Section 1 Flashcards

1
Q

An 81-year-old female presents with complaints of gradual, painless bilateral vision loss and a visual glare. On physical examination, there is a marked decrease in visual acuity and upon ophthalmoscopy, there is an increased opacity in the pathological structure. The structure causing the symptoms refracts light. Which structure of the eye refracts light?
1. Lens
2. Iris
3. Retina
4. Conjunctiva

A

1. Lens

  • The patient is presenting with symptoms of cataracts. Senile- cataracts present with gradual vision loss and increases in the opacity of the lens.
  • The light travels through the iris which controls the amount of light entering the eye. It does this by changing the diameter of the pupil.
  • The lens lies behind the iris and in front of the vitreous body. It is a biconvex structure allowing it to refract light onto the retina. Increasing the thickness of the lens can decrease the focus of the light onto the retina, decreasing the visual acuity.
  • After the light is refracted by the lens, it is focused onto the retina. The retina then stimulates the optic nerve which sends information to the brain.
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2
Q

A 59-year-old female presents to the office complaining of left hip pain and aching in the anterior thigh. Further workup ruled out vascular etiology and determined that the pain was radicular in nature. Based on the complaints and physical exam, it is determined that the levels involved contribute to the innervation of the muscles superficial to the lateral femoral cutaneous artery after it has branched from the deep femoral artery. What lumbar spinal levels are most likely to be found to be stenotic on further imaging?
1. L2-L4
2. L2-L3
3. L5-S2
4. L4-S1

A

1. L2-L4

  • The muscles that overly the lateral femoral circumflex artery are the rectus femoris and the sartorius, which are both innervated by the femoral nerve.
  • L2-L4 are the levels that make up the femoral nerve.
  • L2-L3 are the levels that make up the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, which does not supply any musculature.
  • L5-S2 are the levels that make up the inferior gluteal nerve, which supplies the gluteus maximus. L4-S1 are the levels that make up the superior gluteal nerve, which supplies the hip abductors.
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3
Q

A 58-year-old male who sustained traumatic fractures to the upper cervical spine following a motor vehicle accident. After a detailed evaluation of the fracture characteristics and imaging studies, you recommend posterior instrumentation and fusion from the occiput to C2. The patient asks you how would this affect his range of motion. You should inform him that he would probably experience which one of the following?
1. A decrease in cervical spine rotation of 50%.
2. A decrease in cervical spine flexion-extension of 50%.
3. Decrease of cervical spine rotation of 50% and a decrease of cervical spine flexion-extension of 50%.
4. Decrease of cervical spine rotation of 50% and a decrease of cervical spine flexion-extension of 10%.

A

3. Decrease of cervical spine rotation of 50% and a decrease of cervical spine flexion-extension of 50%.

  • The occipito-axial joint (occiput-C1) provides about 50% of cervical spine flexion-extension, the patient can anticipate the loss of this plane of motion.
  • The atlantoaxial joint (C1-C2) provides about 50% of cervical spine rotation, the patient can anticipate the loss of this plane of motion.
  • The occipito-axial joint (occiput-C1) provides about 50% of cervical spine flexion-extension, and the atlantoaxial joint (C1- C2) provides about 50% of cervical spine rotation.
  • The patient can anticipate a loss of half the motion in both of these planes upon fusion from the occiput to C2.
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4
Q

A 35-year-old male was involved in a high-speed motor vehicle accident with significant damage to the car and prolonged extrication. After standard ATLS protocol and stabilization, the tertiary survey identifies a fracture that extends through the entire vertebral body of L1. The vertebral body of T12 appears to be translated anteriorly to L1 as well. The patient is neurologically intact and only complains of back pain. No other injuries are identified. What is the best definitive management in a patient who sustains this type of fracture, as described by Denis?
1. Observation
2. Physical therapy
3. TLSO brace
4. Open reduction, instrumented fusion

A

4. Open reduction, instrumented fusion

  • The patient has sustained a fracture-dislocation type injury, as described by the Denis classification.
  • This is an injury to all three columns and is highly unstable. This patient requires urgent open reduction and instrumented fusion to correct the dislocation.
  • There is no role for physical therapy as the definitive management, as this patient requires urgent open reduction and instrumented fusion to correct the dislocation. A TLSO brace may be appropriate for stable fractures described by the Denis classification including Compression and some Burst fractures. However, in this inherently unstable fracture-dislocation, this patient requires urgent open reduction and instrumented fusion to correct the dislocation.
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5
Q

A 54-year-old female presents to the ED complaining of an asymmetrical face, slurring of her words, and drooling during breakfast this morning. The patient is suspected of suffering a stroke and during the neurologic examination, the patient complains that she can not feel the left side of her face. Which of the following is responsible for her not being able to feel the left side of her face?
1. A lesion of the right nucleus cuneatus
2. A lesion of the left medial lemniscus
3. A lesion of the right ascending ventral trigeminothalamic tract
4. A lesion of the right medial lemniscus

A

3. A lesion of the right ascending ventral trigeminothalamic tract

  • The ventral trigeminothalamic tract (VTTT) carries sensory information from both the spinal trigeminal nucleus (pain and temperature) and the chief sensory nucleus (2-point discrimination, conscious proprioception, vibration, and fine touch).
  • Sensory information from the face enters the brain stem at the pons and continues to the spinal trigeminal nucleus (pain and temperature sensation) or chief sensory nucleus (2-point discrimination, conscious proprioception, vibration, and fine touch sensation) where the fibers synapse with second-order cell bodies. The specific type of sensation will determine which nucleus the fibers go to, e.g., information about pain will go to the spinal trigeminal nucleus.
  • The ventral trigeminothalamic tract (VTTT) carries pain and temperature sensation (originating from the face) from the contralateral spinal trigeminal nucleus to the ventral posteromedial nucleus (VPM). From the VPM, fibers continue to the sensory cortex. Therefore, a lesion of the ascending VTTT will result in contralateral loss of these nerve functions. In this case, a lesion of the right ascending VTTT will result in loss of pain and temperature sensation from the opposite (left) side of the face.
  • After synapsing in the spinal trigeminal nucleus or chief sensory nucleus, second-order sensory fibers cross over the midline of the brain stem as the ventral trigeminothalamic tract (VTTT) and ascend to the ventral posteromedial nucleus.
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6
Q

The anatomy of the optic nerve is thought to play a role in both the development of papilledema and the response to optic nerve sheath fenestration (ONSF). Which of the following is a proposed mechanism for the variable response to ONSF based on anatomic variations of the optic nerve?
1. Closure of the fenestration site causing a reaccumulation of perioptic cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
2. Variations in the anatomic configuration of the vascular supply of the optic nerve and extraocular muscles
3. The variable architecture of the subarachnoid space of the optic nerve in its different segments
4. The variable meshwork and organization of the orbital septae

A

3. The variable architecture of the subarachnoid space of the optic nerve in its different segments

  • In addition to the anatomy of the subarachnoid space, variable or increased compliance of the optic nerve sheath at the insertion to the posterior globe is thought to contribute to the development of optic disc edema and choroidal folds in the syndrome of acquired hyperopia and choroidal folds. While it has not been robustly studied as a mechanism for altered CSF dynamics in pseudotumor cerebri syndrome, it may also play a role in the development of papilledema in the setting of intracranial pressure (ICP) elevation and warrants further investigation
  • The subarachnoid trabeculae, septa, and pillars of the subarachnoid space of the optic nerve tend to be more tightly packed as one approaches the globe. This could lead to a sort of ball valve effect, trapping fluid within the subarachnoid space, leading to the accumulation of substances within the CSF that could be toxic to the optic nerves and contribute to the development and severity of papilledema.
  • The subarachnoid trabeculae, septa, and pillars vary in their density as well as their arrangement depending upon their location within the different portions of the optic nerve. This variability may play a role in the CSF dynamics between the subarachnoid space of the optic nerve and the suprasellar cistern that connects it to the intracranial space and may contribute to the pathophysiology of papilledema and the sometimes variable response seen to ONSF
  • The closure of the durotomy site after fenestration is presumed if there is a recurrence of optic disc edema after surgery. However, incomplete fenestration can occur based on the anatomy of the subarachnoid space if a window is not excised from the sheath, and only slits or holes are created in the sheath.
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7
Q

A 10-year-old female complains of low back pain for the last three weeks. She does gymnastics in high school since childhood. The pain is located in the lower back, non-radiating, and exacerbates with activity. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Vertebral fracture
2. Spondylolysis
3. Muscular strain
4. Disc herniation

A

2. Spondylolysis

  • Injury of the pars interarticularis is one of the most common identifiable causes of ongoing low back pain in adolescent athletes.
  • Divers, rowers, gymnasts, weight lifters, wrestlers, and throwing track and field athletes have higher rates.
  • The most frequently presenting complaint is low back pain, either localized or diffuse. The pain is usually exacerbated by trunk hyperextension or rotation exercises.
  • There is no acute trauma for vertebra fracture diagnosis. Muscle strain can be possible, but it should relieve with painkillers and rest within a few weeks. Disc herniation usually provokes leg pain and sciatica.
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8
Q

A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department due to persistent left-sided numbness that started about an hour ago. Significant medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, essential hypertension, prostate cancer, cataracts, and two prior myocardial infarctions five and eight years ago. He has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for the past 40 years. He takes metformin, atorvastatin, lisinopril, tamsulosin, and undergoes radiation therapy every two weeks. He has been compliant with his medications and follow-up visits. His vital signs are temperature 38 C (100.4 F), blood pressure 140/85 mmHg, respiratory rate 12/minute, and 92% oxygen saturation on room air. The patient is alert and oriented to person, place, and time. He can draw a clock fully with the time. The neurologic exam is significant for decreased sensation to crude touch, pinprick, and fine touch in his left face, arm, and leg. No visual field defects are noted. Strength is 5/5 throughout, and reflexes are 1+ bilaterally in his upper and lower extremities. Cardiac examination demonstrates a 1/6 systolic murmur at the right upper sternal border, and pulmonary examination demonstrates increased inspiratory and expiratory effort with bilateral expiratory wheezes in all lung fields. Chest x-ray shows a flattened diaphragm and expanded lung fields bilaterally. Head CT scan is negative. Based on this patient’s presentation, what is the most likely location of the brain lesion?
1. Right parietal lobe and middle cerebral artery
2. Left internal capsule and lenticulostriate artery
3. Right pons and perforating pontine arteries
4. Right thalamus and the thalamoperforating arteries

A

4. Right thalamus and the thalamoperforating arteries

  • The anatomic distribution of lacunar syndromes and infarctions is most commonly the basal ganglia, the pons, and the subcortical white matter structures.
  • These anatomical sites correspond to lesions at the lenticulostriate arteries, the anterior choroidal artery, thalamoperforating arteries, paramedian branches of the basilar artery, and the recurrent artery of Heubner from the anterior cerebral artery.
  • In a pure sensory stroke, the patient presents with unilateral numbness of the face, arm, and leg without cortical signs or motor deficits. All sensory modalities will be impaired.
  • A lesion of the contralateral thalamus, supplied by the thalamoperforating arteries, is the most common cause of a pure sensory stroke.
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9
Q

A 22-year-old lacrosse player presents to his primary care provider for a yearly physical. During his visit, he expresses concern over the recent attention that concussions have received in the media. He mentions that he has had several previous concussions and is worried that he may have returned to play too quickly. What is the most appropriate response when he asks about the appropriate amount of time to recover from a concussion?
1. If a concussion is diagnosed, he may return to play as soon as his coach permits
2. It does not matter whether or not a concussion is diagnosed. He must sit out at least two weeks
3. Neuropsychological tests have shown abnormalities in concussed athletes up to 5 weeks following injury. Therefore, it is possible that at least a month may be required before return to play
4. If he does not have any symptoms immediately following a rapid acceleration-deceleration impact to the head, he may return to play immediately

A

3. Neuropsychological tests have shown abnormalities in concussed athletes up to 5 weeks following injury. Therefore, it is possible that at least a month may be required before return to play

  • There have been increasing efforts in organized team sports to decrease the number of concussions by creating stricter penalties for intentional blows to the head in addition to “return to play” guidelines.
  • Unfortunately, there is limited evidence-based data as to the best method of monitoring an athlete’s neurological dysfunction following a concussion, and there is not a consensus on when return to play is appropriate.
  • Most recommendations focus solely on the resolution of symptoms before allowing for a return to play and various neuropsychological tests have shown abnormalities in concussed athletes up to 5 weeks following injury.
  • Therefore, it is possible that at least a month may be required before return to play as re-injury is much more likely to occur in the period immediately following a traumatic brain imaging.
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10
Q

A patient presented to your clinic for treatment of a low-flow indirect carotid cavernous fistula. You are performing the exposure for a direct cannulation of the superior ophthalmic vein. You have made your superior sulcus incision and opened the orbicularis oculi and orbital septum. You are unable to identify the superior ophthalmic vein, even after tracing back the supraorbital vein. What is the next best operative step?
1. Discontinue the operation. I will not be possible to cannulate the superior ophthalmic vein in this scenario
2. Perform a lateral orbitotomy to expose the superior ophthalmic vein in the lateral orbital wall
3. Continue aggressive dissection within the orbital fat pad to identify the superior ophthalmic vein
4. Make an additional eyebrow incision to facilitate an orbitofrontal bone flap. The superior ophthalmic vein will be identified running immediately under the superior rectus muscle

A

4. Make an additional eyebrow incision to facilitate an orbitofrontal bone flap. The superior ophthalmic vein will be identified running immediately under the superior rectus muscle

  • If the superior ophthalmic vein is not hypertrophied, it may not be readily identified within the initial dissection. To broaden the exposure, an eyebrow incision is commonly used to facilitate an orbitofrontal bone flap (through a small burr hole in the orbital rim). Aborting the procedure after the initial exposure is premature.
  • The superior ophthalmic vein is reliably identified within the superomedial aspect of the periorbital zone, immediately deep to the superior rectus muscle. This is a critical landmark used during surgical cutdown to the vein.
  • A lateral orbitotomy has been described as one method of broadening the exposure to facilitate identification of the superior ophthalmic vein. However, it is used to expose the vessel as it exits the superior orbital fissure and not within the lateral orbital wall.
  • Aggressive dissection in the orbital fat pad may cause damage to vital structures and is not recommended during cutdown to the superior ophthalmic vein. If difficulty is encountered, broadening of the exposure is recommended.
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11
Q

A 75-year-old female presents to the emergency department who was in a motor vehicle collision and had a Hangman fracture on CT imaging without any vascular injury on angiography. She is placed in a rigid cervical collar and has no neuro-deficits. The CT demonstrates less than 11 degrees of angulation of the C2 body and greater than 3.5 mm displacement. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
1. No further imaging and rigid cervical collar for 8-14 weeks
2. Cervical spine flexion and extension x-rays
3. MRI of the cervical spine
4. Consent for internal fixation

A

3. MRI of the cervical spine

  • The fracture described is Frances grade III. Two factors are taken into consideration for the Francis Grading system: angulation and displacement. Angulation is measured by the degree of anterior angulation off of the posterior vertebral line drawn straight up from the C3 vertebral body.
  • Displacement is measured by the amount of anterolisthesis, either greater than or less than 3.5 mm. Type 1- less than 11 degrees of angulation and less than 3.5 mm of displacement, type 2- greater than 11 degrees of angulation and less than 3.5 mm of displacement, type 3- less than 11 degrees of angulation and greater than 3.5 mm displacement, type 4- greater than 11 degrees of angulation and greater than 3.5 mm of displacement, type 5- complete disc disruption.
  • Francis Grades II, IV, and V (greater than 11 degrees of angulation or complete disc distribution) are treated by internal fixation, whereas Grade I and III (displacement without angulation) may be treated conservatively.
  • While greater than 90% of Hangman fractures will heal with rigid cervical collar alone, further imaging to evaluate the ligamentous structures and C2-3 disc is required before deciding on conservative treatment. Cervical spine flexion and extension x- rays, if performed, would show some mobility. However, this is a dangerous alternative and will be less diagnostic when compared to an MRI of the cervical collar. An MRI of the cervical spine is necessary to evaluate the C2-3 ligamentous structures and disc.
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12
Q

Following a motor vehicle accident, a 35-year-old male is agitated and has multiple cerebral contusions on CT of the head. Hemodynamic measurements show a heart rate of 85 beats/min and a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 84 mmHg. An intracranial pressure monitor reveals a pressure of 28 mmHg. What is the most appropriate management regimen?
1. Hyperventilation to maintain a cerebral PCO2 of 25 to 30 mmHg
2. Administration of phenylephrine to increase MAP
3. Administer hypertonic saline
4. Placement of patient in Trendelenburg position

A

3. Administer hypertonic saline

  • Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is the difference between mean arterial pressure (MAP) and intracranial pressure (ICP). It should be greater than or equal to 70 mmHg. ICP should be 20 mmHg or less.
  • Methods for reducing ICP include elevation of the head of the bed (reverse Trendelenburg), administration of hypertonic saline, mannitol, other diuretics, sedatives to control agitation, prevention of hypovolemia, maintenance of adequate CPP, and keeping pCO2 in the proper range.
  • Hypertonic saline has been shown to be superior to mannitol in patients with hypotension severe brain trauma. The patient also will require aggressive fluids management.
  • Hypercapnia causes vasodilation of the cerebral vessels, which increases intracranial volume and pressure. Hyperventilation may be used for impending herniation to acutely lower ICP. However, prolonged hyperventilation decreases perfusion secondary to the vasoconstriction that occurs in an injured, ischemic brain.
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13
Q

A 67-year-old female was involved in a motor vehicle accident in which she was the restrained driver of a car that rear-ended the vehicle in front of her that was stopped at a red light. She is rushed to a local trauma center where advanced imaging reveals she has sustained a flexion-distraction injury. What column serves as the axis of rotation in this type of injury, according to the Denis classification system?
1. Anterior
2. Middle
3. Posterior
4. Superior

