Section 1, Chapter 4 - Control Of Traffic Flashcards

1
Q

What is the rule regarding the control of a controlled flight by air traffic control units?

A

A controlled flight shall be under the control of only one air traffic control unit at any given time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does an ATC clearance authorize and what is it based on?

A

An ATC clearance authorizes an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an ATC unit. Clearances are based solely on known traffic conditions, which include:

  • Aircraft in the air and on the manoeuvring area over which control is being exercised.
  • Vehicular traffic or other obstructions not permanently installed on the manoeuvring area in use (SERA.8015(a) and SERA.8015(a)(1)).

Clearances are required for any flight, or portion of a flight, which is provided with an air traffic control service.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does a pilot request an ATC clearance and what should they do if the clearance is not satisfactory?

A
  • A pilot requests an ATC clearance by submitting a flight plan (SERA.8015(b)(1)).
  • The clearance can be issued directly to the aircraft or through an approved agency, such as another ATSU.
  • If the clearance is not satisfactory, the pilot shall inform ATC.
  • In such cases, controllers will issue an amended clearance if practicable (SERA.8015(b)(2)).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Do ATC clearances allow pilots to violate any regulations?

A

No, ATC clearances do not constitute authority to violate any regulations established by the DfT, CAA, or other appropriate authority. Controllers should not issue clearances that imply permission to breach regulations, especially in respect of the low flying rules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the requirements for data link communications used to facilitate clearance delivery?

A

When data link communications are used to facilitate clearance delivery:

  • Two-way voice communications between the pilot and the air traffic control unit providing the clearance should be available.
  • Unless specified in the MATS Part 2, voice read-back of data link messages is not required.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What must ATC clearances include according to SERA.8015(d)?

A

ATC Clearances Must Include (SERA.8015(d)):
Aircraft Identification:

  • As shown in the flight plan.

Clearance Limit:

  • The specified limit up to which the aircraft is authorized to proceed.

Route:

  • Where prescribed in MATS Part 2.

Levels of Flight:

  • For the entire route or part thereof and any changes of levels if required.

Note: The joining level assigned in an airborne joining clearance to enter controlled airspace is considered acceptable with respect to the level content of a clearance.

Necessary Instructions or Information:

  • Such as approach or departure maneuvers, communications, and the time of expiry of the clearance.

Note: The time of expiry of the clearance indicates when the clearance will be automatically cancelled if the flight has not commenced (GM1.SERA.8015(d)(5)).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a clearance limit and how is it specified?

A

A clearance limit is the point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance. It shall be specified by naming:

  • An aerodrome.
  • A reporting point.
  • A controlled or advisory airspace boundary.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When shall an aircraft be cleared for the entire route to the aerodrome of first intended landing?

A

An aircraft shall be cleared for the entire route to the aerodrome of first intended landing when:

  • It has planned to remain within controlled or advisory airspace throughout the flight.
  • There is reasonable assurance that prior coordination will be effected ahead of the passage of the aircraft.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the clearance limit for flights not remaining within controlled or advisory airspace throughout the flight?

A

The clearance limit for all other flights shall be the boundary of controlled or advisory airspace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What must be specified if the clearance for the levels covers only part of the route, and why?

A

If the clearance for the levels covers only part of the route, it is important to specify that part to enable the pilot to comply with radio failure procedures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What may the CAA issue concerning the clearance of inbound aircraft to certain aerodromes?

A

The CAA may issue special instructions concerning the clearance of inbound aircraft to certain aerodromes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the order and composition of conditional clearances according to SERA.8015(ec)?

A

Order and Composition of Conditional Clearances (SERA.8015(ec)):

Callsign:
* The callsign of the aircraft or vehicle being given the clearance.

Condition:
* The condition, e.g., “behind…”

Identification:
* Identification of the subject of the condition, e.g., aircraft, reporting point, level, etc.

Clearance:
* The clearance itself.

Reiteration:
* A brief reiteration of the condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is an example of a conditional clearance, and where can details on their use at aerodromes be found?

A

Example of a Conditional Clearance:
* “(Callsign), behind the landing (aircraft type), via (holding point), runway (designator) line up behind.”

