Section 1 Misc Flashcards
What are the two types of payload sensors?
AN/DAS-1
Lynx SAR
What are the two types of datalinks?
C-Band LOS
Ku-Band SATCOM
Aircraft Dimensions/Weight: Wing Span? Length? Height? Takeoff Weight? Empty Weight? Useful Load? Max Fuel? Inboard Wing Stations? Middle Wing Stations? Outboard Wing Stations?
66 Ft 36.2 Ft 11.8 Ft 10500 lbs 4900 lbs 5600 lbs 3764 lbs 1500 lbs each 750 lbs each 150 lbs each
What is contained in the fuselage
Avionics Bay Forward, Aft, Header Fuel Tanks Accessory Bay Landing Gear Bay Engine Bay
When can the MQ-9 be flown solo?
Above 2000 Ft AGL
What are the two support equipment?
External Power Generators
Start Cart
How many MFWs can the GCS be configured with?
5
How much does the GCS weigh?
20,400 lbs
What does the EPO switch do?
Disconnects all AC power from the GCS
UPS is not disabled
Which work station usually contains the LMA?
MFW 2
How many minutes of power can each UPS provide?
5 minutes
What is the DEEC controlled in-flight operations range?
82-100.5%
The lock-out speed range is 89.5-92.5%
Engine Specs: Name/Model? Installed Weight? Reduction Gearbox? Horsepower
Honeywell TPE331-YGD
525
26:1
900
What controls propeller pitch in-flight?
Oil Pressure
Should you restarted the engine with the propeller feathered?
No
What controls propeller pitch on the ground?
Pitch Control Unit
What does the propeller governor do?
Controls engine RPM in response to the pilot’s throttle and speed lever setting.
Explain the unfeathering pump.
Electric oil pump located in the rear bay of the aircraft that provides temporary oil pressure to give a flat blade angle where the engine can be started.
What components does the oil system provide clean and filtered oil to?
Engine bearings Reduction gears Accessory drives Propeller control system Torque sensing system
What are the components of the oil system?
Oil tank Pressure pump Oil temperature sensor Oil filter Bypass valve Pressure regulator Three scavenge pump Oil/Fuel heat exchanger
What will happen if the engine driven fuel pump fails?
The engine will lose power
When is the ignition unit deactivated during a start cycle?
60% RPM
When does the DEEC notify the EFIU at start-up?
10% RPM
When will the automatic start function activate?
If engine RPM drops below 78% RPM
Name all instances that the engine can be started.
Manually
Normal start sequence at 10% RPM
Restart automatically at 78% RPM
Negative torque is sensed
What provides a back-up for the DEEC?
EFIU
The DEEC receives commands from the RCM through what?
The Interface Processor Assembly
What happens in each position of the condition lever?
Foward: Normal Operations
Middle: Fuel Shutoff Valve
Aft: Feathers Propeller
What are the two throttle modes?
Flight
Ground
What is the critical speed range?
18-28%
What VITs are associated with the Engine?
1,46,47,65
How does fuel get from the outboard tanks to the inboard tanks?
Gravity
How does fuel get to the header tank from the left, right, forward, and aft tanks?
Jet pumps
How does fuel get from the header tank to the engine driven pump?
Electric pumps
How is CG maintained in the aircraft?
Auto-level fuel mode
Manually selecting fuel from tanks
How many fuel tanks are there and what capacity do the have?
Header-204 Forward-1300 Aft-790 Left-735 (Outer/Inner) Right-735 (Outer/Inner)
How is the calculated fuel level computed?
Loaded fuel level minus fuel flow rate
When do you get a red fuel leak warning?
When the fuel probes indicated 200/250 lbs (Wing/Forward or Aft) below the calcuated level.
What do the float switches do and where are they?
Prevent tanks from being overfilled.
Wing tanks and forward and aft
What do the vent valves do?
Allow vapor to escape the tanks. Vapors then go to a vent box where liquid is drained to the inboard left tank.
What does the tilt valve do?
Opens the vent tank when the header is less than full to allow vapor to escape, and closes it when it approaches full to keep the header tank pressurized. Tilt valve will close the vent if the aircraft banks at 10 degrees so pressurization is not lost.
How much fuel is unusable?
60 lbs
When will fuel be bypassed around the filter?
10 PSI differential
The fuel feed manifold contains how many solenoid valves? Return manifold?
4
5, dump valve
How accurate is the mass flow sensor?
+- 10 lbs/hr
How many tanks can be jettisoned at a time?
1
How many fuel heaters are there?
2 (One on fuel feed, one on return feed)
How do the fuel heaters operate?
One element turns on below 10 degree C and off at above 13 degrees C.
The other turns on when below 5 degree C and off is above 8 degrees C for ten seconds.
When will the RCM turn on the fuel pump that is no in use?
If fuel feed pressure drops below 15 PSI
What will happen if both electric pumps fail?