A

1. Anterior

  • The anterior longitudinal ligament (ALL) serves as the axis of rotation, found in the anterior column of Denis’ three-column theory. The anterior column is otherwise comprised of the anterior two-thirds of the vertebral body and annulus
  • The middle column is comprised of the posterior one-third of the vertebral body and annulus, posterior vertebral wall, and the posterior longitudinal ligament (PLL). Flexion-distraction injuries do not have an axis of rotation to the middle column.
  • The posterior column is comprised of all structures posterior to the PLL including the posterior bony arch and the posterior ligamentous complex (supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, capsule and ligamentum flavum).
  • There is no superior column found in Denis’ three-column theory.
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14
Q

A 76-year-old female is undergoing microsurgical clipping of anterior communicating artery (ACOM) aneurysm. Intraoperatively, there is an inadvertent injury to the recurrent artery of Huebner (RAH). However, other perforators are well preserved. The postoperative CT image, however, shows hypodensities involving the caudate head, anterior limb of the internal capsule as well as putamen. What is the most likely cause of the radiological findings?
1. Diffuse vasospasm
2. Seizure
3. Rete communication of RAH with other lenticulostriate vessels from ACA and MCA
4. Injury to parent ACA vessel

A

3. Rete communication of RAH with other lenticulostriate vessels from ACA and MCA

  • The clinical scenario depicts insult to vascular territory of RAH, medial as well as lateral lenticulostriate vessels.
  • Due to the same embryological origin, RAH sometimes can form a rete like vascular communication to lenticulostriate branches from ACA as well as MCA arteries.
  • During such anatomical variants, injury to RAH can have a profound effect upon the vascular territory of medial and lateral striate vessels as well.
  • Diffuse vasospasm and injury to the parent ACA vessels would have resulted in hypodensities along with the distal ACA territories as well. The seizure would not lead to localized vasospasm in the caudate, internal capsule or the putaminal regions.
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15
Q

A 15-year-old male hockey player comes off the ice with a mild headache, feeling tired, emotional lability after receiving a hard check into the side boards. He is able to answer all 5 Maddock questions appropriately, is alert and orientated appropriately, with only three errors on balance testing. After a few minutes, his symptoms clear. Should he be allowed to return to play in this game and is he at risk for suffering a second impact syndrome?
1. Yes, he can return to play and no he is not at risk
2. No, he cannot return to play and he is not at risk
3. Yes, he can return to play and he may be at risk
4. No, he cannot return to play and he is at risk

A

4. No, he cannot return to play and he is at risk

  • Second impact syndrome is a poorly understood and an infrequently reported complication related to receiving a second concussion before the initial one clears. They are mostly seen in male athletes between 13 and 23 years old, and the most common sport is American football. Of the cases reported, athletes younger than 20 were associated with death or permanent disability. Many of the second hits appeared minor compared to the initial contact, including some of the hits not occurring to the head.
  • Concussion mechanism of injury is still incompletely understood but appear to involve axonal shear injury, metabolic and blood flow dysregulation, and neurotransmitter release on a large scale. This results in varying constellation of symptoms being reported by the athlete. Concussions can present with varying types and degrees of symptoms, and there is no one “classic” presentation. Sometimes the symptoms appear minor and mild, and sometimes there is a loss of consciousness where the athlete does not get back up on their feet.
  • With diagnosing a concussion being a challenge, the ability to predict a second impact syndrome is even more difficult. It would be prudent to be cautious, especially any adolescent athlete. Current literature supports the idea of this being a complication of a younger athlete returning to play too early after sustaining a concussion. It would also be prudent to be extra vigilant when providing sideline coverage during youth contact/collision sports.
  • Current guidelines recommend at least seven days, and a graded return to sport program be followed after receiving a concussion. Even if the symptoms are mild, with the right mechanism of injury, it would be prudent to watch the athlete closely and not allow a return to play until the graded return to sport protocol has been completed, and the athlete is symptom- free. Unfortunately, many athletes will hide or try to downplay their symptoms. One survey found only 1 out of 27 head injuries were reported in American college football players. All too often, athletes choose to play through the pain
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16
Q

A 76-year-old female presents today with progressive, severe low back pain. She has a history of osteoarthritis, type 2 diabetes, osteoporosis, hypertension, COPD, and osteoporotic compression fractures. Her last osteoporotic compression fracture was 2 years ago. She has been on alendronate since her last fracture. Pain is described as dull and achy, nine out of 10 in severity, without radiation pain. Her walking is limited due to her back pain. She denies any numbness or tingling into her lower extremities, or bowel or bladder incontinence at this time. On physical exam, there is point tenderness over her lower lumbar spine at the L4-L5 vertebral levels. Muscle strength examination of lower extremities is difficult to perform due to pain. However, plantar flexion and dorsiflexion muscle strength is 5/5 bilaterally, and lower extremity sensation is otherwise intact. Deep tendon reflexes for the L4, S1 are 2/4 bilaterally. Special tests cannot be performed to pain. Pain is elicited immediately upon the patient lying on her back. Kyphoplasty is being considered for the patient. What is the strongest contraindication for vertebral augmentation?
1. Metastatic vertebral fracture
2. Complete vertebral body collapse
3. Vertebral body fracture with a posterior cortical breach
4. Osteoporotic compression fracture

A

2. Complete vertebral body collapse

  • A complete vertebral body collapse would be a true contraindication of vertebral augmentation. An underlying fracture of the posterior wall of the vertebra has potentially serious complications. This would include extravasation of cement, leading to catastrophic neurological damage.
  • A relative contraindication to vertebral augmentation is a vertebral body fracture with a posterior cortical breach compared to a true contraindication in the case of a complete vertebral body collapse. In some studies, kyphoplasty has been completed on patients with a posterior cortical breach.
  • However, the concern for kyphoplasty in patients with posterior cortical branches arises when balloon inflation is stopped when pressures are above 250 PSI. The balloon then contacts the cortical surface of the vertebral body. Posteriorly, this could lead to extravasation of the cement and neurological damage. This risk is significantly increased with a complete vertebral collapse.
  • A metastatic vertebral fracture would be an indication to proceed with kyphoplasty compared to a contraindication such as the case of a complete vertebral body collapse. For any procedure, it is important to focus on the indications, contraindications, and alternatives of the procedures, as well as, post-operative expectations and follow up. In an osteoporotic compression fracture that has been unresponsive to conservative management, there is neither a contraindication or an indication to proceed with vertebroplasty. Some guidelines consider this to be a contraindication, while some expert opinion supports its use. Multiple systematic reviews of vertebral augmentation for patients with underlying cancer have been reported. In over half of these studies, patients reported significant improvement in pain. Similar scores were shown for decreases in pharmacological analgesia and disability scores.
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17
Q

A 64-year-old Northern Indian man with past medical history of diabetes mellitus and heterozygous MTHFR gene mutation was brought by his son to the emergency department for fever, eye discharge on the right side, painful eye movement on the right side for three days. The patient also reported a headache and vision changes on the right side for two weeks which are unusual for him. He takes only metformin 1000 mg BID and insulin shots with meals. There is no significant family history. Blood pressure is 110/65 mmHg, heart rate 105 bpm, and temperature 38.5 C. He is alert and oriented to person and place but not time, chemosis, periorbital edema and proptosis on the right eye. There is mild restriction of all extraocular movements of the right eye and mild drooping of the right eyelid. There was poor effort during strength exam. The rest of the exam is unremarkable. WBC, ESR, CRP, and D-dimer are mildly elevated. CT head is unremarkable. Lumbar puncture is done with no WBCs but mildly elevated protein of 120 mg/dL. Brain MRI shows an isointense lesion in the right cavernous sinus close to cranial nerve III with a decreased caliber of the intracavernous internal carotid artery on T1 and hypointense mass on T2. The lesion was well enhanced on T1 contrast. MR angiography shows a cavernous sinus mass and occlusion of the intracavernous carotid artery on the right side. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Carotid-cavernous fistula
2. Cavernous sinus tumors
3. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
4. Carotid-cavernous aneurysm

A

3. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

  • Cavernous sinus thrombosis (CST) is the most likely diagnosis because of the history of immunosuppression due to diabetes mellitus, hypercoagulable state due to heterozygous MTHFR gene mutation and geographic situation.
  • Fungal infection is the second common cause of cause of CST in a case series from Northern India with Aspergillosis for 8/18 (44.4%), mucormycosis 4/18 (22.2%), and probable fungal infection 6/18 (33.3%).
  • Infectious workup including lumbar puncture, D-dimer, MRI, and MRV or CTV should be performed if there is a suspicion for CST. If there is no concern for septic thrombosis, patients may need a further hematological workup for lymphoproliferative disorders and hypercoagulable states.
  • The management of CST should include antimicrobial with or without surgical drainage in the air sinuses or mastoid regions and antithrombotic therapies.
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18
Q

An 87-year-old male is involved in a car accident. A CT scan of the head identifies a lesion in the third ventricle suspected to be a colloid cyst. The patient also has mild hydrocephalus. He has multiple medical issues, including pulmonary hypertension, aortic valve stenosis, chronic kidney disease, hypertension, poorly controlled diabetes mellitus, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The patient is very concerned about the possible risk of the sudden death of with a colloid cyst. Given his medical comorbidities, which of the following treatments has the lowest upfront surgical risk for this patient?
1. Craniotomy with a transcortical approach
2. Craniotomy with a transcallosal approach
3. Endoscopic cyst resection
4. Stereotactic cyst aspiration

A

4. Stereotactic cyst aspiration

  • Stereotactic cyst aspiration of a colloid cyst has the lowest up- front surgical risk but the cyst is most likely to recur.
  • Endoscopic cyst resection of a colloid cyst has less surgical risk than a craniotomy for colloid cyst resection but has a slightly higher colloid cyst recurrence rate.
  • Craniotomy for resection of a colloid cyst has the highest up- front risk of the possible treatment options but also has the lowest colloid cyst recurrence rate.
  • Asympotomatic colloid cysts can be watched with serial imaging if small in size and more centrally located in the third ventricle.
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19
Q

A 12-year-old previously healthy boy is brought to the emergency department (ED) after he was struck on his right side by a motor vehicle while he was running across the street. His upper body was thrown forward, and he bumped his left forehead on the pavement. He was alert and oriented when the paramedics arrived at the scene. They immobilized his entire spine using a pediatric backboard and cervical spine collar before transport. In the ED, he is anxious but fully oriented. He reports pain in his head, abdomen, and legs. His vital signs include a temperature of 37.6 C, heart rate of 89 beats/min, respiratory rate of 19 breaths/min, blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg, and pulse oximetry of 99% (room air). On physical examination, the boy’s airway is clear, he is breathing spontaneously with normal respiratory effort, and his pulses and perfusion are normal. A superficial abrasion over his left forehead is noted. His abdomen is soft and non-distended, but it is tender to palpation in the right upper quadrant. He displays no peritoneal signs. There is tenderness to palpation over his right thigh with swelling and bruising. Imaging is performed which shows a hepatic contusion and a non-displaced skull fracture on the left side. What additional finding in this patient would confirm the diagnosis of Waddell triad?
1. Left tibia fracture
2. Right femur fracture
3. Right humerus fracture
4. Spinal injury

A

2. Right femur fracture

  • Waddell triad consists of three distinct features seen in pediatric pedestrian patients with blunt force trauma, usually secondary to direct impact by a motor vehicle. They include ipsilateral femur fracture, ipsilateral intrathoracic or intraabdominal injury, and contralateral head injury.
  • In this case, the patient was struck on his right side causing right side intraabdominal injury of the liver, left side head injury and would also have a right-sided femur fracture as the third sign of the triad.
  • Whenever children pedestrians are involved in a motor vehicle accident, it is important not to assume that they have only one organ injury. Further investigation should be done to identify other affected organs.
  • Patients who have Waddell triad should be treated as significantly injured and high risk for bleeding and shock.
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20
Q

A 14-year-old male presents with a 9 cm, highly vascular mass centered in the posterior nasal cavity and sphenopalatine foramen invading the infratemporal fossa (ITF), middle cranial fossa, and cavernous sinus. Staged surgical resection is being planned. Which of the following is the best imaging modality to evaluate this patient’s vascular anatomy for preoperative planning?
1. CT angiography (CTA)
2. MR angiography (MRA)
3. Angiography
4. Doppler ultrasound

A

3. Angiography

  • Angiography allows selection and superselection of distal external and internal carotid artery branches to more accurately identify the vascular supply of the tumor.
  • Angiography can be performed in conjunction with embolization and minimizes bleeding during surgery.
  • Angiography also shows tumor vascularity, the proximity of the internal carotid artery, cerebral circulation, and collateral vasculature.
  • MRA and CTA can be used to assess the anatomy of giant nasopharyngeal angiofibroma but angiography has the benefit of allowing for preoperative embolization of the tumor, making angiography the imaging modality to evaluate this patient’s vascular anatomy for preoperative planning. Doppler ultrasound does not offer significant benefit for determining the vascular supply of nasopharyngeal angiofibroma.
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21
Q

A 65-year-old female presents with blurred vision. During the interview, she admits that she also has had episodes of feeling the “room spinning,” especially when she turns her head. Two days ago, she had an episode of suddenly feeling weak and subsequently dropped to the floor. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate pertaining to the neurological event observed in the patient?
1. Dysarthria may develop
2. Balance problems are very rare
3. Fifty percent of transient ischemic attacks and strokes occur in the vertebrobasilar system
4. Hemiparesis is the most common symptom

A

1. Dysarthria may develop

  • Twenty-five percent of transient ischemic attacks and strokes occur in the posterior circulation. Other symptoms associated with vertebrobasilar insufficiency (VBI) may include gait disturbances, diplopia, visual loss, dysesthesias, headaches, nausea, vomiting, and poor coordination. It is important to distinguish VBI from more benign causes that may appear similarly such as benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. The head thrust test may be done to differentiate between peripheral vertigo and central, as well as the appearance of brainstem signs and cranial nerve abnormalities.
  • The posterior circulation supplies the pons, midbrain, medulla, occipital lobe, cerebellum, and part of the thalamus.
  • Consequently, there is a wide variety of symptoms depending on which structures are affected and the extent of the ischemia.
  • VBI is caused by narrowing of the arteries and progressive hypoperfusion or inadequate blood supply. Smaller arteries are prone to closing off from thrombotic changes.
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22
Q

A 27-year old male presents to the emergency department with a penetrating injury. He states that he was at work on a construction site when a sharp object fell on him and led to a penetrating injury on his back. MRI of the spinal cord is immediately done and reveals a cut in the spinal cord on the left side at the level of T9. Which of the following statement regarding the effect of his injury is true?
1. He will not be able to move his legs at all
2. He will not be able to move his right hand and right leg properly
3. He will not be able to move his left leg properly
4. He will not be able to move his left leg and left arm properly

A

3. He will not be able to move his left leg properly

  • In the spinal cord, the corticospinal tract supplies the ipsilateral muscles. Therefore, any damage in the tract will lead to damage in the muscles on the same side.
  • At each level of the spinal cord, roots arise and eventually form nerves that innervated different muscles. At the level of T9, the nerves to the arms have already left the spinal cord, however, those that supply the legs are yet to arise.
  • Ipsilateral damage in the corticospinal tract in the spinal cord will lead to an ipsilateral deficit in the muscles. Therefore, damage to the left corticospinal tract will lead to weakness or even paralysis of the left arm and leg depending on the level of the lesion
  • While the corticospinal tract within the spinal cord supplies ipsilateral muscles as decussation occurs at the level of the brainstem, other tracts such as the spinothalamic decussate within the spinal cord, so damage to that tract will lead to the contralateral effect. It is essential to understand those anatomical differences to identify lesions ion the nervous system.
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23
Q

An adult patient presents with the worst headache of her life. A noncontrast CT of the head is negative. A lumbar puncture produces four bloody tubes, each with RBC counts greater than 100,000/mm3. What is the next step in management?
1. Repeat a noncontrast head CT the next day
2. Perform a CT angiogram
3. Perform a head CT with contrast
4. Administer mannitol

A

2. Perform a CT angiogram

  • A noncontrast head CT in the context of a nontraumatic, bloody tap will be positive in the vast majority of patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage. However, a normal CT does not mean a bloody tap can be ignored.
  • Unlike a traumatic tap, the blood cell count does not diminish from the first to the fourth tube. Xanthochromia is the yellow appearance of cerebrospinal fluid caused by the degradation of heme to bilirubin confirming a hemorrhage.
  • CT or MR angiography is needed to detect vascular pathology that might account for the lumbar puncture findings of subarachnoid hemorrhage.
  • Initial management consists of preventing vasospasm, blood pressure control, fluid management, anticonvulsant therapy, pain control, and many neurosurgeons recommend early surgery.
  • **
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24
Q

A 19-year-old male is thrown off his motorbike and brought to the emergency department for evaluation. He has a decreased level of consciousness and is moaning and complaining of pain on the left side of his neck. His vital signs are temperature 99.6 F, heart rate 82 beats/minute, respiratory rate 20 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 120/84 mm Hg. He is alert and awake and following simple commands. His examination reveals bilateral equal and reactive pupils. There is a clear fluid coming out of the left ear. He also has a nosebleed and a large scalp laceration. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most rational approach to confirm the diagnosis of CSF leak suspected in the patient?
1. Glucose content
2. Beta-2 transferrin
3. MRI of the brain
4. Beta trace protein

A

2. Beta-2 transferrin

  • ß2-Transferrin is present only in CSF, perilymph, and vitreous humor. Agarose gel electrophoresis can be formed to detect ß2- Transferrin.
  • Beta-2 transferrin testing can be performed to establish the diagnosis of CSF leak in suspected cases of traumatic brain injury.
  • Beta 2 transferrin is the best test as this substance is only made in the brain. If it is located outside the brain, a CSF leak should be suspected.
  • ‘Halo’ sign and the sodium content of the fluid also help to suspect CSF leak in patients with traumatic brain injury.
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25
Q

