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Dash 1 > Section 1 Misc > Flashcards

Section 1 Misc Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two types of payload sensors?

A

AN/DAS-1

Lynx SAR

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2
Q

What are the two types of datalinks?

A

C-Band LOS

Ku-Band SATCOM

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3
Q 
Aircraft Dimensions/Weight:
Wing Span?
Length?
Height?
Takeoff Weight?
Empty Weight?
Useful Load?
Max Fuel?
Inboard Wing Stations?
Middle Wing Stations?
Outboard Wing Stations?
A 
66 Ft
36.2 Ft
11.8 Ft
10500 lbs
4900 lbs
5600 lbs
3764 lbs
1500 lbs each
750 lbs each
150 lbs each
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4
Q

What is contained in the fuselage

A 
Avionics Bay
Forward, Aft, Header Fuel Tanks
Accessory Bay
Landing Gear Bay
Engine Bay
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5
Q

When can the MQ-9 be flown solo?

A

Above 2000 Ft AGL

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6
Q

What are the two support equipment?

A

External Power Generators

Start Cart

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7
Q

How many MFWs can the GCS be configured with?

A

5

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8
Q

How much does the GCS weigh?

A

20,400 lbs

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9
Q

What does the EPO switch do?

A

Disconnects all AC power from the GCS

UPS is not disabled

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10
Q

Which work station usually contains the LMA?

A

MFW 2

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11
Q

How many minutes of power can each UPS provide?

A

5 minutes

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12
Q

What is the DEEC controlled in-flight operations range?

A

82-100.5%

The lock-out speed range is 89.5-92.5%

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13
Q 
Engine Specs:
Name/Model?
Installed Weight?
Reduction Gearbox?
Horsepower
A

Honeywell TPE331-YGD
525
26:1
900

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14
Q

What controls propeller pitch in-flight?

A

Oil Pressure

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15
Q

Should you restarted the engine with the propeller feathered?

A

No

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16
Q

What controls propeller pitch on the ground?

A

Pitch Control Unit

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17
Q

What does the propeller governor do?

A

Controls engine RPM in response to the pilot’s throttle and speed lever setting.

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18
Q

Explain the unfeathering pump.

A

Electric oil pump located in the rear bay of the aircraft that provides temporary oil pressure to give a flat blade angle where the engine can be started.

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19
Q

What components does the oil system provide clean and filtered oil to?

A 
Engine bearings
Reduction gears
Accessory drives
Propeller control system
Torque sensing system
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20
Q

What are the components of the oil system?

A 
Oil tank
Pressure pump
Oil temperature sensor
Oil filter
Bypass valve
Pressure regulator
Three scavenge pump
Oil/Fuel heat exchanger
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21
Q

What will happen if the engine driven fuel pump fails?

A

The engine will lose power

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22
Q

When is the ignition unit deactivated during a start cycle?

A

60% RPM

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23
Q

When does the DEEC notify the EFIU at start-up?

A

10% RPM

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24
Q

When will the automatic start function activate?

A

If engine RPM drops below 78% RPM

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25
Q

Name all instances that the engine can be started.

A

Manually
Normal start sequence at 10% RPM
Restart automatically at 78% RPM
Negative torque is sensed

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26
Q

What provides a back-up for the DEEC?

A

EFIU

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27
Q

The DEEC receives commands from the RCM through what?

A

The Interface Processor Assembly

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28
Q

What happens in each position of the condition lever?

A

Foward: Normal Operations
Middle: Fuel Shutoff Valve
Aft: Feathers Propeller

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29
Q

What are the two throttle modes?

A

Flight

Ground

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30
Q

What is the critical speed range?

A

18-28%

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31
Q

What VITs are associated with the Engine?

A

1,46,47,65

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32
Q

How does fuel get from the outboard tanks to the inboard tanks?

A

Gravity

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33
Q

How does fuel get to the header tank from the left, right, forward, and aft tanks?

A

Jet pumps

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34
Q

How does fuel get from the header tank to the engine driven pump?

A

Electric pumps

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35
Q

How is CG maintained in the aircraft?

A

Auto-level fuel mode

Manually selecting fuel from tanks

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36
Q

How many fuel tanks are there and what capacity do the have?

A 
Header-204
Forward-1300
Aft-790
Left-735 (Outer/Inner)
Right-735 (Outer/Inner)
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37
Q

How is the calculated fuel level computed?