Engine will run until the header tank is empty.
Do you have to be in manual mode to jettison fuel?
No, Auto or Manual works
When does the started become a generator?
Once ground idle speed is reached.
What does the GCU do?
Switches unit from started to generator.
Regulates output of the 28 VDC.
How many electrical buses are there?
2
Which bus provides power and what happens if it fails?
Bus 1.
Bus 2 batteries will provide power if Bus 1 fails, but components powered by Bus 1 will be lost.
How many batteries are there?
How are they broken up?
6 2 sets of 3 Cannot be charged in-flight 25.2 VDC Last 60 minutes at 55 amps
Do the PPDMs receive power from both Buses?
Yes
What components are on PPDM 1?
Pitot/Static port 1/2 heaters IFF Ku-Band ADT (Bus 1 only) MTS (Bus 1 only) Laser altimeter 3
What components are on PPDM 2?
ARC-210
Pitot/Static port heater 3
SAR (Bus 1 only)
Laser altimeter 1/2
What are the nosewheel steering numbers?
0-90% 0 to 7.2 degrees
90-100% 7.3 to 30 degrees
The RCM will not allow the gear to be retracted below airspeed?
50 KIAS
What are the major flight control components?
Ailerons, Ruddervator, Rudders, and Flaps
How many flight control surfaces are there?
13, with 13 servos
How are the flight controls actuated?
Electronically
The aileron moves how many times as far up as the down moving aileron?
2.5 times
Aileron numbers?
25 degrees up, 10 degrees down
30 degrees/second
At Max speed, ailerons will deflect 10 degrees up
2 on each wing
Flap numbers?
45 degrees down, 10 degrees up
5 degrees/second
At Max speed, flaps will be deflected 10 degrees up
2 on each wing
When can you manually control flaps?
A/S less than 121 KIAS
Gear is down, OR
Gear up and A/S Hold is off
If A/C reaches above 121 KIAS, pilot cannot manually control flaps until A/C slows to below 117 KIAS
Ruddervator numbers?
25 degrees up and down
Neutral position is zero
35 degrees/second
Ruddervators move in the same direction to control pitch, and opposite directions to control yaw.
Rudder numbers?
30 degrees L/R
55 degrees/second
What systems does the autopilot system interact with?
Flight control system
Attitude and air data system
Engine control system
What systems are controlled under autonomous flight?
Navigation system Transponder Airborne datalink control system AN/DAS-1 Video data system SAR
When is Cruise Mode on?
Any hold mode engaged
A/S over 110 KIAS
Stall Protect ON
Max A/S hold settings?
200 KIAS
190 KIAS if only A/S hold is on
180 KIAS if A/S hold and altitude hold
What will zeroing trims in flight do?
Commands 50 knots A/S hold
What does Airspeed limit override do?
Prevents pilot from setting an airspeed hold value that would result in lower than 1.25 CL. Activated when A/S hold is on.
When are you in Altitude Preference mode?
Speed Preference mode?
.7 or less CL
.8 or more CL
Explain Speed Priority Override.
If CL of 1.1 is reached, pitch will change to capture CL 1.0 and pilot will receive a “Best Climb Speed Overide” message on the HUD.
Explain Aileron Tip Stall.
Decambers wings when AOA is above 5 AOA, the max decamber is 8 degrees at 9 AOA.
Activated if cruise mode is OFF or stall protected is ON. Deactivated is cruise mode is ON AND stall protect OFF.
Explain Stall Protect.
Prevents stall by limiting AOA.
Turned on/off by pilot, but is only effective below 120 KIAS.
Deflects ruddervators down at 7 AOA, disengages at less than 3 AOA.
Normally turned on at 2000 Ft AGL after takeoff
Explain Rolld Limit Override.
Activate if any of the following: HDG Hold ON Stall Protect ON A/S Hold ON LOS
Explain Sideslip Protect.
Always enabled. Prevents stall
How is the weight of the stores calculated?
Stores Control Computer
What are the two types of preprogrammed flight modes?
Operational
Emergency
What type of logic is used for preprogrammed missions?
Fly-to
What is the maximum number of waypoints for an Ops Mission?
255
What is the maximum number of waypoints for an emergency mission?
100
If the aircraft is with in ___ NM of the emergency mission entry waypoint, it may be skipped.
5.3 NM
What happens when the A/C loses link?
The A/C lays a point 2.5 NM away in the direction of the ILLH and sets up a 1.5NM radius loiter.
What will the A/C do if it is operating at or below 200 Ft of the ILLA?
It will perform a 51-second HDG hold climb. Could result in an altitude overshoot of up to 2000 Ft
What information is saved in the event of an RCM reset?
Primary/Secondary Downlink/Uplink Freqs ILLA/ILLH 20 Emergency mission waypoints Stall Protection setting A/C weight and config IFF setting Mag Var and GCS location Inflight status
How should SAS be turned off?