The husband of a 73-year-old female calls emergency medical services (EMS) after noticing slurred speech and right-sided weakness in his wife. EMS personnel evaluates the patient and suspects a possible large vessel occlusion stroke using the Los Angeles Motor Scale. The patient’s last known normal was 30 minutes ago. According to the American Heart Association and American Stroke Association ‘Severity-Based Stroke Triage Algorithm for EMS’, to which of the following facilities should the patient be transported?
1. The closest acute stroke-ready hospital 45 minutes away
2. The closest primary stroke center 55 minutes away
3. The closest comprehensive stroke center 60 minutes away
4. The closest hospital regardless of stroke center certification

A

3. The closest comprehensive stroke center 60 minutes away

  • Eligible patients with a large vessel occlusion may benefit from mechanical thrombectomy.
  • Several stroke scales can be used by emergency medical services (EMS) to help identify possible large vessel occlusions including the Los Angeles Motor Scale (LAMS), Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Severity Scale (CSTAT), Rapid Arterial Occlusion Evaluation (RACE), and Field Assessment Stroke Triage for Emergency Destination (FAST-ED).
  • The 2018 American Heart Association and American Stroke Association guidelines state, “It remains unknown whether it would be beneficial for emergency medical services to bypass a closer IV tPA-capable hospital for a thrombectomy-capable hospital.”
  • The American Heart Association and American Stroke Association ‘Severity-Based Stroke Triage Algorithm for EMS’ recommends patients with suspected large vessel occlusion and last known normal within 6 hours be transported directly to nearest thrombectomy-capable stroke center or comprehensive stroke center, as long as bypass does not add more than 15 minutes to transport and does not preclude use of IV tPA.
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26
Q

A 39-year-old man comes into the emergency department for evaluation of a 2-day history of his “right eye- bulging,” swelling of the eyelids, and headache. The patient notes that he has had a sinus infection for the past couple of weeks that has not resolved. Vitals reveal a temperature of 100.6 F, heart rate of 112 bpm, respiratory rate of 18 bpm, and blood pressure 130/78 mmHg. Physical exam reveals exophthalmos and periorbital edema of the right eye, tenderness of the face below the eyes, and bilateral purulent discharge from the nares. The remainder of the exam is relatively benign. If his condition were allowed to persist, what other physical exam finding or symptom would be most likely expected?
1. Left hemiparesis
2. Nausea and vomiting, particularly in the morning
3. Inability to look up with the right eye
4. Inability to abduct the right eye

A

4. Inability to abduct the right eye

  • This patient has a cavernous sinus thrombosis (CST) or the formation of a blood clot within the cavernous sinus.
  • Cavernous sinus thrombosis (CST) may be either septic or aseptic in etiology. Septic causes include spreading infections from the ears, nose, sinuses, or teeth. This patient had a sinus infection, predisposing him to a CST. Aseptic causes are typically traumatic in nature.
  • Cavernous sinus thrombosis may occur due to a superficial infection of the face due to the anastomosis of the pterygoid venous plexus via the inferior ophthalmic vein.
  • Cavernous sinus thrombosis commonly affects the cranial nerves of the cavernous sinus, nerves III, IV, V(1), and VI. Of these, the abducent nerve is the most commonly affected, which would result in the inability of the eye to abduct.
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27
Q

A geriatric patient falls because of his Parkinson disease. Seven days later, he is brought to the emergency department and found to have altered mental status and weakness of his extremities. A CT of the brain reveals a subdural hematoma and transtentorial herniation. If this patient develops a cerebral infarct due to this herniation, which vessel will be compromised?
1. Anterior cerebral artery
2. Posterior cerebral artery
3. Bridging veins
4. Middle meningeal artery

A

2. Posterior cerebral artery

  • Subdural hemorrhage is most often due to tearing of bridging veins. This can occur secondary to acute high-speed impact to the skull. The geriatric population is at higher risk due to brain atrophy.
  • Herniation can occur in patients who have large hematomas. With a transtentorial herniation, a cerebral infarct occurs when the posterior cerebral artery is compressed.
  • A transtentorial herniation will also cause compression of the oculomotor nerve and dilatation of the ipsilateral pupil and decreased reactivity.
  • With a subfalcine herniation, the cerebral infarct occurs because of compression of the anterior cerebral artery.
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28
Q

A 12-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a new-onset headache and blurry vision for 6 hours. The patient denies a history of prior seizures. Past medical history includes a right-hand corrective surgery for polydactyly at eight months of age. The neurological examination reveals no abnormalities. CT head without contrast shows a mass in the suprasellar region. MRI of the brain further confirms the presence of a hypothalamic hamartoma. A rare genetic disorder is suspected. Which of the following best describes the patient’s clinical syndrome?
1. Pallister-Hall syndrome
2. Greig cephalopolysyndactyly syndrome
3. Oral-facial-digital syndrome
4. Acrocallosal syndrome

A

1. Pallister-Hall syndrome

  • Hypothalamic hamartomas are associated with rare genetic disorders such as Pallister-Hall syndrome.
  • Pallister-Hall syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a mutation to the GLI3 gene which classically presents with hypothalamic hamartoma and polydactyly.
  • Pallister-Hall syndrome is also associated with other abnormalities such as hypopituitarism, growth hormone deficiency, bifid epiglottis, and genital hypoplasia.
  • Pallister-Hall syndrome is typically diagnosed in early childhood presenting with seizures, central precocious puberty due to hypothalamic hamartomas, and polydactyly.
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29
Q

A 67-year-old female presents with upper back pain and progressive weakness over the past 15 days. History revealed a multilevel spine surgery for vertebral compression fractures six months ago. Previous laboratory and radiological evaluations revealed the diagnosis of multiple myeloma. Computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) showed lytic lesions and multiple pathological fractures involving T5, T6, and T9 vertebrae along with an epidural mass compressing the spinal cord at the T5 level. On evaluation, her lower extremity strength is grade 4 bilaterally. High-dose corticosteroids and radiotherapy are performed. Three-month follow-up radiological examination revealed complete resolution of cord compression and epidural mass. One year later she presented with worsening back pain and right facial numbness. MRI revealed leptomeningeal enhancement involving the right cavernous sinus, and trigeminal nerve extending to involve the thoracolumbar spine. Cerebrospinal fluid obtained from lumbar puncture showed a large number of atypical mononuclear cells. Flow cytometry confirmed plasma cells with kappa light chain restriction. What is the most likely cause of her presentation at this time?
1. Post radiotherapy changes
2. Infection
3. Pathological fractures
4. Meningeal myelomatosis

A

4. Meningeal myelomatosis

  • Back pain is a common complaint of patients with multiple myeloma due to the development of new lesions or pathological fractures. The possibility of vertebral infections should also be considered. Both disease and treatment-related complications can lead to infections. Chemotherapy with high-dose corticosteroids may be a predisposing factor for vertebral infections. Radiological appearance is similar to vertebral osteomyelitis and discitis.
  • Spinal cord compression can be seen in 20% of multiple myeloma cases during the disease. Neurological symptoms may also occur due to meningeal involvement. Meningeal myelomatosis is a rare finding. They can present as altered mental status, lower limb weakness, cranial nerve palsies, headache, speech disorder, or features of meningismus. Diagnosis is usually made by finding myeloma cells in cerebrospinal fluid. The median survival is one month in those who had no initial response to therapy while it is five months in those who showed remission on initial treatment.
  • CT findings of meningeal myelomatosis have been reported as a peripheral markedly hyperdense mass with associated edema and mass effect. MRI shows heterogeneous to homogenous intensity on T2 of extra-axial mass and diffuse enhancement on post-contrast T1 images. Abnormal leptomeningeal enhancement along sulci and cranial nerves.
  • In conclusion, meningeal myelomatosis is a rare form of multiple myeloma and is more aggressive and resistant to treatment.
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30
Q

A 65-year-old man with a history of depression and generalized anxiety disorder presents complaining of pain in his lumbar region. He has a history of spinal stenosis, which has undergone two previous lumbar decompression surgeries without success. Three months ago, his pain was exacerbated when he was involved in a car accident for which he is currently involved in litigation against the other driver. He reports numbness in his pubic region and says that he has had difficulty starting urination over the past day. Which of the following is the next best step in managing this case?
1. Referral for spinal cord stimulator implant
2. Emergent surgery
3. MRI
4. Prescribe ibuprofen

A

3. MRI

  • Although this patient presents with risk factors for failed back surgery syndrome (FBSS), psychiatric comorbidity, history of failed back pain surgery, litigation, “red flag” symptoms must still be evaluated in the patient presenting with lower back pain.
  • This patient’s saddle anesthesia and urinary incontinence are concerning for cauda equina syndrome and should be urgently diagnosed with an MRI and likely managed with surgery.
  • Red flags should always be ruled out before addressing chronic symptoms from FBSS.
  • Clinical presentations such as saddle anesthesia and urinary continence require emergent surgery. Failure to recognize this presentation can result in irreversible nerve damage.
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31
Q

A 48-year-old female patient in the intensive care unit recovering from brain surgery presents with multiple small lesions on her legs. She has multiple 1 mm non-blanching lesions throughout her legs, with the majority concentrated on her shins. The patient has a past medical history significant for hypertension, diabetes insipidus, and glioblastoma. She has not regained consciousness since her surgery two days ago. Her family states that the patient has had these lesions before, but they are not sure of what precipitated them in the past. The patient is currently receiving lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, and desmopressin. She is also receiving nitrofurantoin for a urinary tract infection she developed in the hospital. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?
1. Desmopressin
2. Hydrochlorothiazide
3. Nitrofurantoin
4. Lisinopril

A

1. Desmopressin

  • Desmopressin is used in patients suffering from diabetes insipidus.
  • A rare side effect of desmopressin is the occurrence of thrombocytopenic purpura.
  • Patients with a history of thrombocytopenic purpura in the past are more at risk for developing purpuras when on desmopressin.
  • Desmopressin acts as an ADH analog in patients suffering from diabetes insipidus to help retain water in these patients.
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32
Q

A young girl presents to the hospital with a history of weakness of both upper and lower limbs following a trivial fall injury. An MRI of her head shows a high riding odontoid tip well above the foramen magnum and compressing upon the brain stem. Which of the following best describes the commonly accepted pathophysiology of the condition in the child?
1. Genetic abnormality
2. C1-C2 facetal joint instability
3. Embryological dysgenesis
4. Viral infection

A

2. C1-C2 facetal joint instability

  • The above case scenario is classical for basilar invagination.
  • Currently, the most logical pathological genesis of the condition is the C1-C2 facetal joint instability thereby allowing for the odontoid peg to migrate upwards into the foramen magnum.
  • Studies have confirmed that C1-C2 Facetal distraction with the use of spacer and C1-C2 fusion alone reverses the pathological changes seen in the basilar invagination.
  • Though previously many etiological factors were considered for the condition, facetal instability is currently the most favored one.
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33
Q

A 33-year-old male construction worker presents with three months of chronic diffuse low back pain, which is worse at the end of the day. Upright plain film x-rays and flexion and extension x-rays of the lumbar region are unremarkable. An MRI of the lumbar spine shows a T2 hyperintensity of the lumbar 3-4 disc space eccentric to the right in the posterolateral region. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
1. Right lumbar 3-4 laminotomy and foraminotomy
2. Right lumbar 3-4 transforaminal corticosteroid injection
3. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication
4. Continue to watch expectantly

A

3. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication

  • First line treatment for an annular disc tear is nonsteroidal anti- inflammatory medications and low-impact physical therapy.
  • Annular disc tears can be symptomatic or asymptomatic.
  • Chronically an annular disc tear can lead to granulation tissue accumulation which can cause nerve irritation and radiculopathy.
  • A transforaminal corticosteroid injection can be considered for annular disc tear if the patient fails an adequate trial of more conservative treatment.
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34
Q

A 17-year-old female presents with a fever and a headache. She has no significant past medical history. Her temperature is measured to be 39 C (102.2 F) while her blood pressure is 102/74 mmHg. Physical examination shows petechiae on her legs. Neck stiffness is present as well. Lumbar puncture is performed after which appropriate antibiotics and fluids are started. The next day, she develops severe back pain, perineal anesthesia, and is unable to urinate. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) confirms spinal cord compression. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the spinal compression in this patient?
1. Spinal abscess
2. Epidural hematoma
3. Disc herniation
4. Tumor

A

2. Epidural hematoma

  • Cauda equina syndrome is a known complication of lumbar puncture procedures involving direct trauma or an epidural hematoma although the most common cause overall is disk herniation.
  • Medicolegal litigation is high in these syndromes due to missed diagnoses and the high degree of residual functional impairment.
  • Surgical decompression within 48 hours is paramount in acute cauda equina and conus medullaris syndromes.
  • Saddle anesthesia is one of the most common presenting symptoms.
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34
Q

A 65-year-old male with a history of stage 4 prostate cancer with multiple bony metastases presents to the emergency department after a bicycle accident complaining only of neck pain and multiple excoriations to his body. He was placed is in a rigid cervical collar upon presentation. He reports he fell over the front of his bicycle when he hit a pothole. He remembers landing on his hands and chin. He is neurologically intact. A CT is performed, and a bilateral C2 pars interarticularis fracture with disruption of the C2 to C3 disc with greater than 4 mm subluxation of C2 on C3 is noted. Which additional structure is most at risk of being injured?
1. V2 segment of the vertebral artery
2. Superior cervical ganglion
3. V3 segment of the vertebral artery
4. Cervical segment of the internal carotid artery

A

1. V2 segment of the vertebral artery

  • Segments of the vertebral artery include V1 - origin to C6 transverse foramen, V2 - C6-C2 transverse foramen, V3 - C2 transverse foramen to dura, V4 - intradural vertebral artery ending at basilar artery.
  • The V2 segment of the vertebral artery is the structure most at risk in a Hangman fracture due to its close relationship of the C2 transverse foramen and the pars interarticularis.
  • Often a fracture may extend to the transverse foramen, and thus a CT angiogram of the neck must be obtained for the evaluation of the vertebral artery.
  • The superior cervical ganglion is located nearby but unlikely to be injured in a Hangman fracture. While not impossible for the V3 segment to be injured, it is more likely for the V2 segment to be injured at the level of the transverse foramen of C2. The cervical internal carotid artery is unlikely to be injured from in the setting of a Hangman’s fractures.
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35
Q

A mother brings her 10-year-old son to the emergency room for evaluation. He has a history of spina bifida requiring repair at birth and subsequent shunt placement. The child complains of increased pain in the legs, disturbed gait, and increased scoliosis. Which of the following clinic feature can also be associated with the neurological complication this child is experiencing?
1. Worsening bowel and bladder function
2. Hypotonia
3. Facial weakness
4. Neck rigidity

A

1. Worsening bowel and bladder function

  • The child in this vignette is experiencing a well-known complication of spina bifida, a tethered cord.
  • These patients present with pain in back and legs, increased spasticity, worsening of gait, increased scoliosis, and problems with bowel and bladder function.
  • Providers should have a high index of suspicion for this complication in patients with a history of spina bifida.
  • Facial weakness is not a complication of spina bifida. Neck rigidity may be seen with meningitis.
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36
Q

A 31-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle collision. She has no acute complaints other than soreness and bruising. Her vital signs are stable. On exam, she has many superficial cuts and abrasions. Exam findings also include difficulty swallowing food, decreased right sided gag reflex, and no taste sensation on the right posterior 1/3rd of the tongue. An MRI reveals a lesion on the brainstem. Which of the following portions of the brainstem is most likely affected?
1. The superior half of the pons
2. The inferior half of the pons
3. The superior half of the medulla oblongata
4. The midbrain

A

3. The superior half of the medulla oblongata

  • The glossopharyngeal nerve CN IX is responsible for the afferent portion of the gag reflex, taste on the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, and innervation of the stylopharyngeus muscle.
  • The nucleus ambiguus is located in the superior medulla oblongata and gives rise to the sensory nerves of CN IX and is a synapse point for the motor fibers of CN IX as they descend from the cortex.
  • The medulla oblongata is the lowest portion of the brainstem and has 4 cranial nerves that arise from it, CN IX-XII.
  • Only one of the cranial nerve motor nuclei in the medulla oblongata is located medially, the hypoglossal nerve, cranial nerve XII.
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37
Q

A patient presents to the office with a three-month history of severe low back pain secondary to an osteoporotic compression fracture. The patient has been unresponsive to all conservative management. He underwent kyphoplasty but failed to have adequate pain relief longer than one month post-procedure. What is the best next step in the management of this patient?
1. Bracing
2. Facet joint injections
3. Vertebral fusion
4. Disc dissection

A

3. Vertebral fusion

  • Spinal fusion surgery can loosely be described as the fusing two or more of a patient’s vertebral bodies together. Studies have shown patients undergoing surgery have decreased levels of pain in both short and intermediate follow-up after surgery. However, there are limited disability outcomes for patients undergoing vertebral fusion.
  • There has been a recommendation for patients with low back pain greater than one year in duration and nonradicular in nature, to undergo spinal fusion as a reasonable treatment option, despite having inadequate evidence effectiveness in the long term.
  • Bracing would be a potential option for the acute or subacute phase of treatment for pain control in an osteoporotic compression fracture. However, this can lead to atrophy of the core musculature with prolonged use. It also shows limited efficacy with long term use compared to a spinal fusion surgery, which has been shown to have some efficacy in the short term and intermediate follow up.
  • Steroid injections into the facet joint have been shown to have limited evidence for the use. They have not been shown to be effective to treat low back pain secondary to osteoporotic compression fractures. Disc dissection surgery has not been shown to be a reasonable treatment option for osteoporotic compression fractures. There is limited evidence to be beneficial patient’s chronic low back pain.
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38
Q

An 8-year old child is brought to the emergency department after being struck by a car while crossing the street. He is not alert. He required immediate intubation at the scene by emergency management services. His Glasgow coma scale is 8. He appears to have a significant laceration of his scalp on the left side, but there are no skeletal fractures. The initial chest x-ray reveals a right-side pneumothorax. A chest tube was inserted. His hematocrit is 30%, and his hemoglobin is 10.6 g/dL. Heart rate is 100 bpm, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, and respirations 20/minute. What is the next step in management?
1. CT of the head, thorax, and abdomen
2. Repeat chest x-ray
3. Repeat blood work
4. MRI of the head and neck