A

Loaded fuel level minus fuel flow rate

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38
Q

When do you get a red fuel leak warning?

A

When the fuel probes indicated 200/250 lbs (Wing/Forward or Aft) below the calcuated level.

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39
Q

What do the float switches do and where are they?

A

Prevent tanks from being overfilled.

Wing tanks and forward and aft

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40
Q

What do the vent valves do?

A

Allow vapor to escape the tanks. Vapors then go to a vent box where liquid is drained to the inboard left tank.

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41
Q

What does the tilt valve do?

A

Opens the vent tank when the header is less than full to allow vapor to escape, and closes it when it approaches full to keep the header tank pressurized. Tilt valve will close the vent if the aircraft banks at 10 degrees so pressurization is not lost.

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42
Q

How much fuel is unusable?

A

60 lbs

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43
Q

When will fuel be bypassed around the filter?

A

10 PSI differential

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44
Q

The fuel feed manifold contains how many solenoid valves? Return manifold?

A

4

5, dump valve

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45
Q

How accurate is the mass flow sensor?

A

+- 10 lbs/hr

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46
Q

How many tanks can be jettisoned at a time?

A

1

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47
Q

How many fuel heaters are there?

A

2 (One on fuel feed, one on return feed)

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48
Q

How do the fuel heaters operate?

A

One element turns on below 10 degree C and off at above 13 degrees C.
The other turns on when below 5 degree C and off is above 8 degrees C for ten seconds.

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49
Q

When will the RCM turn on the fuel pump that is no in use?

A

If fuel feed pressure drops below 15 PSI

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50
Q

What will happen if both electric pumps fail?

A

Engine will run until the header tank is empty.

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51
Q

Do you have to be in manual mode to jettison fuel?

A

No, Auto or Manual works

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52
Q

When does the started become a generator?

A

Once ground idle speed is reached.

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53
Q

What does the GCU do?

A

Switches unit from started to generator.

Regulates output of the 28 VDC.

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54
Q

How many electrical buses are there?

A

2

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55
Q

Which bus provides power and what happens if it fails?

A

Bus 1.

Bus 2 batteries will provide power if Bus 1 fails, but components powered by Bus 1 will be lost.

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56
Q

How many batteries are there?

How are they broken up?

A 
6
2 sets of 3
Cannot be charged in-flight
25.2 VDC
Last 60 minutes at 55 amps
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57
Q

Do the PPDMs receive power from both Buses?

A

Yes

58
Q

What components are on PPDM 1?

A 
Pitot/Static port 1/2 heaters
IFF
Ku-Band ADT (Bus 1 only)
MTS (Bus 1 only)
Laser altimeter 3
59
Q

What components are on PPDM 2?

A

ARC-210
Pitot/Static port heater 3
SAR (Bus 1 only)
Laser altimeter 1/2

60
Q

What are the nosewheel steering numbers?

A

0-90% 0 to 7.2 degrees

90-100% 7.3 to 30 degrees

61
Q

The RCM will not allow the gear to be retracted below airspeed?

A

50 KIAS

62
Q

What are the major flight control components?

A

Ailerons, Ruddervator, Rudders, and Flaps

63
Q

How many flight control surfaces are there?

A

13, with 13 servos

64
Q

How are the flight controls actuated?

A

Electronically

65
Q

The aileron moves how many times as far up as the down moving aileron?

A

2.5 times

66
Q

Aileron numbers?

A

25 degrees up, 10 degrees down
30 degrees/second
At Max speed, ailerons will deflect 10 degrees up
2 on each wing

67
Q

Flap numbers?

A

45 degrees down, 10 degrees up
5 degrees/second
At Max speed, flaps will be deflected 10 degrees up
2 on each wing

68
Q

When can you manually control flaps?

A

A/S less than 121 KIAS
Gear is down, OR
Gear up and A/S Hold is off
If A/C reaches above 121 KIAS, pilot cannot manually control flaps until A/C slows to below 117 KIAS

69
Q

Ruddervator numbers?

A

25 degrees up and down
Neutral position is zero
35 degrees/second
Ruddervators move in the same direction to control pitch, and opposite directions to control yaw.

70
Q

Rudder numbers?

A

30 degrees L/R

55 degrees/second

71
Q

What systems does the autopilot system interact with?

A

Flight control system
Attitude and air data system
Engine control system

72
Q

What systems are controlled under autonomous flight?

