight weeks, but we will need to acquire further imaging studies to evaluate his vascular structure, and the ligaments in his neck and the fracture has a high chance of healing on its own
- A fracture of the bilateral pars interarticularis of C2 is also known as a Hangman fracture.
- Hangman fracture without significant subluxation or angulation has a greater than 90% chance of healing on its own and should be treated with a rigid cervical collar for at least eight weeks.
- It is important to obtain a CT angiogram of the neck to evaluate for vertebral artery occlusion or dissection, which could result in more serious neurologic damage.
- Additionally, an MRI of the cervical spine is necessary as damage to the ligamentous structures or the C2-3 disc space may require surgical intervention.
A 46-year-old man presents to the clinic after being referred by his palliative medicine specialist. The patient has a history of metastatic lung cancer with debilitating pain severely impacting his quality of life. Despite aggressive medical management and pain specialist intervention, his pain persists, and he reports that he is starting to experience thoughts of suicidal ideation because of his discomfort. The patient requests to be provided with information about a well-known invasive surgical procedure, which is often performed in patients with cancer with refractory somatic pain. Which of the following is the most common complication leading to mortality in patients that undergo this procedure?
1. Cardiac failure
2. Respiratory failure
3. Liver failure
4. Kidney failure
2. Respiratory failure
- Respiratory dysfunction and failure is the most common complication leading to mortality in cordotomy procedures.
- The mortality rate among cordotomy patients is documented as high as 6%.
- With current improved techniques and advancements in ablation devices, rates of respiratory failure and dysfunction are progressively decreasing.
- Poor respiratory function before undergoing percutaneous cervical cordotomy has not been shown to increase rates of respiratory failure.
A 49-year-old male presents for an initial consultation having been referred by her primary care provider for low back and bilateral radicular pain present for the past 4 months. His left sided leg pain has responded to formal physical therapy but his right sided leg pain has now worsened. A trial of NSAIDs did not alleviate his pain. He now also notices some difficulty in maintaining a normal gait for long distances. His physical exam is unremarkable except for 4/5 strength in plantarflexion of the right ankle and some subjective numbness on the dorsum of the foot. Flexion and extension standing plain films do not demonstrate any instability or listhesis. An MRI is obtained which demonstrates a left-sided far lateral disc herniation at L5/S1 as well as a right sided paracentral disc herniation at L5/S1. What is the best next step in the management of this patient?
1. Physical therapy to focus specifically on lower core strengthening and Right lower extremity strength
2. L5/S1 right paracentral discectomy
3. L5/S1 right paracentral and left far lateral discectomies
4. L5/S1 subtotal discectomy with L5/S1 interbody fusion
2. L5/S1 right paracentral discectomy
- Generalized formal physical therapy should be trialed in patients with symptomatic lumbar disc herniations, however, if failed, other treatment options should be considered. This patient has failed a trial of formal physical therapy, and his pathology is not indicative of predicted responsiveness to any demonstrated specific therapy protocol. Surgical intervention has a higher likelihood of providing a positive outcome.
- This patient has a symptomatic lumbar disc herniation, as regarding his right-sided symptoms has failed a trial of conservative therapy. Surgery in the form of discectomy is indicated at this time as it has a relatively higher likelihood of positive outcome when compared to continued nonoperative therapy. Despite pathology at on the left side at L5/S1, symptoms resulting from this specific disc herniation have resolved with physical therapy. When performing discectomy, surgical intervention should be focused only on correlated clinical and radiographic findings to maximize outcome and preserve segmental stability. As such, right paracentral discectomy at L5/S1 is the most appropriate treatment option.
- Strict and demonstrable associated clinical and radiographic evidence of pathology should be pursued when planning discectomy. As the symptoms caused by the left-sided far lateral herniation at L5-S1 have resolved and there are no abnormalities on physical exam of the left side, this herniation should not be addressed surgically to maintain segmental stability in the setting of the right-sided partial discectomy for the symptomatic paracentral herniation.
- Lumbar fusion is not indicated in the setting of symptomatic disc herniation, despite multiple foci of pathology. This patient’s work up is notable for the absence of instability on x-ray. L5/S1 right sided paracentral discectomy is the indicated surgical option to address this patient’s pathology.
A 54-year-old female with past medical history significant for polycystic kidney disease presents to the emergency department by ambulance after developing sudden onset severe headache and neck stiffness that started 2 hours ago. On exam, the patient is awake and alert but uncomfortable due to pain. She is noted to have a Cranial nerve III palsy on the left but otherwise normal neurologic exam. Vitals are blood pressure 170/106 mmHg, pulse 100 bpm, temperature 97.6 F, respiratory rate 18/minute, oxygen saturation 100% on room air. CT scan reveals subarachnoid hemorrhage. Based on the Hunt and Hess classification system, what grade of subarachnoid hemorrhage does this patient have?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
2. 2
- This patient presents with sudden onset, severe headache, and neck stiffness. This is concerning for subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) from a ruptured cerebral aneurysm.
- This patient has a history of polycystic kidney disease, which is a risk factor for cerebral aneurysm formation, and ultimately, rupture.
- The Hunt and Hess Classification system can be used to grade patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage from ruptured cerebral aneurysm. The system uses initial neurologic status to determine grade, which can be used to predict overall mortality.
- This patient presented with a severe headache, neck stiffness, and a left cranial nerve III palsy. This is consistent with a grade 2 on the Hunt and Hess Classification system.