PRY
What does Landing Configuration - Command turn off?
Preprogrammed
Stall Protect
All hold modes
What are the components of the Aircraft Digital Control System (ADCS)?
UARBs Dedicated links RCM Fault tolerant hardware Fault tolerant software
What is the main function of the dual UARB network?
Connects RCM with the essential flight equipment
What is on UARB A that is not on UARB B?
Both PPDMs and BJA 1
When will the De-Ice system turn on pitot/static heat?
If de-ice is set to auto and OAT is less than or equal to 10 degrees C
What is on the Alpha probe?
AOA sensor
Beta sensor
Yaw string
OAT
What is the degradation rate of the INS?
.8 NM/HR
Waypoints cannot be placed more than how many NM apart?
100NM
The command screen becomes a _______ display if the SMS is displayed on the Left HDD.
Hybrid
What are the two types of link for Ku-Band?
Command and Return
What are the two types of link of C-Band?
Uplink and Downlink
What equipment is used for Standard LOS?
RCM
Omni antenna
Directional antennas
What is the uplink path inside the aircraft?
RCM selects TX/RX 1 or 2
Uplink is received from the GDT to the assigned antenna
RF Tray passes uplink to RX 1
RCM processes and distributes commands
What is the downlink path inside the aircraft?
RCM builds telemetry and datastream and routes to both TXs
All components route telemetry to RCM
Video data is routed to RF Tray
RF Tray routes video to TX 1/2
Each TX routes downlink to RF mux tray
RF Tray sends downlink to respective antenna
What are the azimuth and elevation ranges for the GDT directional antennas?
360
-15 - +95
Horn Antenna Data
+-15 degrees centerline
10NM
+-5 azimuth
Narrow Antenna Data
+- 5 degrees centerline
100 approx
+-1 azimuth
Ku SATCOM will not be used if C-Band data is received within how many seconds?
.5
SATCOM antenna Specs
360 degree
-10 - +85
2 degree cone
What is the SPMA?
Central control and processing point on the aircraft
What is the LMA?
Primary interface between the PSO and PPSL
How is fuel drawn in AUTO mode?
2 x 300 second cycles of forward and wing tanks
1 x 100 sec cycle of forward and aft tank
How do the fuel pumps operate on AUTO?
10 minute cycles with 5 seconds of overlap
What is different about the Encryption Key Set 3?
It is hardcoded onto the aircraft
Explain the Nose Camera
DTV 30 degree FOV Pilots view electrically heated lens Auto iris
Nose lens heat of 60% or higher on the ground could do what?
Crack the lens
Explain the IR Nose Camera.
36x27 FOV
30 seconds to cool down
Where does the switching of AN/DAS-1 sensor cameras occur?
Within the turet
How much ice must accumulate for the Ice Dectector warning to come on?
.02 inches
How long will the Ice Dectector warning message stay on for after the ice has cleared?
60 seconds
What equipment is used for Standard LOS?
RCM
Omni antenna
Directional antennas
What is the uplink path inside the aircraft?
RCM selects TX/RX 1 or 2
Uplink is received from the GDT to the assigned antenna
RF Tray passes uplink to RX 1
RCM processes and distributes commands
What is the downlink path inside the aircraft?
RCM builds telemetry and datastream and routes to both TXs
All components route telemetry to RCM
Video data is routed to RF Tray
RF Tray routes video to TX 1/2
Each TX routes downlink to RF mux tray
RF Tray sends downlink to respective antenna
What are the azimuth and elevation ranges for the GDT directional antennas?
360
-15 - +95
Horn Antenna Data
+-15 degrees centerline
10NM
+-5 azimuth
Narrow Antenna Data
+- 5 degrees centerline
100 approx
+-1 azimuth
Ku SATCOM will not be used if C-Band data is received within how many seconds?
.5
SATCOM antenna Specs
360 degree
-10 - +85
2 degree cone
What is the SPMA?
Central control and processing point on the aircraft
What is the LMA?
Primary interface between the PSO and PPSL
How is fuel drawn in AUTO mode?
2 x 300 second cycles of forward and wing tanks
1 x 100 sec cycle of forward and aft tank
How do the fuel pumps operate on AUTO?
10 minute cycles with 5 seconds of overlap
What is different about the Encryption Key Set 3?
It is hardcoded onto the aircraft
Explain the Nose Camera
DTV 30 degree FOV Pilots view electrically heated lens Auto iris
Nose lens heat of 60% or higher on the ground could do what?
Crack the lens
Explain the IR Nose Camera.
36x27 FOV
30 seconds to cool down
Where does the switching of AN/DAS-1 sensor cameras occur?
Within the turet
How much ice must accumulate for the Ice Dectector warning to come on?
.02 inches
How long will the Ice Dectector warning message stay on for after the ice has cleared?
60 seconds