A 
Navigation system
Transponder
Airborne datalink control system
AN/DAS-1
Video data system
SAR
73
Q

When is Cruise Mode on?

A

Any hold mode engaged
A/S over 110 KIAS
Stall Protect ON

74
Q

Max A/S hold settings?

A

200 KIAS
190 KIAS if only A/S hold is on
180 KIAS if A/S hold and altitude hold

75
Q

What will zeroing trims in flight do?

A

Commands 50 knots A/S hold

76
Q

What does Airspeed limit override do?

A

Prevents pilot from setting an airspeed hold value that would result in lower than 1.25 CL. Activated when A/S hold is on.

77
Q

When are you in Altitude Preference mode?

Speed Preference mode?

A

.7 or less CL

.8 or more CL

78
Q

Explain Speed Priority Override.

A

If CL of 1.1 is reached, pitch will change to capture CL 1.0 and pilot will receive a “Best Climb Speed Overide” message on the HUD.

79
Q

Explain Aileron Tip Stall.

A

Decambers wings when AOA is above 5 AOA, the max decamber is 8 degrees at 9 AOA.
Activated if cruise mode is OFF or stall protected is ON. Deactivated is cruise mode is ON AND stall protect OFF.

80
Q

Explain Stall Protect.

A

Prevents stall by limiting AOA.
Turned on/off by pilot, but is only effective below 120 KIAS.
Deflects ruddervators down at 7 AOA, disengages at less than 3 AOA.
Normally turned on at 2000 Ft AGL after takeoff

81
Q

Explain Rolld Limit Override.

A 
Activate if any of the following:
HDG Hold ON
Stall Protect ON
A/S Hold ON
LOS
82
Q

Explain Sideslip Protect.

A

Always enabled. Prevents stall

83
Q

How is the weight of the stores calculated?

A

Stores Control Computer

84
Q

What are the two types of preprogrammed flight modes?

A

Operational

Emergency

85
Q

What type of logic is used for preprogrammed missions?

A

Fly-to

86
Q

What is the maximum number of waypoints for an Ops Mission?

A

255

87
Q

What is the maximum number of waypoints for an emergency mission?

A

100

88
Q

If the aircraft is with in ___ NM of the emergency mission entry waypoint, it may be skipped.

A

5.3 NM

89
Q

What happens when the A/C loses link?

A

The A/C lays a point 2.5 NM away in the direction of the ILLH and sets up a 1.5NM radius loiter.

90
Q

What will the A/C do if it is operating at or below 200 Ft of the ILLA?

A

It will perform a 51-second HDG hold climb. Could result in an altitude overshoot of up to 2000 Ft

91
Q

What information is saved in the event of an RCM reset?

A 
Primary/Secondary Downlink/Uplink Freqs
ILLA/ILLH
20 Emergency mission waypoints
Stall Protection setting
A/C weight and config
IFF setting
Mag Var and GCS location
Inflight status
92
Q

How should SAS be turned off?

A

PRY

93
Q

What does Landing Configuration - Command turn off?

A

Preprogrammed
Stall Protect
All hold modes

94
Q

What are the components of the Aircraft Digital Control System (ADCS)?

A 
UARBs
Dedicated links
RCM
Fault tolerant hardware
Fault tolerant software
95
Q

What is the main function of the dual UARB network?

A

Connects RCM with the essential flight equipment

96
Q

What is on UARB A that is not on UARB B?

A

Both PPDMs and BJA 1

97
Q

When will the De-Ice system turn on pitot/static heat?

A

If de-ice is set to auto and OAT is less than or equal to 10 degrees C

98
Q

What is on the Alpha probe?

A

AOA sensor
Beta sensor
Yaw string
OAT

99
Q

What is the degradation rate of the INS?

A

.8 NM/HR

100
Q

Waypoints cannot be placed more than how many NM apart?

A

100NM

101
Q

The command screen becomes a _______ display if the SMS is displayed on the Left HDD.

A

Hybrid

102
Q

What are the two types of link for Ku-Band?

A

Command and Return

103
Q

What are the two types of link of C-Band?

A

Uplink and Downlink

104
Q

What equipment is used for Standard LOS?

A

RCM
Omni antenna
Directional antennas

105
Q

What is the uplink path inside the aircraft?