A

1. CT of the head, thorax, and abdomen

  • The patient has two signs of Waddell triad and has a low hematocrit. The abdomen, especially the retroperitoneum, can be a source of significant bleeding.
  • The Waddel triad includes trauma to the head, abdomen, thorax, and lower extremities with a car versus pedestrian impact. The full workup includes a whole-body CT scan, which can rapidly identify injuries to the brain (intracranial hemorrhage), chest, abdomen, and presence of any fractures. This is usually done as part of the tertiary trauma survey, which follows the secondary survey (a focused history and physical exam).
  • If the patient has low hematocrit and there is no fracture, and the chest is clear, think about possible bleeding in the abdomen.
  • The size of the child and the type of car can help determine injury patterns. Injury patterns will vary depending on the country and what side of the road a driver is on when a pedestrian is impacted by the vehicle. Children ages 1 to 5 years may be knocked down and dragged under the vehicle. The front bumper causes injuries to the femur, chest, abdomen, and pelvis. Children ages 3 to 11 years are prone to bumper impacts that fracture femurs and chest injuries from fenders or the hood. A child may be thrown onto the hood and hit the windshield, causing head and facial trauma. Another insult to the head occurs when the car stops abruptly, and they are thrown off the hood and onto the road striking their head again. Suspect multiple injuries with a car versus pedestrian impact. When taking a history, determine speed, the point of impact, and any safety gear worn at the time.
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39
Q

A 70-year-old male patient with a history of dementia presents to the spine clinic following repeated fall incidents at home. X-ray spine showed features of type III odontoid fracture. A full history cannot be obtained, and a physical exam is unreliable. What is the best imaging modality to accurately predict the acuteness of the fracture observed in the patient?
1. MRI spine
2. CT spine
3. Dynamic X-ray spine
4. USG spine

A

1. MRI spine

  • MRI is the preferred imaging modality to determine the fracture acuity in terms of bone marrow edema.
  • MRI will show T2 signal hyperintensities, mostly seen on STIR imaging, in cases of an acute fracture.
  • MRI also provides the anatomic status of the spine as well as the integrity of the soft tissues, thereby enabling rational therapeutic decision-making.
  • Elevation of the trabecular attenuation was the only CT spine variable showing high specificity in predicting acute fracture while comparing to MRI spine.
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40
Q

A 70-year-old female with a history of osteoporosis, osteoarthritis, and type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with a one- day history of sudden, worsening low back pain, and progressive lower extremity weakness. The pain is described as burning and stinging in nature, radiating down her posterior thighs bilaterally. She also reports a history of osteoporotic compression fractures in her back. She denies any recent trauma or illness, but does report numbness or tingling between her leg and being unable to control her bladder as of this morning. She has also had trouble walking over the last six hours. On physical exam, there is no point tenderness over her lower lumbar spine, hip flexion, knee flexion, knee extension are 5/5 bilaterally, while plantar flexion and dorsiflexion muscle strength are 2/5 bilaterally. Lower extremity sensation is diminished in an S1 distribution. Deep tendon reflexes for L4 are 2/4 bilaterally, while S1 deep tendon reflexes are 1/4 bilaterally. Straight leg raise elicits pain on the left. FABER test is negative bilaterally. Hypertonicity of the paraspinal muscles is not appreciated on exam. She is concerned about her back pain, and it has never been this bad before. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
1. Direct admission to the hospital, urgent spinal surgery consultation
2. Recommend lumbar X-ray, and close outpatient follow up
3. Recommend the patient go to the emergency department for urgent imaging
4. Recommend conservative management, NSAID trial

A

1. Direct admission to the hospital, urgent spinal surgery consultation

  • This case describes cauda equina syndrome. It is a surgical emergency. It is a severe form of lumbar radiculopathy. The patient’s history and physical is consistent with compression of the cauda equina, likely secondary to a bilateral fracture of the pars interarticularis causing significant slippage and compression of the nerve roots, including S1.
  • For cauda equina syndrome, operative decompression is recommended within twelve hours after the onset of symptoms.
  • The best results for prevention of neurological sequelae would be surgical intervention within six hours after the onset of symptoms. An urgent spinal surgery consultation is warranted.
  • Moderate to severe radicular symptoms without concern for cauda equina syndrome does warrant an urgent MRI. However, given the time-sensitive nature of the treatment of possible cauda equina syndrome, immediate consultation of spinal surgery would be the first choice in management. The management of an osteoporotic fracture without neurological symptoms with close follow up would be an acceptable treatment option. Conservative management and a trial of NSAID’s would be appropriate for a patient with mild radicular back pain and without neurological symptoms.
41
Q

A 36-year-old female who works as a gym instructor presents to clinic with complaints of having burned her fingers on multiple occasions on touching hot things due to an inability to feel the heat. She also gives a history of an occipital headache and neck pain which increases with Valsalva maneuver. On examination, there are burn scars on the fingertips and loss of pain and temperature sensation on fingers of both hands. On asking the patient to look down-and-out, there is an upward drift of gaze followed by corrective downward saccade. Family history is negative. They is no history of loss of weight, vomiting, or visual blurring. The patient does not drink alcohol or use drugs. Magnetic Resonance imaging of brain and spine confirmed the diagnosis. Which of the following features would also be most likely present in this patient?
1. Exophthalmos
2. Loss of abduction-adduction of fingers
3. Triad of incontinence, gait instability, and dementia
4. Resting tremor

A

2. Loss of abduction-adduction of fingers

  • The clinical vignette describes a case of syringomyelia with type 1 Chiari malformation. The clinical vignette describes a case of syringomyelia with type 1 Chiari malformation. Segmental dissociated sensory loss of pain & thermal sensation with spared tactile, joint position & vibratory sense, leads to frequent finger “burns” as described the question.
  • Increase in thoracoabdominal pressure (Valsalva maneuver, coughing, straining) causes engorgement of spinal epidural veins leading to “sloshing” of syrinx fluid and expansion of syrinx cavity. This is due to Williams theory of craniospinal pressure dissociation. This is seen clinically as a headache and neck-pain that exacerbates with Valsalva maneuver.
  • Cerebellar and brain-stem compression also manifests as “down-beat nystagmus” which can be elicited by asking the patient to look down-and-out. A pathological upward drift of gaze followed by corrective downward saccade is seen. Downbeat nystagmus is most commonly due to structural pathology at cervicomedullary junction. Antiepileptic drugs can also cause this. However, the patient has no history of any drug consumption.
  • Involvement of anterior horn cells leading to paralysis of intrinsic muscles of hands and claw hand deformity is a classic of syringomyelia. Claw hand is due to paralysis and atrophy of interossei muscles responsible for abduction-adduction of fingers. Palmar interossei are responsible for ADduction of fingers (PAD); Dorsal interossei is responsible for ABduction of fingers (DAB). Atrophy of these muscles leads to prominent hollowing between thumb and forefinger.
42
Q

A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with the complaint of increasingly blurry vision over the past several weeks. Besides, she notes a persistent headache that is worst in the morning and occasionally awakens her from sleep. On physical exam, extraocular movements are impaired. The patient is unable to intort and extort her eye. It is also noted that there is a diminished pupillary light reflex. MRI reveals an intracranial mass. Which of the following locations is most likely affected?
1. Trochlear nucleus
2. Trochlear nerve
3. Cavernous sinus
4. Below the inferior colliculus

A

3. Cavernous sinus

  • This patient’s history and physical exam findings are suggestive of trochlear and oculomotor nerve involvement.
  • The only answer choice that supports involvement of multiple cranial nerves is cavernous sinus. This patient most likely has cavernous sinus syndrome due to mass effect from a pituitary tumor.
  • The cavernous sinus is home to CN III, IV, V1, V2, and VI. In a patient presenting with a constellation of cranial nerve dysfunctions, involvement of the cavernous sinus should be considered.
  • Lesions at the trochlear nucleus, decussation of the trochlear nerves, or below the inferior colliculus will most likely result in isolated trochlear nerve palsy.
43
Q

A 17-year-old male athlete presents to the clinic with complaints of low back pain. The pain started one month ago when he was training for a high school competition. After an extensive evaluation, he is diagnosed with a pars interarticularis injury. Which of the following is this patient’s most important prognostic factor of bone healing?
1. The patient’s age and sex
2. The level of the injury
3. The stage of the injury
4. The patient’s race

A

3. The stage of the injury

  • Morita et al. and Katoh et al. attempted to assess the relationship between bony healing and the radiographic stage of the pars lesion. They classified the pars lesions into early, progressive, and terminal stages based on either plain radiographs or CT. They found much higher healing rates in early-stage lesions with very little or no healing in terminal-stage defects.
  • The early stage was defined as a hairline defect of focal bony absorption. The progressive stage was defined as a wide defect with the presence of small fragments. The terminal change was defined as sclerotic change.
  • Healing was noted in 73% of the early stage, 38.5% of the progressive stage, and none of the terminal defects.
  • A higher prevalence of spondylolisthesis was found in white adolescent gymnasts at the L5 level. But neither of these characters is relevant in predicting bony healing capacity.
44
Q

A male who was involved in a serious head injury is about to be discharged for long term rehabilitation. His family wants to know his prognosis. which of the following is most predictive of his cognitive recovery in the future?
1. The need for neurosurgery during admission
2. The 24 hour Glasgow coma scale score
3. Development and duration of fever during admission
4. Pupillary function before and after resuscitation

A

2. The 24 hour Glasgow coma scale score

  • The prognosis of patients with closed head trauma is dependent on many factors including 1) severity of injury 2) type of injury 3) age of the patient and 4) comorbidity.
  • The Glasgow coma score (GCS) score at 24 hours is the strongest predictor of cognitive recovery at 24 months after injury, especially in patients with severe head injury,
  • Other factors that can predict prognosis include the use of antithrombotics, the need for surgery during admission, and neurological status on admission.
  • Pupillary function before and after the injury can also predict prognosis. Those who do not regain pupillary function usually remain in a vegetative state. Duration of fever is also noted to be associated with a negative prognosis.
45
Q

A 55-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a progressively worsening headache. Her headache has lasted approximately 2 weeks. She also reports a recent onset of fever and chills and vomited twice this morning. The patient also states that she has had some weakness, but cannot identify when this started. She denies any vision changes, seizures, loss of consciousness, or loss of sensation. On physical exam, the patient’s right side appears weak, but she displays no other neurologic deficits. A CT is ordered and reveals that the patient has a cerebral abscess on the left side of her brain. In which of the following situations would be an appropriate time to use hyperbaric oxygen therapy in this patient?
1. If the patient’s blood cultures are positive for an infectious organism
2. If the patient is actively displaying neurologic deficits
3. Patient’s has a surgical history of transplant and is receiving immunosuppressive therapy
4. Patient’s WBC is 15,000

A

3. Patient’s has a surgical history of transplant and is receiving immunosuppressive therapy

  • Surgery and antibiotics are the mainstays of treatment for intracranial abscesses. However, according to the Undersea and Hyperbaric Medical Society, adjunct hyperbaric therapy can be used in poor surgical candidates, patients where surgery is contraindicated, and in patients who deteriorate despite antibiotic and surgical therapy.
  • Past medical history can play a role in the decision to use adjunct hyperbaric therapy for the treatment of intracranial abscesses. According to the Undersea & Hyperbaric Medical Society, hyperbaric therapy should be considered in immunocompromised patients.
  • Imaging can play a role in deciding if hyperbaric oxygen therapy should be used to treat an intracranial abscess. According to the Undersea and Hyperbaric Medical Society, adjunct hyperbaric therapy can be used in patients with multiple abscesses or if the abscesses are located in a deep or dominant location.
  • Lab values, microbiology results, and neurologic function should not be used in a clinician’s decision to use hyperbaric oxygen therapy for the treatment of intracranial abscesses.
46
Q

A 27-year-old attorney with a history of epilepsy is being evaluated for surgical intervention. She has been experiencing focal seizures with impaired awareness for the past seven years. The patient has been managed pharmacologically with both carbamazepine and lamotrigine for the past year; although the patient received ictal control during the first 4 months of dual anti- epileptic drug therapy, ictal episodes have been recurring every week. The patient describes an “intense feeling of fear” and “a rising sensation in her abdomen,” followed by a loss of consciousness during these events. A previously conducted 24-hour video- electroencephalography revealed an ictal episode with oral automatisms and dystonic posturing with an interictal waveform suggestive of temporal lobe epilepsy. In addition, the patient reports concern over subjective lapses in short-term memory and difficulty with word recall, which has had a negative impact on the patient’s profession, and overall quality of living. The patient’s health care provider administers a Montreal cognitive assessment (MoCA) revealing a score of 21 indicating mild cognitive impairment, with deficits in delayed recall, attention, and language predominantly. She is scheduled to undergo neuroimaging via T2 FLAIR magnetic resonance imaging. Which of the following findings are the most likely to be seen?
1. Reduced hippocampal volume with increased T2 signaling
2. Diffuse hyperintensity of temporal lobe with hemorrhagic components
3. Bilateral cortical and subcortical tubers with subependymal hamartomas
4. Global cortical atrophy

A

1. Reduced hippocampal volume with increased T2 signaling

  • Reduced hippocampal volume and increased T2 signaling are often seen in mesial temporal lobe epilepsy (m-TLE), the most common form of refractory epilepsy. Mesial TLE with hippocampal sclerosis (mTLE-HS) is a subtype of mTLE, affecting the hippocampus primarily and neighboring limbic (or mesial) structures. It is the most common source of focal epilepsy and possesses distinctive EEG and neuro-imaging characteristics. About 48-56 percent of cases of mTLE-HS are bilateral, and volumetric analysis by experienced interpreters may be necessary for diagnosis.
  • Hippocampal sclerosis is often refractory to the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs).
  • Amydalohippocampectomy and anterior temporal lobectomy are the two most common surgical procedures performed for m- TLE.
  • Although mesial temporal lobe epilepsy with hippocampal sclerosis is often refractory to multiple AEDs, it has a higher relative risk reduction with temporal lobe surgery.
47
Q

A 68-year-old male with a history of prostate cancer presented with new-onset back pain. X-ray of the spine showed a mass in the bilateral T12 pedicles and vertebral body. He has a normal neurological examination. What is the appropriate next step in the management of this patient condition?
1. Pain medication and send home with follow up the primary care provider
2. Metastatic workup and spine surgery consultation
3. Biopsy of the T12 vertebral body mass
4. Surgical intervention to stabilize the spine

A

2. Metastatic workup and spine surgery consultation

  • In patients with a history of cancer and acute back pain, metastasis should be considered as one of differential diagnosis.
  • Metastasis spine tumors are the most common cancer in the spine.
  • X-ray findings for concern for metastasis should be further investigated using CT, PET scan, or MRI.
  • An isolated vertebral mass should be biopsied prior to definitive treatments.
48
Q

A 72-year-old male with metastatic prostate cancer was referred to the interventional pain provider by the oncologist because of intractable low back pain. His pain is 10/10 on a high dose of fentanyl patch and oral extended-release morphine. His life expectancy is less than one year. Lumbosacral subarachnoid neurolysis was planned. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement pertaining to the intervention being planned for the patient?
1. Phenol is very painful on injection
2. 3 ml of 80% alcohol should be injected at each lumbar level
3. The patient is not a candidate for neurolytic therapy since his life expectancy is less than 1 year
4. Phenol is hyperbaric relative to cerebrospinal fluid, and if using 7% phenol, the painful side should be dependent

A

4. Phenol is hyperbaric relative to cerebrospinal fluid, and if using 7% phenol, the painful side should be dependent

  • Phenol is hyperbaric in relation to cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), and this principle can be utilized by positioning patients with the painful side dependent.
  • Alcohol is hypobaric in relation to CSF; hence, to facilitate the spread of alcohol to the target area, the patient should be positioned lateral decubitus with the painful side uppermost.
  • The concentration of alcohol should be at least greater than 33%, but clinically mostly 80% alcohol is used.
  • Typically, alcohol causes a burning sensation on injection, while phenol has local anesthetic properties and often causes a warm sensation. The total volume of alcohol to be administered should not exceed about 1.0 ml.
49
Q

A 56-year-old female is in the hospital 3 days after an aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage. She has hyponatremia with serum sodium of 130 meq/L with decreased skin turgor and elevated hematocrit. Her urine sodium is elevated. Her vital signs are unremarkable and chloride is within the reference range. The patient is conscious, alert, and well oriented to time, place, and person. What is the most rational initial step in the management of the patient presenting with such clinical characteristics?
1. Fluid supplementation with isotonic saline
2. Fluid restriction
3. Nimodipine
4. Hypertonic saline

A

1. Fluid supplementation with isotonic saline

  • Cerebral salt wasting syndrome is characterized by hyponatremia with elevated urine sodium in a hypovolemic state, as evidenced by decreased skin turgor, hypotension, decreased central venous pressure, and elevated hematocrit.
  • Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by hyponatremia with elevated urine sodium in a hypervolemic to euvolemic state.
  • Cerebral salt wasting syndrome can be differentiated from SIADH by fluid status. In cerebral salt wasting, the patient is hypovolemic. In SIADH, the patient is hypervolemic to euvolemic.
  • Cerebral salt wasting syndrome is treated with fluid resuscitation. SIADH is treated with fluid restriction.
50
Q

A 55-year-old man presented to the emergency department with a chief complaint of headache, nausea, vomiting, and feeling like the world is spinning around him. Further assessment, shows left facial paresis, decreased sensation on the left side and an ataxic gait. An MRI of the brain shows an aneurysm located in the cerebellopontine angle. From which artery did this aneurysm originate?
1. Posterior cerebellar artery (PCA)
2. Posterior inferior cerebella artery (PICA)
3. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA)
4. Anterior spinal artery (ASA)

A

3. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA)