A

RCM selects TX/RX 1 or 2
Uplink is received from the GDT to the assigned antenna
RF Tray passes uplink to RX 1
RCM processes and distributes commands

106
Q

What is the downlink path inside the aircraft?

A

RCM builds telemetry and datastream and routes to both TXs
All components route telemetry to RCM
Video data is routed to RF Tray
RF Tray routes video to TX 1/2
Each TX routes downlink to RF mux tray
RF Tray sends downlink to respective antenna

107
Q

What are the azimuth and elevation ranges for the GDT directional antennas?

A

360

-15 - +95

108
Q

Horn Antenna Data

A

+-15 degrees centerline
10NM
+-5 azimuth

109
Q

Narrow Antenna Data

A

+- 5 degrees centerline
100 approx
+-1 azimuth

110
Q

Ku SATCOM will not be used if C-Band data is received within how many seconds?

A

.5

111
Q

SATCOM antenna Specs

A

360 degree
-10 - +85
2 degree cone

112
Q

What is the SPMA?

A

Central control and processing point on the aircraft

113
Q

What is the LMA?

A

Primary interface between the PSO and PPSL

114
Q

How is fuel drawn in AUTO mode?

A

2 x 300 second cycles of forward and wing tanks

1 x 100 sec cycle of forward and aft tank

115
Q

How do the fuel pumps operate on AUTO?

A

10 minute cycles with 5 seconds of overlap

116
Q

What is different about the Encryption Key Set 3?

A

It is hardcoded onto the aircraft

117
Q

Explain the Nose Camera

A 
DTV
30 degree FOV
Pilots view
electrically heated lens
Auto iris
118
Q

Nose lens heat of 60% or higher on the ground could do what?

A

Crack the lens

119
Q

Explain the IR Nose Camera.

A

36x27 FOV

30 seconds to cool down

120
Q

Where does the switching of AN/DAS-1 sensor cameras occur?

A

Within the turet

121
Q

How much ice must accumulate for the Ice Dectector warning to come on?

A

.02 inches

122
Q

How long will the Ice Dectector warning message stay on for after the ice has cleared?

A

60 seconds

123
Q

What equipment is used for Standard LOS?

A

RCM
Omni antenna
Directional antennas

124
Q

What is the uplink path inside the aircraft?

A

RCM selects TX/RX 1 or 2
Uplink is received from the GDT to the assigned antenna
RF Tray passes uplink to RX 1
RCM processes and distributes commands

125
Q

What is the downlink path inside the aircraft?

A

RCM builds telemetry and datastream and routes to both TXs
All components route telemetry to RCM
Video data is routed to RF Tray
RF Tray routes video to TX 1/2
Each TX routes downlink to RF mux tray
RF Tray sends downlink to respective antenna

126
Q

What are the azimuth and elevation ranges for the GDT directional antennas?

A

360

-15 - +95

127
Q

Horn Antenna Data

A

+-15 degrees centerline
10NM
+-5 azimuth

128
Q

Narrow Antenna Data

A

+- 5 degrees centerline
100 approx
+-1 azimuth

129
Q

Ku SATCOM will not be used if C-Band data is received within how many seconds?

A

.5

130
Q

SATCOM antenna Specs

A

360 degree
-10 - +85
2 degree cone

131
Q

What is the SPMA?

A

Central control and processing point on the aircraft

132
Q

What is the LMA?

A

Primary interface between the PSO and PPSL

133
Q

How is fuel drawn in AUTO mode?

A

2 x 300 second cycles of forward and wing tanks

1 x 100 sec cycle of forward and aft tank

134
Q

How do the fuel pumps operate on AUTO?

A

10 minute cycles with 5 seconds of overlap

135
Q

What is different about the Encryption Key Set 3?

A

It is hardcoded onto the aircraft

136
Q

Explain the Nose Camera

A 
DTV
30 degree FOV
Pilots view
electrically heated lens
Auto iris
137
Q

Nose lens heat of 60% or higher on the ground could do what?

A

Crack the lens

138
Q

Explain the IR Nose Camera.

A

36x27 FOV

30 seconds to cool down

139
Q

Where does the switching of AN/DAS-1 sensor cameras occur?

A

Within the turet

140
Q

How much ice must accumulate for the Ice Dectector warning to come on?

A

.02 inches

141
Q

How long will the Ice Dectector warning message stay on for after the ice has cleared?

A

60 seconds

Dash 1 (4 decks)

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