  • The posterior cerebral artery (PCA) is the last branch of the basilar artery, and it becomes part of the circle of Willis. Any infarction or aneurysms affecting the PCA will affect the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex leading to contralateral hemianopia with macular sparing.
  • The posterior inferior cerebellar arteries (PICA) which supply the rostral lateral medulla, is one of the major branches of the vertebral arteries. Infarction or an aneurysm involving the PICA will lead to a lateral medullary syndrome. While these patients may present with vomiting and vertigo due to the involvement of the vestibular nuclei, they may also have dysphagia, hoarseness, and decrease gag reflex due to the involvement of the nucleus ambiguus.
  • This patient presentation is consistent with an aneurysm in the cerebellopontine angle and the compression adjacent nerve nucleus. As reported in the literature, aneurysms of the posterior fossa account for 8% to 12% of all a cerebral aneurysm, with aneurysms of anterior inferior cerebellar artery accounting for about 1% to 2% of all aneurysms. The most common site of an aneurysm formation is the basilar (BA)-anterior inferior cerebellar artery junction, with rare cases reported to originate from the distal anterior inferior cerebellar artery. Majority of mass effects seen clinically in the cerebellopontine angles are due to acoustic schwannoma. Patients with an anterior inferior cerebellar artery aneurysm located peripherally may have a cerebellopontine angle mass effect. These patients may present with a sudden hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo due to the involvement of the labyrinthine artery or vestibular nerve, facial paresis due to the involvement of the facial nerve, gait ataxia, dysmetria due to the involvement of the middle cerebellar peduncle. The spinal trigeminal nucleus and spinothalamic tract may also be affected leading to decrease pain and temperature from the contralateral body and ipsilateral face. A complication of this condition may be subarachnoid hemorrhage, acute severe headache, nausea, vomiting, or sudden coma.
  • Lesions involving the anterior spinal artery will lead to medial medullary syndrome, with mostly the lateral corticospinal tract, the hypoglossal nerve, and the medial lemniscus affected.
51
Q

A 52-year-old female presents with low back and right-sided radicular leg pain that has been present for three weeks. She undergoes a trial of anti-inflammatory medication and physical therapy, but her pain worsens to limit her ability to work significantly. Four months later, she begins to describe occasional numbness in the first web space of the right foot. An MRI confirms the diagnosis, and she opts to undergo a lumbar discectomy. One year later, she develops similar symptoms. If considering revision discectomy, what is the most appropriate counseling to provide to the patient?
1. Revision surgery should be expected to have a higher likelihood of improving leg pain, though a lower likelihood of improving postoperative functional status as compared to primary surgery
2. Revision surgery should be expected to have a lower likelihood of improving back pain and postoperative functional status as compared to primary surgery
3. Revision surgery should be expected to have a higher likelihood of improving back pain and postoperative functional status as compared to primary surgery
4. Revision surgery should be expected to have an equal likelihood of improving radicular pain and postoperative functional status as compared to primary surgery

A

4. Revision surgery should be expected to have an equal likelihood of improving radicular pain and postoperative functional status as compared to primary surgery

  • Severe radicular leg pain is, in many cases, what causes functional impairment in patients with lumbar disc herniation. Thus, a higher likelihood of improvement in radicular symptoms, though the lower likelihood of improved functional status, makes this a poor choice. Furthermore, recent studies have demonstrated that primary and revision discectomy have similar outcomes improvement of radicular leg pain and postoperative functional status.
  • Revision discectomy has equal outcomes to primary surgery with regards to postoperative functional status.
  • In general, discectomy has a lower likelihood of improving back pain than radicular pain. Revision surgery outcomes have not been proven to be superior to primary surgery with regards to functional status.
  • High-quality data demonstrate that primary and revision surgery have similar outcomes with respect to improvement in radicular leg pain and postoperative functional status.
52
Q

A 55-year-old man is being managed with external ventricular drain placement for obstructive hydrocephalus. The patient later develops ventriculitis and is treated with a prolonged period of intraventricular instillation of antibiotics. Now the patient is being planned for cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) diversion procedure. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of the procedure in this patient?
1. Ventriculopleural shunt
2. Ventriculoatrial shunt
3. Endoscopic third ventriculostomy
4. Antibiotic impregnated shunt

A

3. Endoscopic third ventriculostomy

  • The patient with ventriculitis will have a high risk of shunt failure following shunt infection. Endoscopic third ventriculostomy is advantageous to the fact that there is no need for shunt placement.
  • Endoscopic third ventriculostomy creates a new channel between the floor of the third ventricle and the pre-pontine cisterns, thereby ideal for the management of obstructive hydrocephalus.
  • The patency of the endoscopic third ventriculostomy depends upon the size of the stoma and the flapping pattern of the stomal margins.
  • The antibiotic-impregnated shunt has minimal risk of shunt infection compared to other normal shunts. The colonization of the shunt by the slime formed by the bacteria is higher in patients previously treated for ventriculitis.
53
Q

A 58-year-old man presents with a five-month history of progressive lower extremity weakness and urinary incontinence. His condition acutely worsened yesterday after running 3 miles on a treadmill. MRI shows multiple dilated vascular flow voids along the surface of the spinal cord along with increased signal intensity on T2 weighted imaging. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s presentation?
1. Cervical hemangioblastoma
2. Cauda equina syndrome
3. Spinal dural arteriovenous fistula
4. Degenerative disc disease

A

3. Spinal dural arteriovenous fistula

  • Spinal dural arteriovenous fistulas are the most common vascular malformation of the spinal cord and are thought to be an acquired disease. They predominantly affect middle-aged males, are unrelated to trauma, and usually present as progressive myelopathy worsened by prolonged standing, exercise, singing, or position changes.
  • They are not located within the cord parenchyma, rather they tend to form on the dorsal surface of the spinal cord between branches of a radicular artery and a radicular vein. They do not frequently cause hemorrhage.
  • With the feeding artery directly draining into the radicular vein, the vein becomes arterialized and tortuous with increased venous pressure and hyalinized thickened walls. This pressure backs up into the perimedullary venous plexus on the surface of the cord and ultimately within the intramedullary radial veins. Venous hypertension results over time, causing decreased perfusion of the cord parenchyma, cord edema, decreased arterial perfusion, ischemia, and hypoxia. Over time, this manifests as progressive myelopathy.
  • MRI is diagnostic and usually shows hyperintensity with peripheral sparing (representing cord edema), serpentine and dilated intervertebral veins, along with flow voids within engorged perimedullary venous plexus. Flow voids are seen with T2 weighted images and refer to the loss of MRI signal in flowing fluids such as blood, CSF, and urine. It is related to the velocity of moving protons within the flowing fluid.
54
Q

An 8-year-old child with Down syndrome presents to the emergency department with decreased neck movements three days following an adenoidectomy and tonsillectomy. On examination, he is not in distress. He is afebrile and able to speak normally. His oral intake has been limited to small amounts of clear liquids. He is uncooperative, and so Kernig and Brudzinski signs cannot be assessed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Eagle syndrome
2. Atlanto-axial subluxation
3. Velopharyngeal insufficiency
4. Meningitis

A

2. Atlanto-axial subluxation

  • Atlanto-axial subluxation (Grisel syndrome) is a rare but extremely important complication of adenoidectomy that carries significant morbidity if not promptly recognized and treated.
  • Although its pathogenesis is not fully understood, one widely accepted hypothesis is that the spread of infection from the posterior pharynx through the periodontoid venous plexus produces pathological laxity of the supporting atlantoaxial ligaments. This ultimately leads to atlantoaxial joint instability and subluxation.
  • Risk factors include pre-existing atlantoaxial instability, more commonly seen in individuals with Down syndrome, and excessive use of monopolar suction diathermy.
  • Severity is graded using the Fielding classification with stepwise management ranging from bedrest and analgesia to immobilization and neurosurgical intervention. A neurosurgical opinion must always be sought.
55
Q

A 65-year-old male patient undergoes craniotomy and clipping of an anterior communicating artery aneurysm. He was fully conscious and oriented on postoperative day 1. But the next day onwards, he starts refusing food, prefers to sleep throughout the day, and is not responding nicely to questions asked. A magnetic resonance imaging scan of the brain is ordered. An infarct in which of the following regions is the most likely cause of his behavioral problem?
1. Anterior cingulate cortex
2. Medial premotor area
3. Supplementary motor area
4. Bilateral frontal lobes

A

1. Anterior cingulate cortex

  • Anterior cingulate cortex infarction produced by injury or vasospasm of the anterior cerebral artery is the most common cause of abulia minor.
  • Unilateral anterior cerebral artery lesions produce transient abulia often associated with contralateral motor neglect (because of damage to the medial premotor area).
  • Bilateral lesions in the medial frontal lobes, basal ganglia, supplementary motor areas, caudate nuclei, and cingulate gyri lead to persistent abulia.
  • Bilateral lesions at or rostral to the meso-diencephalic junction or bilateral damage to the frontal lobes can lead to abulia major.
56
Q

A 43-year-old female presents to the clinic with chronic headaches worsening over the past three months. Imaging identifies a colloid cyst in the third ventricle. Which of the following findings best indicates a transcortical open craniotomy for treatment of the colloid cyst compared to other possible treatment modalities?
1. 4 mm colloid cyst with small lateral ventricles
2. 4 mm colloid cyst with large lateral ventricles
3. 24 mm colloid cyst with small lateral ventricles
4. 24 mm colloid cyst with large lateral ventricles

A

4. 24 mm colloid cyst with large lateral ventricles

  • A patient with hydrocephalus from a colloid cyst should receive treatment.
  • Small colloid cysts which are asymptomatic may be watched with serial imaging in certain circumstances.
  • Larger colloid cysts are more difficult to remove via an endoscopic approach and can lean the surgeon to chose an open approach.
  • A patient with ventriculomegaly provides a larger working corridor (the enlarged ventricles) and thus can make transcortical or endoscopic approaches easier for removel of the colloid cyst.
57
Q

A 31-year-old male with previously diagnosed beta- thalassemia with a history of multiple blood transfusions presents to the emergency department with ten days of urinary and bowel incontinence. Vitals signs are within normal limits. The neurological exam is normal except for hypoesthesia in the S1-S5 dermatomes bilaterally. Laboratory studies are only remarkable for hemoglobin of 7 g/dL and a platelet count of 90,000/microL. MRI of the lumbar spine was obtained which showed multiple enhancing lesions in the epidural space between L5-S1 with compression of the cauda equina. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s clinical picture?
1. Herniating disc
2. Epidural abscess
3. Tumor
4. Extramedullary hematopoiesis

A

4. Extramedullary hematopoiesis

  • Extramedullary hematopoiesis occurs in patients with thalassemia and chronic hemolytic anemias as a compensatory mechanism. It typically occurs in sites such as the spleen, liver and adrenal glands. It has been reported to occur in the spinal canal, causing compression of the spinal cord and its associated structures.
  • A high index of suspicion must be kept for cauda equina and conus medullaris syndromes (CES/CMS) in patients presenting with urinary or bowel retention or incontinence, as these can be the only presenting complaints.
  • Laminectomy with evacuation of the hematopoietic tissue would be the appropriate treatment to decompress the cauda equina in this case.
  • Fungal abscesses have also been reported as rare causes of CES/CMS.
58
Q

A 91-year-old female becomes acutely unresponsive in her assisted living care facility. She is taken to the hospital for a stroke workup and found to have a right frontal intraparenchymal hemorrhage with intraventricular extension. The estimated blood volume of the hemorrhage is 65 mL. She takes warfarin for non-valvular atrial fibrillation and has an INR of 2.1. She has hypertension, diabetes mellitus, asthma, gastroesophageal reflux disease, and stress incontinence. On initial exam, her eyes do not open to painful stimuli, she moans and withdrawals to noxious stimuli in the right arm and has extensor posturing in the left arm with an extension of bilateral legs. What is her 30-day mortality based on the intracerebral hemorrhage score?
1. 26%
2. 72%
3. 97%
4. 100%

A

3. 97%

  • The intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) score predicts 30-day mortality based on patients with non-traumatic intracerebral hemorrhage.
  • The score is based on Glasgow coma score (GCS), age, the volume of hemorrhage, intraventricular hemorrhage, and infratentorial origin of hemorrhage.
  • The point distribution is GCS 13 to 15 is 0 points, GCS 5 to 12 is 1 point, GCS 3 to 4 is 2 points; age 80 or greater is 1 point, ICH volume 30 mL or more is 1 point, intraventricular hemorrhage is 1 point, and infratentorial origin of hemorrhage is 1 point.
  • 30-day mortality is 0% for 0 points, 13% for 1 point, 26% for 2 points, 72% for 3 points, 97% for 4 points, 100% for 5 points, and assumed to be 100% for 6 points.
59
Q

A 44-year-old man has suffered from complex partial seizures for many years. He has been managed with valproic acid and levetiracetam for two years, but despite this, he still experiences about three seizures per month. A previously conducted EEG revealed multiple epileptic foci localized to the left temporal lobe, and an MRI was suggestive of unilateral left mesial temporal sclerosis. A procedure known as an amygdalohippocampectomy is discussed with the patient, in an attempt to improve seizure control. Which of the following are functions of the neuro-anatomical components surgically removed in this procedure?
1. The consolidation of memory, and the procession of emotional responses
2. Regulation of the circadian cycle
3. The relay of information from the superior part of the visual field to the occipital cortex
4. Language recognition

A

1. The consolidation of memory, and the procession of emotional responses

  • Mesial temporal lobe epilepsy is often refractory to the use of antiepileptic drugs. In these instances, a surgical evaluation may be considered. The two more common surgical procedures performed for mesial temporal lobe epilepsy are anterior temporal lobectomy (ATL) and amygdalohippocampectomy (AH). ATL involves the resection of a significant portion of the anterior temporal lobe in addition to mesial structures, whereas AH offers a more selective approach, preserving a greater volume of cortical tissue.
  • An amygdalohippocampectomy involves the resection of the amygdala and part of the hippocampus; these structures are mesial structures which are considered to be components of the limbic system. The amygdala and hippocampus are involved in emotional perception as well as the consolidation of memory.
  • There are electrophysiological and functional imaging data that support the proposal that the majority of temporal lobe seizures originate from mesial temporal lobar structures. Although ATL is successful at reducing the ictal frequency, the greater cortical volume resected in this procedure increases the likelihood of resultant neurocognitive dysfunction, whereas, in comparison, AH may provide equal rates of ictal control, with lesser neurocognitive decline.
  • There are three major approaches to amygdalohippocampectomy are transylvian, transcortical, and subtemporal. These procedures require expertise in microsurgical techniques, as well as familiarity with the complex anatomy in this region.
60
Q

A 5-year-old male with a history of chronic otitis media developed acute onset weakness. A brain MRI showed a 6- centimeter x 6-centimeter ring-enhancing lesion in the temporal lobe. The abscess is drained and is foul-smelling. While awaiting culture results, what is the best treatment?
1. IV piperacillin/tazobactam
2. IV clindamycin and gentamicin
3. Oral amoxicillin/clavulanate
4. IV metronidazole and cefepime

A

4. IV metronidazole and cefepime

  • With any infection, the appropriate antibiotic choice is based on the most likely organism implicated in the infection, bioavailability, and tissue penetration. Chronic otitis media can be caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa or anaerobes.
  • Of the choices listed, only metronidazole has adequate penetration into the cerebrospinal fluid and it covers penicillin- resistant anaerobes. Cefepime or ceftazidime is administered to treat for P. aeruginosa. Brain abscess is a serious infection and requires parenteral administration.
  • The concentration of metronidazole in the cerebrospinal fluid is similar to that in plasma.
  • Common side effects including headache, metallic taste, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Uncommon side effects include peripheral neuropathy or a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol.
61
Q

A 17-year-old female with a history of intravenous drug abuse presents with fever, back pain, and inability to ambulate. She has been experiencing back pain for the past 3 days. She reports that the weakness has been progressively worsening for the past 6 hours, and she is now unable to walk. On exam, the patient has reduced sensation on her umbilicus and 2/5 strength in her lower extremities bilaterally. Her temperature is 101 F (38.3 C), her respiratory rate is 17/ min, and her pulse is 89 bpm. An MRI is obtained, and a contrast-enhancing lesion is noted at T10-L1, which confirmed the diagnosis. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
1. Intravenous antibiotics
2. Drainage of the abscess the next day
3. Immediate incision and drainage and spinal decompression
4. Lumbar puncture

A

3. Immediate incision and drainage and spinal decompression

  • Given that the patient is experiencing symptoms of spinal cord compression, treatment with intravenous antibiotics alone is not appropriate.
  • It would not be appropriate to wait for the drainage of this abscess.
  • This patient warrants emergent surgical incision and drainage and spinal decompression.
  • Oral antibiotics are not the appropriate management for any patient with a spinal epidural abscess
62
Q

A 3-year-old male is brought in for frequent falls. His mother reports that he began to walk at the age of 15 months. She also reports that an uncle had a disorder in which he was in a wheelchair at 13 years of age and died of a “heart problem” in his twenties. Which of the following would be least likely during an evaluation of this child?
1. Increased creatine kinase levels
2. Hypertrophy of his calves
3. Decreased nerve conduction velocities on electromyography
4. Increased aspartate aminotransferase levels

A

3. Decreased nerve conduction velocities on electromyography

  • In those with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, serum creatine kinase (CK) levels are elevated before the development of clinical symptoms and signs and may be elevated in newborns. Levels peak by 2 years of age and can be more than ten to twenty times above the upper limit of normal. As age and the disease progress, serum CK levels decrease because muscle is progressively replaced by fibrosis and fat. In this 3-year-old patient, increased creatine kinase levels can be expected.
  • A muscle biopsy will demonstrate endomysial connective tissue proliferation; scattered degeneration and regeneration of myofibers; muscle fiber necrosis with mononuclear cell infiltrate; and replacement of muscle with adipose tissue and fat.
  • Calve hypertrophy can be expected in a 3-year-old with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Motor and sensory nerve conduction velocities are normal, and denervation is not present.
  • Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) are highly concentrated in muscle cells. Duchenne muscular dystrophy can lead to an elevation in ALT and AST. The elevation is most striking during the early stages of the disease.
63
Q

A patient was admitted to the intensive care unit 12 hours ago with cerebellar hemorrhage. The patient is now unresponsive with extremely elevated blood pressure, slow heart rate, and irregular respirations. It is decided that the patient has a complication from his cerebellar hemorrhage. The operating room is not currently available for decompressive surgery, so it is decided to initiate therapy to decrease the intracranial pressure. Which of the following would be the most appropriate intervention?
1. Hypertonic saline
2. Decadron
3. Hypoventilation
4. Ventriculostomy

A

1. Hypertonic saline

  • Osmolar therapy is used to reduce the space-occupying effects of hemorrhage and edema by increasing the serum osmolality and facilitating the osmotic movement of water into the vasculature with reactive vasoconstriction.
  • Either hypertonic saline or mannitol may be utilized and there is no superiority of one over the other.
  • Corticosteroids have not demonstrated any benefit in the treatment of cerebellar hemorrhage. Current evidence does not support hypothermia for cerebellar hemorrhage.
  • There is no need for prophylactic hyperventilation except in extreme cases of impending brainstem herniation as above.
64
Q

A 39-year-old woman without any history of systemic illnesses attended the otolaryngology outpatient department with a short history of new-onset left-sided pulsatile tinnitus and mild hearing loss. Upon otoscopic examination, a red mass medial to the inferior tympanic membrane on the left side was noted. The patient’s right ear otoscopic exam was normal, and no cranial nerve deficit was present. There were no other neurological or otological findings. Blood pressure is 141/86 mm Hg, and heart rate is 90 beats per minute. Which of the following is the next best step in the diagnosis and management of this patient?
1. Brain magnetic resonance venography (MRV)
2. Brain magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with and without intravenous enhanced gadolinium contrast
3. Head computed tomography (CT)
4. Brain magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)

A

2. Brain magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with and without intravenous enhanced gadolinium contrast

  • Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with intravenous contrast- enhanced gadolinium shows an enhancing lesion usually extending from the jugular bulb to the middle ear, but posterior fossa and cervical extension are common in untreated tumors. It is the gold standard study for identifying glomus jugulare tumors.
  • Vascular flow voids are described with the characteristic “salt- and-pepper” appearance on T1 and T2 weighted images. MRI images depict the tumor vascularity, extension along neural foramina and multicentricity, and should be the first imaging study when evaluating a patient with a suspected glomus jugulare.
  • Glomus jugulare grows large and may grow into the mastoid or through the wall that divides the middle ear from the mastoid, and they may then deeply infiltrate the bone. The tumor may also wrap around and infiltrate areas around the facial nerve. The tumor may become attached to the jugular vein and carotid artery. With the invasion, the tumor is more difficult to remove. If the tumor fills the middle ear space, hearing loss will occur.
  • Head computed tomographic (CT) scan with fine cuts at the temporal bone demonstrates bone destruction. Bone eroded is sometimes called moth-eaten appearance.
65
Q

A 75-year-old male with a 35 pack-year history of smoking, spondylosis, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, presents with bilateral buttock pain, bilateral paresthesias, and low ambulating endurance for the past 6 months. Pain is exacerbated when walking downhill without assitive devices. Pain is alleviated with leaning forward on his rolling walker and prolonged periods of rest. During the physical exam, the patient has strong, palpable pulses and no skin discolorations. Patient denies saddle anesthesia, acute sensory, motor, bowel, and bladder changes. On radiologic exam, the patient has hypertrophy of the ligamentum flavum. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Central canal stenosis-lumbar
2. Lateral stenosis-lumbar
3. Foraminal stenosis-lumbar
4. Cauda equina syndrome

A

1. Central canal stenosis-lumbar

  • Central Canal Stenosis is seen in patients when neurogenic claudication is seen bilaterally, and not unilaterally. Radiologic imaging shows ligamentum flavum hypertrophy, which contributes to central canal stenosis. Central canal stenosis is a narrowing of the spinal canal which causes compression of the cord, usually leading to bilateral symptoms of pain, paresthesias, and weakness which is termed neurogenic claudication. Vascular claudication is ruled out as the patient has strong, palpable pulses and no skin discolorations when walking. Also, patient states it takes some resting time for his symptoms to resolve, whereas in vascular claudication, the symptoms are immediately resolved with rest.
  • Central stenosis is usually bilateral and worsens with extension and walking downhill. This patient’s symptoms are relieved when walking with lumbar flexion posture while using his walker.
  • Foraminal and lateral stenosis are not consistent with the radiologic findings and symptoms the patient is experiencing. Hypertrophy of the ligamentum flavum and symptoms of bilateral buttock pain and paresthesias are more indicative of central canal stenosis.
  • Cauda equina syndrome is a surgical emergency. This patient does not have any acute sensory, motor, bowel, or bladder changes and also denies saddle anesthesia. Cauda equina is not the primary diagnosis in this case as radiologic imaging confirms ligamentum flavum hypertrophy, which points to the more likely diagnosis of central canal stenosis.
66
Q

A 45-year-old female with multiple sclerosis has slowly progressive spastic diplegia. She is ambulatory with a rolling walker and has a few beats of clonus in bilateral ankles. Consultation is requested to initiate a treatment plan for this patient. What should be the first recommendation?
1. Phenol block of the sciatic nerve
2. Use of static ankle splints
3. Stretching hamstrings, adductors, and gastrocnemius
4. Start baclofen 20 mg TID

A

3. Stretching hamstrings, adductors, and gastrocnemius

  • This more invasive tactic should not be the initial approach to initiating treatment for spasticity.
  • Ankle splints would not help with the ankle clonus this patient is experiencing, and would deter in minimizing her progressing spasticity.
  • Stretching hamstrings, adductors, and gastrocnemius is a more conservative approach. It would be a reasonable start to this patient’s management, as it is non-invasive, and stretching would potentially help with her spastic diplegia.
  • Though baclofen is a reasonable choice as far as pharmacological treatment for spasticity, this should not be the initial approach, and physical therapy modalities should be the first choice.
67
Q

A 53-year-old male, who had been previously diagnosed with liver cirrhosis, presents to the clinic with persistent back pain. He undergoes imaging studies and is diagnosed with thoracolumbar tuberculosis. He is planned for anti-TB therapy (ATT). Which of the following is most accurate regarding anti-TB medications in a patient with liver disease?
1. The insult to the liver caused by anti-TB treatment is self-limiting and therefore, there is no need to modify the dosage
2. The dosage of ATT in patients with liver cirrhosis is modified on the basis of underlying liver function (Child-Turcotte-Pugh score)
3. All the anti-TB drugs have a similar mechanism of liver insult
4. Patients of all ages have a similar propensity for liver damage secondary to ATT

A

2. The dosage of ATT in patients with liver cirrhosis is modified on the basis of underlying liver function (Child-Turcotte-Pugh score)

  • Guidelines have been proposed on the modifications of ATT dosage based on the Child-Turcotte-Pugh (CTP) score. Patients with stable liver function (CTP score 8) should not be treated with more than 2 hepatotoxic drugs, while patients with CTP between 8 and 10 should be treated with only a single hepatotoxic drug. Those with CTP > 10 or severe liver dysfunction should not be treated with any hepatotoxic drug. Pyrazinamide (PYZ) is the most hepatotoxic drug.
  • Isoniazid (INH) causes idiosyncratic-type hepatotoxicity. Both rifampicin (RMP) and pyrazinamide cause both idiosyncratic and dose-dependent hepatotoxicity.
  • In patients receiving combination therapies involving INH, but not RMP, the incidence of hepatotoxicity is around 1.6%. When regimens involving both INH and RMP are employed, the incidence of hepatotoxicity is increased to 2.5%. Elderly patients have a higher incidence of liver decompensation following ATT.
68
Q

A 24-year-old female with a history of IV drug use and multiple sexual partners presents to the clinic complaining of changes in her vision. The healthcare worker shines a bright light in the patient’s left eye, and the patient reflexively closes both his eyes simultaneously. Which brainstem nuclei is responsible for this reflex?
1. The mesencephalic nucleus and chief sensory nucleus
2. Nucleus ambiguus and chief sensory nucleus
3. Only the motor trigeminal nucleus
4. The spinal trigeminal nucleus, chief sensory nucleus, and facial nerve nucleus

A

4. The spinal trigeminal nucleus, chief sensory nucleus, and facial nerve nucleus

  • This is the corneal reflex, which is sensed by the chief sensory nucleus and the spinal trigeminal nuclei, is then relayed to cranial nerve VII nucleus in order to facilitate the closure of orbicularis oculi.
  • While the chief sensory nucleus is partially responsible for this reflex, the spinal trigeminal nucleus and facial nerve (CN VII) nucleus is also integral to the reflex.
  • The trigeminal motor nucleus is not involved in this reflex. Rather sensory information from the eye is conveyed via the spinal trigeminal and chief sensory nuclei to the bilateral facial nerve nuclei (cranial nerve 7). Each nucleus then stimulates its ipsilateral orbicularis oculi muscles, which shut the eyes.
  • When the bright light shines into the patients left eye that stimulus is conveyed first to the spinal trigeminal and chief sensory nuclei and then to the bilateral facial nerve nuclei (cranial nerve 7). Each nucleus then stimulates its ipsilateral orbicularis oculi muscles, the result of which shuts both eyes.
69
Q

A 33-year-old female presents to the emergency department with complaints of a headache. She describes a severe headache with an abrupt onset with an immediate maximal intensity while weightlifting two hours ago. As part of her medical history, the patient discloses that she has suffered from regular mild headaches in the past, chronic fatigue, orthostatic intolerance, generalized hypermobile joints, and pregnancy complicated by cervical incompetence. She reveals that currently, she is being evaluated by a geneticist as a recommendation by her primary care provider for a definitive diagnosis as her symptoms are believed to be linked. What is the most likely cause of this headache?
1. Cluster headache
2. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
3. Cerebral vasculitis
4. Cerebral vascular thrombosis

A

2. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

  • Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS) is a collection of genetic mutations that affect the collagen matrix of various tissues, including blood vessels.
  • Aneurysms discovered in a patient with EDS can be detected throughout the arterial system, including the intracranial vasculature, which can predispose the patient to subarachnoid hemorrhage.
  • EDS has known associations with dysautonomias (including orthostatic intolerance potentially from postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome), chronic fatigue, and transient headaches.
  • Vascular dilation and rupture can occur anywhere in the arterial system with or without predisposing trauma. Vascular rupture occurs most commonly in the thorax and abdomen but can also occur intracranially.
70
Q

A 67-year-old female presented with memory loss, confusion, and personality changes. The neurologist found mild cognitive dysfunction during the examination. The neurological history and physical examination are unremarkable. A CT scan of the brain is normal. An MRI of the brain revealed hyperintense lesions in the medial temporal cortex. Which of the following should be the next step in management?
1. Repeat CT scan
2. Consult an oncologist
3. Prescribe aspirin
4. Order a PET scan

A

2. Consult an oncologist

  • This patient has paraneoplastic limbic encephalitis (PLE). Symptoms include memory loss, confusion, personality or behavioral changes, seizures, and sleep disturbances. Because the CT and MRI are negative except for the hyperintense lesions in the medial temporal lobe, the diagnosis should be made after excluding other possible causes. One of the most common causes of PLE is occult cancer of the breast, lung, or ovary, which may be diagnosed after symptom onset.
  • MRI is superior to CT scan in infratentorial lesions and some early manifestations of stroke. Also, brain parenchyma may be evaluated better with MRI.
  • Aspirin should be used in a patient who has suffered or is susceptible to a stroke, such as a previous myocardial infarction or very high LDL cholesterol.
  • A PET scan should be considered to find occult malignancies. This step would be reasonable if the oncologist does not find a tumor or to confirm the diagnosis.
71
Q

A 16-year-old male gymnast who sustained a fall during vaulting complains of pain in the nape of his neck and radiating to the back of his head. The patient has no neurological deficits. CT spine revealed traumatic C1-C2 subluxation. He is advised for mechanical traction. Which of the following traction angle and loads are most appropriate for this patient?
1. 20-degree, 10 lb (4.5 kg)
2. 20-degree, 40 lb (18 kg)
3. 0-degree, 10 lb (4.5 kg)
4. 0-degree, 40 lb (18 kg)

A

3. 0-degree, 10 lb (4.5 kg)

  • The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of C1-C2 subluxation which is more common in certain syndromes (e.g. trisomy 21) and types of arthritis (e.g. rheumatoid arthritis).
  • Mechanical cervical traction of any cervical pathology at the levels of C1 and/or C2 should be done at a 0-degree angle level that would provide the best pull to this region.
  • The weight of traction should be limited to 10 lb (4.5 kg) to avoid any complication at the upper cervical level, which is already unstable in patients with C1-C2 subluxation. Any worsening of symptoms should warrant termination of the procedure.
  • Cervical pathologies below C2 require traction at a 20-degree angle or higher to optimize spinal pull. The load applied in patients who are undergoing traction for indications other than C1-C2 subluxation can be set to up to 45 lb (20.4 kg).
72
Q

A 65-year-old female develops slurred speech and mild right arm weakness. Her husband calls emergency medical services, and the patient is transported to a nearby Primary Stroke Center as a stroke alert. Her last known normal was 2 hours ago. In accordance with the hospital’s stroke alert protocol, the patient undergoes non-contrast head CT and CT angiography, which demonstrate an area of suspected ischemia in the territory of a small branching vessel of the left middle cerebral artery. There is no evidence of hemorrhage or large vessel occlusion. The patient has no contraindication to intravenous (IV) tPA if indicated. Which of the following are the most appropriate treatment and disposition?
1. Administer IV tPA and admit the patient to the hospital’s stroke unit
2. Initiate IV tPA and transfer to a Comprehensive Stroke Center for admission
3. Initiate IV tPA and transfer to a Comprehensive Stroke Center for mechanical thrombectomy
4. Transfer the patient to a Comprehensive Stroke Center immediately without starting IV tPA

A

1. Administer IV tPA and admit the patient to the hospital’s stroke unit

  • The American Heart Association and American Stroke Association 2018 guidelines state IV tPA should be administered to all eligible patients as quickly as possible within 3 hours of last known normal with an extended window of 4.5 hours in a more selective group of patients.
  • Patients without large vessel occlusions do not require mechanical thrombectomy.
  • Patients with small vessel ischemic stroke can be admitted to a Primary Stroke Center for IV tPA and further care.
  • Every 15-minute delay in IV tPA administration is associated with worse functional outcomes, including having 4% worse odds of walking independently at discharge; 3% worse odds of being discharged to home (instead of an institution); 4% greater odds of death before discharge; and 4% greater odds of experiencing symptomatic hemorrhagic transformation of the infarct.
73
Q

A 30-year-old businessman has cervical region pain radiating to the whole head since last five years. Medical and behavioral treatment has failed. Botulinum toxin injection given at suboccipital region on both sides lead to a greater than 75% reduction of pain lasting for eight weeks. What is the further line of management?
1. Occipital neurolysis
2. Continuing botulinum toxin injection lifelong
3. Cervical lateral mass fixation
4. Counseling only

A

1. Occipital neurolysis

  • Occipital neurolysis is the preferred treatment for this patient. It is done by releasing the greater and lesser occipital nerves from semispinalis capitis muscle and fascia around the nerve.
  • It is done by either making a midline suboccipital incision or by making two incisions medial and caudal to the mastoid.
  • Fat is wrapped around the nerve to prevent retethering.
  • The C2 ganglion can also be cut if occipital nerves cannot be identified intraoperatively.
74
Q

A 50-year-old woman presents to the clinic for follow-up after having undergone a unilateral cordotomy. The patient currently works as a chef and has a history of metastatic breast cancer. Her vital signs are all within normal reference ranges. The patient states that while her somatic pain has improved, she has noticed other side effects of the procedure. Which of the following is the most appropriate precaution the patient must take given the interventional target of this procedure?
1. The patient must be extra cautious when working near an open flame or hot objects
2. The patient must be extra careful when utilizing sharp knives
3. The patient must carefully handle raw seafood and other common sources of Vibrio cholerae
4. The patient must be extra cautious when lifting boxes heavier than 10 pounds (4.5 kg)

A

1. The patient must be extra cautious when working near an open flame or hot objects

  • The lateral spinothalamic tract is the target of the cordotomy.
  • The lateral spinothalamic tract is responsible for transmitting temperature sensation as well as pain and coarse touch.
  • Depending on the characteristics of pain, unilateral and bilateral cordotomy are both options for consideration.
  • Other cordotomy side effects include dysesthesia, urinary retention, ataxia, paresis, sympathetic dysfunction, sexual sensitivity impaired or lost, and a form of sleep apnea.
75
Q

A 55 years old retired boxer was brought to the clinic following the recent onset of forgetfulness. He was avoiding hanging out even with his close friends and had recurrent episodes of disinhibition and aggressiveness before this symptom. The provider analyzed his progression of symptoms and found it to be similar to that of chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE). The progression of CTE is closely related to the involvement of which tract in the brain?
1. Corpus callosum
2. Reticular activating system
3. Papez circuit
4. Hypothalamic-pituitary axis

A

3. Papez circuit

  • The classic patterns of evolution of symptoms in cases of CTE are closely related to the involvement of the Papez circuit on the brain.
  • The first stage begins with affective disturbances followed by the stage of social instability, behavioral changes, with subtle features of early Parkinsonism which eventually progresses to the third stage of cognitive dysfunction, dementia, and full-blown Parkinsonism.
  • This circuit which governs emotional experience has been closely linked to the pattern of evolution of symptoms in CTE.
  • The involvement of other regions in the brain seems to be the collateral damage owing to repeated head impacts.
76
Q

Midway through surgery, a patient’s somatosensory evoked potentials (SEPs) have been stable and consistent. However, over the course of a few minutes, the amplitude drops to 40% of baseline, and the latency increases by 15%. Which of the following measures is the most important to first address and ideally reverse these changes?
1. Flood the surgical field with warmed normal saline
2. Ask the surgeon to pause and release any retractors that are in place
3. Ensure the patient’s mean arterial pressure (MAP) is at or above 65 mmHg
4. Discontinue or decrease any volatile anesthetic agents

A

2. Ask the surgeon to pause and release any retractors that are in place

  • Releasing the retractors in place is the first step that should be taken when such SEP changes are noted;
  • If surgical dissection, use of electrocautery, or retraction is causing these changes, this should be identified as soon as possible to avoid irreversible injury to the involved neurologic structure.
  • Many surgical factors can alter SEPs, though the most time- sensitive of these are ischemia, surgical manipulation of structures, cautery, and dissection. Ischemia could be caused by pressure, retraction, clipped vessels, etc. Manipulating structures and dissecting in certain areas may compromise neurologic structures and/or tracts, leading to a loss or distortion of evoked potential signals that, if not corrected, could result in permanent neurologic deficits. Cautery, if used too liberally, could compromise blood flow and/or directly injure a nerve or spinal tract.
  • Changes in temperature, namely hypothermia, can increase the latency of SEPs, though this is not the first step that should be taken if such changes were noted on SEPs intraoperatively. Drops in MAP that compromise perfusion pressure to the involved sensory pathways can lead to the listed changes in SEPs. Ensuring the MAP is adequate is a critical step in addressing SEP changes, but it is arguably less important than notifying the surgeon and asking that they momentarily pause while attempts are made to return the SEPs to baseline. Volatile agents can affect the SEP waveform and complicate the picture when trying to identify the cause of changes. Discontinuing or decreasing a volatile agent is a reasonable thing to do, but should not be the first step in addressing these changes.
77
Q

A patient presents to the office with a three-month history of severe low back pain secondary to an osteoporotic compression fracture. The patient has been unresponsive to all conservative management. He elects to undergo kyphoplasty. What is the most likely side effect from the patient undergoing kyphoplasty?
1. Pulmonary embolism
2. Cement extravasation
3. Bone erosion
4. Repeat spinal fracture

A

2. Cement extravasation

  • The predominant reaction associated with both kyphoplasty and vertebroplasty is extravasation of the injected cement. This potentially leads to increased pain and or damage to the underlying nerve root.
  • Extravasation of the injected cement can potentially lead to increased pain and or damage to the underlying nerve root.
  • Reports have been shown that cement embolization can occur following procedures. This can potentially occur due to extravasation of the injected cement. Regarding a pulmonary embolism secondary to extravasation of the injected cement, no adverse reactions have been documented, regardless of radiological evidence of embolization.
  • Recent studies have shown vertebral cement to be associated with bone necrosis. There has also been an association of new fractures in many randomized control trials after patients received vertebroplasty when compared to controls. These potential side effects are much less common compared to extravasation of the injected cement.
78
Q

A 35-year-old patient had undergone a decompressive hemicraniectomy following traumatic acute subdural hematoma and multiple contusions. He was planned for cranioplasty. His CT head revealed the presence of a prominent ipsilateral lateral ventricle with mild ballooning of the third ventricle. The patient, however, had no features of raised intracranial pressure. What would be the ideal plan for managing this patient?
1. Place the external ventricular drain (EVD) and monitor the intracranial pressure (ICP)
2. Plan for cranioplasty and ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunting in the same setting
3. Plan for cranioplasty and then monitor for the progression of hydrocephalus
4. Plan for VP shunt first and then cranioplasty

A

3. Plan for cranioplasty and then monitor for the progression of hydrocephalus

  • In patients with decompressive hemicraniectomy, hydrocephalus can be seen due to altered CSF dynamics and the sinking skin flap syndrome.
  • In such cases, early cranioplasty would reverse the CSF dynamics with no need for any diversion procedure in large subsets of such patients.
  • This approach will prevent the concurrent risks and complications of shunt surgeries. Therefore, there has been an agreed consensus on planning for early cranioplasty following decompressive hemicraniectomy (DHC) to minimize such complications.
  • Shunt and cranioplasty in the same setting have associated risks. Shunt first would cause a risk of hematoma beneath the cranioplasty due to the failure of brain expansion. Cranioplasty first would complicate the tapping of the ventricles due to shifting in their anatomical position following bone replacement.
79
Q

A 55-year-old female with obesity presents for a right breast mass removal. She is considered for an erector spinae plane block that could potentially reduce her pain during and after surgery. The block is technically difficult to perform due to the patient’s body habitus, but the proceduralist finally able to successfully place an ESP catheter. Which adverse effect is most likely to occur in this patient as a result of the ESP catheter placement?
1. Shortness of breath
2. Muscle rigidity
3. Severe hoarseness
4. Horner syndrome

A

1. Shortness of breath

  • Complications from ESP are very rare because the site of injection is far from the pleura, major blood vessels, and the spinal cord.
  • Infection at the needle insertion site, local anesthetic toxicity/allergy, vascular puncture, pleural puncture, pneumothorax, and failed block are the primary complications of ESP.
  • Symptoms of a pneumothorax caused by unintentional needle intrusion into the pleural space during ESP could include sharp chest pain or mild-to-severe shortness of breath.
  • Care should be taken during ESP to visualize the needle using an in-plane ultrasound approach. This visualization will decrease the chance of unexpected pleural puncture and pneumothorax.
80
Q

An 84-year-old female patient goes to the audiologist as she noted difficulty with word recognition. On the exam, she is found to have a moderate loss in the right ear but normal in the left. Speech discrimination is 50% on the right. As the findings were asymmetrical, she was ordered a brain magnetic resonance imaging. The MRI showed a 1.1 cm mass at the right jugular foramen with some erosion of the middle ear. There is no tinnitus or facial palsy. Which is the best treatment modality for her?
1. Observation
2. Radiosurgery
3. Subtotal resection
4. Onyx embolization

A

1. Observation

  • In a glomus tumor, conductive hearing loss is seen in addition to tinnitus. Observation provides an excellent treatment alternative, as 65% of tumors remained stable or even regressed in size. For her age, this is the best treatment modality.
  • They are slow-growing, rare, and hypervascular. It is most common in women in their fifth and sixth decades of life.
  • They originate from the chief cells of the paraganglia of the jugular bulb. Glomus tumors of the middle ear are more common than glomus tumors of the jugular vein and result from abnormal growth of a single glomus body. They appear as a red ball behind the eardrum. The eardrum may pulsate if the tumor is touching the intact eardrum and is called pulsatile tinnitus.
  • Pulsatile tinnitus may get worse as the tumor enlarges. Glomus tumors grow large and may grow into the mastoid or through the wall that divides the middle ear from the mastoid, and they may then deeply infiltrate the bone. With the invasion, the tumor is more difficult to remove. If the tumor fills the middle ear space, hearing loss will occur.
81
Q

A 67-year-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis develops vertigo, occipital pain, tinnitus, and dysphagia. Which of the following may be the cause?
1. Cerebrovascular accident
2. Atlantoaxial instability
3. Vestibular neuritis
4. Acoustic neuroma

A

2. Atlantoaxial instability

  • Twenty-five percent to 80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis may develop atlantoaxial instability.
  • Symptoms can include decreased range of motion, brainstem signs, and myelopathy.
  • Excessive movement can compress the spinal cord or brainstem.
  • The cervical spine is frequently involved in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. Cervical involvement tends to be asymptomatic. The flexion-extension moment exerted on the spine can cause ligamentous disruption with subsequent atlantoaxial instability.
82
Q

A 28-year-old male was admitted last week for cerebral vein thrombosis. His brother has a history of massive pulmonary embolism and left iliofemoral deep vein thrombosis at 31 years of age. The workup during hospitalization revealed a factor V Leiden heterozygous mutation. His only medications are rivaroxaban and as needed acetaminophen. Today at the clinic he reports feeling good. His vital signs are normal, and the physical examination is unremarkable. How long should he continue anticoagulant therapy?
1. 3 months
2. 6 months
3. 12 months
4. Indefinite anticoagulation

A

4. Indefinite anticoagulation

  • The duration of anticoagulant therapy should be individualized. Indefinite anticoagulation is highly advisable in those with unprovoked thrombosis, life-threatening venous thromboembolism (VTE), more than one episode, or thrombosis at an unusual site, such as cerebral veins, mesenteric veins, or portal veins.
  • For individuals with heterozygous factor V Leiden mutation and a single provoked VTE, 3 to 6 months of anticoagulation is sufficient.
  • The choice of anticoagulant usually is based on a number of factors, including patient preference, the severity of thrombosis, adherence to therapy, and possible drug and dietary interactions.
  • For asymptomatic individuals who are heterozygous for factor V Leiden, anticoagulation is recommended in some high-risk situations, such as surgery or pregnancy.
83
Q

A 53-year-old male had a left acoustic neuroma resected 5 months ago and has had severe, throbbing left-sided headaches that began the week of the resection. He rarely had headaches before surgery. His headaches are without associated symptoms and are not positional. The only relief he gets is from opioid analgesics. What is the next best step in management?
1. Psychiatric referral
2. Physical examination
3. Change to a different opioid analgesic
4. MRI of the brain with contrast

A

2. Physical examination

  • The patient has a chronic, post-craniotomy headache (PCH), defined as headaches occurring within 7 days of a craniotomy and which persist for greater than 3 months.
  • The first step in evaluation is a good history and physical examination, remembering to build a broad differential, and searching for any red flags that may need emergent management. Physical examination should include evaluation of surgical scar, musculoskeletal exam of the cervical spine, and neurological exam for focal neurological signs. Part of the diagnostic criteria according to the International Classification of Headache Disorders 3-beta (ICHD-3) is that a headache is not better accounted for by another ICHD-3 diagnosis.
  • Currently, research is lacking in regards to current strategies to treat post-craniotomy headaches. Therefore, options for consideration in the acute phase include the use of typical medications seen in the treatment of headaches with similar phenotypes. Although opioid analgesics are indicated for the treatment of moderate to severe pain, caution is advised as they have addictive potential, can cause respiratory depression, and may obscure the ability to monitor neurologic responses.
  • In the chronic phase, a shift to more non-pharmacological adjuncts may be ideal. Alternatives to consider include physical therapy, acupuncture, transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation, hot or cold packs, massage, or bio-behavioral interventions. A small case series of four patients demonstrated benefit with the use of Botulinum toxin-A to treat delayed onset PCH, but similar to the other approaches, more research is needed.
84
Q

A 7-year-old child was recently diagnosed with a tectal glioma after presenting with increased cranial pressure headaches and visual problems. A shunt was surgically placed to allow drainage of cerebrospinal fluid. Symptoms receded following this surgical treatment. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
1. Frequent MRI scans as a follow-up
2. Chemotherapy
3. Surgical removal of the tumor
4. Radiation therapy

A

1. Frequent MRI scans as a follow-up

  • The main concern with tectal gliomas is occlusion of the cerebral aqueduct and the increase in intracranial pressure that develops. The tumor itself is often low-grade with slow growth.
  • Following treatment to relieve the increased pressure, most patients remain asymptomatic and require no further treatment.
  • Frequent monitoring of the tumor for growth is recommended with chemotherapy if necessary.
  • In this case, the child has no further symptoms and further treatment would only induce unnecessary side-effects. Monitoring with MRI scans every 3 months is sufficient.
85
Q

A 65-year-old female with a history of osteoporosis, osteoarthritis, chronic kidney disease stage 3, and type two diabetes mellitus presents with a seven-week history of persistent low back pain. The pain is described as burning and stinging, and radiating down her posterior thigh bilaterally. She reports working outside seven weeks ago, and the pain starting suddenly afterward. She denies recent trauma or illness, numbness or tingling, and bowel or bladder incontinence. She has been trying conservative management over the last seven weeks, but her pain has persisted. She has failed acetaminophen, NSAIDs, and short-acting opioid therapy. The initial lumbar spine x-ray was negative. On physical exam, there is no point tenderness over her lower lumbar spine. Hip flexion, knee flexion, knee extension, plantar flexion, and dorsiflexion demonstrate 5/5 muscle strength bilaterally. Lower extremity sensation is diminished along the posterior thigh bilaterally. Deep tendon reflex for S1 is 3/4 on the left and 2/4 on the right, and deep tendon reflex for L4 vertebrae is 2/4 bilaterally. Straight leg raise elicits pain on the left. The FABER test is negative bilaterally. Hypertonicity of the paraspinal muscles is not appreciated on examination. Her creatinine is 1.0 mg/dL. What is the best diagnostic test for further evaluation of this patient?
1. CT myelogram of the lumbar spine
2. MRI lumbar spine without contrast
3. CT lumbar spine with contrast
4. Repeat lumbar spine x-ray

A

2. MRI lumbar spine without contrast

  • Among the answer choices, an MRI of the lumbar spine gives the best visualization of nerve root compression and or disc herniation. Lumbosacral radiculopathy is a diffuse disease process that affects more than one underlying nerve root, causing pain, loss of sensation, and motor function depending on the severity of nerve compression.
  • The most common origin of lumbar radiculopathy is nerve root compression. It commonly results from either disc herniation or spondylosis. A disc herniation can be either due to an acute injury or secondary to chronic degeneration of the spine.
  • MRI of the lumbosacral spine is the most useful imaging to identify underlying pathology and the need for surgical intervention. CT myelography is used when a patient has either a contraindication for an MRI, such as having a pacemaker device or defibrillator or when a standard CT or MRI is negative or equivocal. A CT myelogram is also used when direct visualization of the nerve root sleeve is required.
  • Plain radiographs of the patient’s lumbar spine offer limited value in the evaluation of underlying radiculopathy. A CT is a poor test for the visualization of nerve roots, making it challenging to diagnose radicular disease. Standard CT scans are better than MRI for assessing bony structures.
86
Q

A 38-year-old man with metastatic colon cancer has undergone a bilateral cordotomy for refractory opioid-resistant pain. The patient has no other significant prior medical conditions, and a percutaneous cervical approach for the procedure was chosen. In the clinic, his vital signs are within normal reference ranges. He reports improvement to his somatic pain. However, he describes a new “annoyance” with eating and drinking. Regarding the risk to surrounding structures, given the anatomic location most commonly targeted with this procedure, what deficit is most expected as leading to his new complaint regarding oral intake?
1. A severe tremor in his upper extremities
2. Intractable nausea with oral intake
3. Difficulty with initiating deglutition
4. Ageusia leading to anorexia

A

3. Difficulty with initiating deglutition

  • In the percutaneous cervical cordotomy, the lateral spinothalamic tract anterolateral column is destroyed most often at the level of C1-C2.
  • With the disruption of the lateral spinothalamic tract at C1-C2, the aim is for a contralateral disruption of painful sensations beyond C4.
  • The geniohyoid muscle is innervated by fibers from the first cervical nerve.
  • The geniohyoid muscle moves the hyoid bone up and forward facilitating the initiation of deglutition and also assisting respiration.
87
Q

A 67-year-old female presents with severe, progressive lumbar back pain, worsening over the last month. She has a history of metastatic multiple myeloma, osteoarthritis, type 2 diabetes, osteoporosis, and previous osteoporotic compression fractures of her lumbar spine. Her previous osteoporotic compression fracture was two years ago. She has been on alendronate since her previous fracture. She is currently undergoing chemoradiation for the underlying metastatic multiple myeloma. Her pain is described as sharp, achy, nine out of 10 in severity, without radiation of the pain. She is not able to walk because of the pain. She denies any numbness or tingling into her lower extremities, or bowel or bladder incontinence at this time. On physical exam, there is point tenderness over her lower lumbar spine L4-L5 vertebrae. A muscle strength examination of lower extremities cannot be completed due to the patient’s pain. However, her plantar flexion and dorsiflexion muscle strength is 5/5 bilaterally; her lower extremity sensation is otherwise intact. Deep tendon reflexes for L4, S1 are 2/4 bilaterally. Special tests cannot be performed due to pain. Pain is elicited immediately upon the patient lying on her back. Kyphoplasty is considered for the patient. Which diagnosis is the strongest indication for vertebral augmentation in this patient?
1. Degenerative osteoarthritis of the spine
2. Osteoporotic compression fracture
3. Metastatic compression fracture
4. Traumatic fracture of the lumbar spine

A

3. Metastatic compression fracture

  • Studies that have shown the greatest evidence for the use of vertebral augmentation has been shown for patients with metastatic fractures secondary to multiple myeloma. Multiple studies have been done on patients suffering from multiple myeloma with metastatic pathological compression fractures. In this select group of patients, kyphoplasty has been found to significantly decrease the need for patient requirement of walking aids post augmentation as well as a decrease in analgesic medication use. There was also found to be decreased patient requirement of bedrest secondary to pain.
  • Furthermore, in an uncontrolled study, kyphoplasty was shown to have significant decreases in patient’s pain, improvement in their underlying physical and social functioning, and reported vitality. Over 80% of patients have reported pain relief following kyphoplasty in patients with metastatic multiple myeloma who suffer from vertebral compression fractures.
  • A separate study also showed in a group of 57 patients with pathological fracture secondary to malignancies either a complete or significant resolution of pain in over 84% of patients who underwent kyphoplasty or vertebroplasty. The pain scores remained significantly decreased at one year following the procedure.
  • Multiple systematic reviews of vertebral augmentation for patients with underlying cancer have been reported. In over half of these studies, patients reported significant improvement in pain following vertebral augmentation. Similar scores were shown for decreases in pharmacological analgesia and disability scores. A traumatic fracture of the lumbar spine would not be an indication for vertebroplasty. However, patient with a traumatic fracture may require spinal surgery consultation depending on the severity of the injury or if the patient is experiencing any neurological sequelae. Osteoporotic compression fractures have had mixed results regarding the efficacy for patients undergoing kyphoplasty or vertebroplasty. If a patient failed conservative management and continues to have prolonged and severe pain secondary to an osteoporotic compression fracture, some experts consider vertebroplasty as a reasonable second-line treatment. However, the evidence is limited regarding its effectiveness. Degenerative osteoarthritis of the spine would not be an indication for kyphoplasty. Patients with degenerative osteoarthritis of the spine may suffer from spinal stenosis. It is unlikely that a patient would experience point tenderness over the vertebrae in degenerative osteoarthritis, but they could experience radicular symptoms if there were a narrowing of the spinal canal. First-line management after the onset of pain secondary to spinal stenosis would be conservative management. For patients who are suffering from lumbar spinal stenosis after the initial six weeks of symptoms, they may benefit from a lumbar epidural for symptomatic relief, as long as their neurological symptoms were not progressing or were not severe. Traumatic fracture of the lumbar spine will need to be evaluated by spinal surgery if there is concern for spinal cord compression. The patient may require emergency decompression if a fracture was severe enough.
88
Q

A 30-year-old female presents for evaluation of chronic low back pain, with secondary complaints of neck pain, headaches, dorsalgia, hip pain, polyarthralgia, polymyalgias, and regional sensory disturbances. Her daily pain is 10/10, and she points to a widespread area from the T4 level down to the coccyx and on both sides of the midline. Aggravating and relieving factors are unclear. She has a past medical history of seizures, irritable bowel disorder, temporomandibular joint disorder, major depressive disorder, and post-traumatic stress disorder. Social history is pertinent for smoking, unemployment, and childhood sexual abuse. There are multiple somatic complaints on the review of systems. Oswestry Disability Index score is 40 points (80% = severe disability), and her pain diagram is nonspecific. Medications include oxycodone extended-release 40 mg three times daily, carisoprodol, and diazepam. Examination yields a flat affect, kinesiophobia, widespread tenderness, and effort-dependent strength testing. MRI of the lumbar spine demonstrates disc bulges at L3 to L5 and a small midline protrusion at L5 to S1. She has had several procedures by another pain clinic which “did not help for more than 1 to 2 weeks”. She states she was informed she would “need a discogram to figure out what is going on at this point,” and requests that it be performed. Which of the following is true?
1. Because this patient has chronic severe lower back pain that has not improved despite several interventions, lumbar provocative discography is indicated
2. If the decision were made to proceed to lumbar provocative discography, this patient is at a high risk for a false positive result
3. If the decision were made to proceed to lumbar provocative discography, the use of a radiographically normal control disc is unnecessary in this patient as it only increases the risk of an adverse event without adding value to the test
4. Rather than performing lumbar provocative discography, offering to repeat a less risky diagnostic procedure is reasonable in this case

A

2. If the decision were made to proceed to lumbar provocative discography, this patient is at a high risk for a false positive result

  • Provocative discography is a diagnostic procedure that is not indicated in the routine evaluation of chronic lower back pain. There is nothing in this patient’s history to suggest that she has features of discogenic lower back pain, such as focal pain at the midline, flexion and sitting intolerance, and pain aggravated by Valsalva maneuvers. Further, there is no mention of how results, if believed, will be used to guide treatment.
  • This patient has an abnormal, non-anatomic pain map, a history of widespread chronic pain, and probable somatization, which puts her at a very high risk of a false positive result. Other common causes of false positive results include a history of prior back surgery and failure to utilize manometry or a control disc during the performance of the test.
  • Given her clinical presentation, including severe psychosocial pathology, widespread chronic pain, and radiographic findings that do not correlate well with history and physical examination, the performance of any diagnostic test to attempt to determine a ‘pain generator’ is probably unwise. This usually will fail to accurately uncover a pain etiology or may produce a false positive result that may lead to further, unhelpful procedures or surgery.
  • This patient is at high risk for iatrogenic injury and will almost certainly not improve with her current treatment regimen of medications and procedures. Even if her L5 to S1 protruded disc were symptomatic, it does not explain the balance of her symptoms, and so treatments aimed at it will fail to improve her overall function. This patient may do better in a functionally- based rehabilitative program that includes education, physical therapy, and behavioral health. In her case, the biomedical model (i.e., continuing to search for a ‘pain generator’), reliance on medications, and procedural or surgical interventions should be de-emphasized.
89
Q

A 30-year-old woman presents for her 1 month follow up after bilateral optic nerve sheath fenestration for malignant pseudotumor cerebri syndrome. Her incisions are healing well, and her orbital edema is resolving, and her eye movements are full. However, her visual fields appear to be worsening despite the apparent improvement of her optic nerve edema clinically and by optical coherence tomography. She continues on 500 mg of PO acetazolamide twice a day but continues to have headaches with pulsatile tinnitus. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms despite the improvement of her edema?
1. Residual orbital edema that can be observed for now
2. Development of orbital pseudomeningoceles requiring re- fenestration of the nerves to relieve pressure
3. Continued intracranial pressure elevation causing optic nerve compression and axonal loss producing optic atrophy
4. Functional vision loss from stress related her recent diagnosis and surgery

A

3. Continued intracranial pressure elevation causing optic nerve compression and axonal loss producing optic atrophy

  • The rate at which optic disc edema resolves after treatment depends upon the length and severity of preoperative perioptic intracranial pressure (ICP) and the method of ICP lowering. However, improvement in disc edema can represent either reduction of axoplasmic stasis or continued axonal loss from persistent ICP elevation.
  • It is important to check visual fields and visual acuity at each postoperative visit in addition to examining the optic nerve for the status of edema. Patients with an improvement of disc edema from ICP lowering should demonstrate visual acuity stability while those with continued optic nerve damage will demonstrate a decline of their visual function.
  • Signs of continued ICP elevation after optic nerve sheath fenestration include continued headaches, transient visual obscurations, and cranial nerve VI palsies with associated diplopia.
  • An important sign of continued ICP elevation is causing a reduction in optic disc edema from axonal loss is the development of optic atrophy. These patients should be strongly considered for a cerebral spinal fluid diversion procedure for global ICP control.
90
Q

A patient presents two days post motor vehicular collision. The patient is an 18-year-old male who is complaining of severe right-sided neck pain, headache, vision issues, and right- hand issues. The patient states he did not go to the emergency department or file an accident report. He reports he was just messing around on his dirt bike; he lost control at about 25 miles per hour and landed on his arm with it positioned above his head. During the physical examination, there is ptosis and miosis of the right eye. His fingers are flexed in a “claw-like” appearance. He has normal brachioradialis, brachialis, and tricep reflex. He has decreased vibration and soft touch sensation of the medial hand and forearm. There is also has decreased finger abduction strength. It is very painful for him to perform left lateral flexion. All other vital signs are within normal limits. What are the primary diagnosis and appropriate next step?
1. Klumpke palsy with associated Horner syndrome, refer out for CT myelography and surgical consult
2. C5 segmental dysfunction with associated Horner syndrome, spinal manipulation, and ice
3. Ulnar neuropathy with associated Horner syndrome, nerve glide treatment
4. Erb palsy with associated Horner syndrome, refer out for MRI and surgical consult

A

1. Klumpke palsy with associated Horner syndrome, refer out for CT myelography and surgical consult

  • Klumpke palsy is a brachial plexus lesion of the C8 and T1 spinal roots and can sometimes also avulse the cervical sympathetic ganglia. In these cases, the patient will present with a “claw” hand deformity and associated ptosis, miosis, and anhydrosis.
  • Statistically surgical correction in severe cases of brachial plexus injuries shows the best prognosis.
  • In severe brachial plexus injuries where there might be suspected avulsion, like in the case presented, CT myelography would be the best imaging option.
  • Young males post motorcycle accidents have the highest incidence of brachial plexus injuries.
91
Q

Following surgical intervention with an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion, a 56-year-old female notices drooping of her right eyelid, dry skin, and a smaller right pupil compared to her left eye. What is the most likely cause of this condition?
1. Injury to the right recurrent laryngeal nerve
2. Post-operative retropharyngeal hematoma
3. Injury to the left C-5 nerve root
4. Injury to the right stellate ganglion

A

4. Injury to the right stellate ganglion

  • Horner syndrome is a disorder characterized by a constricted pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), absence of sweating of the face (anhidrosis), and sinking of the eyeball into the bony cavity that protects the eye (enophthalmos).
  • Injury to the right stellate ganglion would result in Horner’s syndrome on the right side of the face, consistent with this patient’s symptoms.
  • Injury to the left C-5 nerve root would result in left deltoid weakness. A post-operative retropharyngeal hematoma will most likely cause difficulty swallowing, and if severe difficulty breathing/airway collapse.
  • Injury to the right recurrent laryngeal nerve could result in hoarseness if the patient has a competent left vocal cord, or in difficulty breathing/airway collapse if the patient has an incompetent left vocal cord.
92
Q

A physician diagnoses a 67-year-old patient with the beginning stages of Alzheimer’s disease. The patient’s neurologic exam is otherwise intact. A treatment plan of deep brain stimulation to minimize the rate of brain deterioration is created. Where should the surgeon place the stimulator within the brain?
1. Near the fornix
2. Within the thalamus
3. Within frontal cortex
4. Within the midbrain

A

1. Near the fornix

  • Alzheimer’s patients show decreases in the rate of brain atrophy with deep brain stimulation treatments.
  • An optimal location for placement of a deep brain stimulator is near the fornix. The fornix is a unidirectional projection of the hippocampus to the mammillary bodies.
  • The fornix is a part of the Papez circuit. It carries information about memory from the hippocampus to the mammillary bodies. This information moves through the mammillary bodies to the anterior thalamus, cingulate cortex, and entorhinal cortex before looping back to the hippocampus.
  • Stimulation of the mammillary bodies through fornix afferents will influence reciprocal projections between the mammillary bodies and the tegmentum. These circuits help to influence goal-oriented movement and reward circuits within the brain. Patients with deep brain stimulation of the fornix show decreased incidences and degrees of depression. Stimulation of the reward centers of the brain causes this beneficial side effect.
93
Q

An 18-year-old male presents three weeks after a motor vehicle accident. He was thrown from his motorcycle after a sideswipe collision at approximately 15 miles per hour during the accident. He remembers falling on his right arm fully stretched out above his head. He was taken to the hospital and examined. The physician cleared him two hours later and sent him home with painkillers and an ice pack. Over the last few days, he has noticed some weakness in his hand and pain that starts at his neck and travels down the inside of his arm. During the physical examination, when asked to extend his fingers, his digits remained somewhat flexed. His brachioradialis, brachialis, and tricep reflexes are present, but he exhibits weak finger abduction. He also has a decreased sensation over the hypothenar and medial antebrachium. The remainder of his physical examination is unremarkable. What condition is your primary consideration and what is the next best step?
1. Erb palsy and follow up with cervical MRI
2. Klumpke palsy and follow up with nerve conduction velocity
3. Erb Palsy and follow up with nerve conduction velocity
4. Klumpke palsy and follow up with cervical MRI

A

2. Klumpke palsy and follow up with nerve conduction velocity

  • The patient is stable so a nerve conduction velocity (NCV) test can help to locate where the lesion is. MRI is useful, but this patient does not show signs of serious brachial plexus injury and can be managed conservatively.
  • The patient likely has Klumpke palsy based on history and examination, but the nerve could also be entrapped at a distal location and an NCV would help to rule that out.
  • Klumpke palsy classically presents with a claw hand deformity, compared to preacher’s hand with ulnar palsy, and waiter’s tip with Erb palsy.
  • Klumpke palsy if severe enough can show signs of Horner syndrome and in that case, more intrinsic examinations are needed, along with a surgical consultation.
94
Q

A 55-year-old man presents with a painless burn along with his outer 5th digit and extending proximally to the wrist, which he says happened from touching a hot stove. He has a previous diagnosis of syringomyelia, with an MRI demonstrating a syringe cavity from T2-T8 on MRI 3 years ago. Which of the following is most likely to be found on further evaluation of this patient?
1. Hypertrophy of the intrinsic muscles of the ipsilateral hand
2. Dilated pupil on the contralateral eye
3. Tinel’s sign at the volar wrist
4. Ptosis of the ipsilateral eye

A

4. Ptosis of the ipsilateral eye

  • Concern at this time is for extension of his syrinx cephalad into the C8-T1 dermatomes, as evidenced by loss of pain and temperature sensation and risk for thermal injury. Syrinx cavities are often centrally situated and can affect crossing spinothalamic fibers unilaterally or bilaterally, resulting in loss of pain and temperature sensation.
  • Involvement into the T1 level of the spinal cord can cause a complete or partial Horner syndrome. Sympathetic fibers descend in the spinal cord and exit with the T1 nerve root. Horner syndrome includes partial ptosis (eyelid drooping), anhidrosis (decreased sweating), miosis (constricted/smaller pupil), and the enophthalmos (eyeball being inset).
  • Intrinsic atrophy occurs with the involvement of T1 innervated muscles, whether from a spinal cord or peripheral cause. A “claw hand” with flexion of the 4th and 5th digits would point to significant ulnar nerve injury.
  • Ulnar neuropathy at the elbow or cubital tunnel is associated with Tinel’s sign in that location. Median neuropathy in the carpal canal is associated with Tinel’s sign in that location. The ulnar nerve is served by C8-T1 nerve roots, and injury to the nerve could occur separately or together with spinal cord damage at these levels.
95
Q

A 40-year-old male complains of severe neck pain and bilateral upper extremity numbness after a car accident 5 hours ago. A flexion-extension mechanism is suspected. His medical history is positive for a rare cervical anomaly called os odontoideum. Which of the following best describes the underlying diagnosis?
1. Subaxial cervical fracture-dislocation
2. C1-C2 instability
3. Atlas fracture (Jefferson fracture)
4. Isolated spinous process fracture

A

2. C1-C2 instability

  • The patient has a history of os odontoideum and has symptoms related to spinal cord compression, therefore, a C1-C2 instability must be ruled out. The os odontoideum is often attached to the anterior arch of C1 through an intact transverse ligament. One of the main risks of this anatomical entity is the association of anterior atlantoaxial subluxation.
  • This atlantoaxial instability can lead to cervical spinal stenosis with resultant cervical myelopathy due to vascular compromise, bony compression, and/or stretching of the spinal cord.
  • Posterior atlantoaxial subluxation is extremely rare in os odontoideum. Instability is mainly anterior. In the presence of symptoms or radiographical evidence of instability, surgery is indicated.
  • A subaxial cervical fracture-dislocation is the most common cause of neck pain and neurological symptoms after cervical trauma. However, knowing the presence of os odontoideum, the main diagnosis is cervical instability. Isolated spinous process fracture may be a differential diagnosis but neurologic symptoms are not usually associated. Atlas fracture usually results from axial compression forces, it is not the mechanism in this case.
96
Q

A 70-year-old lady presents to the hospital with what appears to be “raccoon eyes.” There is no history of trauma. The patient has no headaches. There was an M peak in the gamma fraction of the serum protein electrophoresis. What is the most likely etiology in the patient?
1. Acute subarachnoid hemorrhage
2. Amyloid light-chain amyloidosis
3. Sarcoidosis
4. Sweet syndrome

A

2. Amyloid light-chain amyloidosis

  • Amyloid light-chain (AL) amyloidosis is one of the most common differential diagnoses in an elderly patient with spontaneous “raccoon eyes.”
  • They are formed due to bleeding under the skin (bruising) around the eyes.
  • AL amyloidosis can affect a wide range of organs, kidneys being the most commonly affected.
  • Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) from an ophthalmic artery aneurysm has been reported to be associated with raccoon eyes as well, but the patient will present with a severe headache. Sweet syndrome or acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis is a skin disease characterized by the sudden onset of fever, an elevated white blood cell count, and tender, red, well-demarcated papules, and plaques that show dense infiltrates by neutrophil granulocytes on histologic examination. Raccoon sign in this condition is due to secondary vascular damage caused by prolonged exposure to matrix metalloproteinases. Sarcoidosis is not associated with raccoon eyes.
97
Q

A 30-year-old female is experiencing severe migraine attacks over the left frontotemporal region since last one year. She is under treatment of a neurologist who has tried medical and behavioral treatment with no benefit. The patient has been advised to have injection at left frontal and temporal regions. What is the rationale of botulinum toxin injection in her management?
1. Definitive treatment
2. Temporary relief and screening tool
3. Cosmetic purposes
4. It is irrational to use botulinum toxin

A

2. Temporary relief and screening tool

  • Patient has failed conservative measures for her migraine. She needs either botulinum toxin or surgery to treat her condition.
  • Botulinum toxin has efficacy lasting only up to 3 to 6 months. It cannot be labeled as a definitive treatment.
  • It is instilled at suspected trigger sites. Succesful abolition of pain is a marker of good prognosis after neurolysis of nerves supplying that area.
  • Cosmetic use of botulinum toxin in this patient is not rational.
98
Q

A 56-year-old woman presents with low back pain radiating to her right lower limb. She denies bladder-related symptoms. The patient complains of pain in the buttock at 80 degrees of elevation during a straight leg raise test. What is the most appropriate interpretation of this finding?
1. The clinical method is wrong
2. The patient most likely has a herniated nucleus pulposus
3. The patient is unlikely to have a herniated nucleus pulposus
4. The patient is malingering

A

3. The patient is unlikely to have a herniated nucleus pulposus

  • Criteria for a true positive straight leg raise (SLR) test are as follows: radicular leg pain should occur (radiating below the knee) when the leg is lifted between 30 and 70 degrees from horizontal.
  • Pain occurring at an angle greater than 70 degrees from the horizontal is most likely due to tight hamstring or gluteal muscles.
  • Pain occurring at an angle less than 30 degrees may indicate non-organicity.
  • Herniated nucleus pulposus is the most common cause of a true positive SLR test.
99
Q

A 50-year-old man is seen in the trauma bay after a suicide attempt by hanging. CT shows fractures of his second and third cervical vertebrae with extension of the fracture at the third vertebrae through the transverse foramen. CT with angiography suggests a grade I vertebral artery injury at the fracture site. What is the most appropriate treatment?
1. Observation
2. Full-strength aspirin therapy
3. Heparin drip and when therapeutic, oral warfarin
4. Endovascular stenting

A

2. Full-strength aspirin therapy

  • Blunt cerebrovascular injury (BCVI) is a concern when there is a significant mechanism of injury with high energy transfer, eg. strangulation. The Denver criteria have been adopted as screening metrics for who should undergo additional imaging to evaluate for BCVI.
  • The gold standard four-vessel cerebrovascular angiogram is an invasive, expensive test which has complications Thus, computed tomography with angiography (CTA) is routinely used to evaluate for these injuries.
  • Full strength aspirin therapy has been found to have a better risk profile as compared to anticoagulants.
  • For grade 1 injuries, full-strength aspirin therapy alone is the mainstay of treatment.