Additional Details:
* The use of conditional clearances at aerodromes, especially concerning active runways, is detailed in Section 2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What should a controller do if unable to clear an aircraft according to the requested route, and what expression should not be used for re-clearances?

A

If unable to clear an aircraft according to the requested route, the controller shall explain the reason when issuing the clearance. The expression “cleared flight plan route” is not to be used for re-clearances (SERA.8015(d)(3)(ii)).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What must a controller do if a direct routing takes an aircraft outside the boundaries of controlled or advisory airspace?

A

If a direct routing takes an aircraft outside the lateral or vertical boundaries of controlled or advisory airspace, the controller must inform the pilot. The pilot will then decide whether to accept or decline the new route.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What should controllers say if traffic conditions do not permit clearance of a pilot’s requested change in route?

A

If traffic conditions do not permit clearance of a pilot’s requested change in route, controllers shall use the word “unable” in RTF phraseology (SERA.8015(ea)(2)).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What should a pilot do if their aircraft is unable to comply with RNAV requirements, and what actions must ATSUs take?

A

If an aircraft is unable to comply with RNAV requirements, the pilot must advise the ATSU on initial contact using the phrase “Negative RNAV.”

Aerodrome ATSUs must:

  • Advise the relevant ACC.
  • Add the phrase “Negative RNAV” to the end of estimate and coordination messages, unless automatic message transfer facilities exist.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the rules for allocating cruising levels to aircraft?

A

Allocation of Cruising Levels:
Requested Level:

  • Normally, the cruising level requested in the flight plan is to be allocated.
  • If the flight planned level is not available, the nearest appropriate vacant level is to be allocated.

Priority:

  • When two or more aircraft are at the same cruising level, the preceding aircraft shall normally have priority.
  • An aircraft at a cruising level shall normally have priority over other aircraft requesting that level.
  • Request Denial:
  • When traffic conditions do not permit clearance of a pilot’s requested change in level, controllers shall use the word “unable” in RTF phraseology and offer an alternative level (SERA.8015(ea)(2)).

FL195:

  • FL195 must not be allocated as a cruising level.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the rules for assigning cruising levels on ATS routes and in Class C airspace above FL195?

A

Rules for Assigning Cruising Levels:
ATS Routes:

  • Cruising levels normally assigned on ATS routes are contained in the UK AIP (ENR 3.2) section.
  • Other levels may be allocated according to MATS Part 2 (UK Reg (EU) No. 923/2012 SERA.5020(b)).

Class C Airspace Above FL195:

  • The table of cruising levels shall apply (UK Reg (EU) No. 923/2012 SERA.5020(b) and Appendix 3):
  • Westbound: FL200, FL220, FL240, FL260, FL280.
  • Eastbound: FL210, FL230, FL250, FL270.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the cruising levels at or above FL410 up to FL660 according to the semi-circular rule?

A

Cruising Levels at or Above FL410 up to FL660 (Semi-Circular Rule):
* Eastbound: FL410, FL450, FL490, etc.
* Westbound: FL430, FL470, FL510, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How are cruising levels assigned to IFR aircraft outside controlled airspace below FL195?

A

Cruising Levels Assignment Outside Controlled Airspace Below FL195:
Cruising levels shall be assigned according to the table of cruising levels (UK Reg (EU) No. 923/2012 SERA.5025(a) and Appendix 3). However, this is not required (ORS4 No. 1578):

  • At or below 3,000 ft amsl.
  • Above 3,000 ft amsl, when aircraft are operated:
    1. In conformity with levels allocated by an appropriate air traffic service unit.
    2. In accordance with instrument approach procedures notified by the CAA in relation to an aerodrome.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens when an amendment is made to an ATC clearance?

A

When an amendment is made to a clearance:

  • The new clearance shall be read in full to the pilot.
  • The new clearance automatically cancels any previous clearance.
  • If the original clearance included a restriction (e.g., “cross ABC FL150 or below”), the restriction is automatically canceled with the new clearance unless it is reiterated with the revised clearance.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What should a controller consider when issuing a clearance that amends the vertical profile of an aircraft on a SID?

A

When issuing a clearance that amends the vertical profile of an aircraft on a SID, a controller must:

  • Recognize that the new clearance automatically cancels the vertical profile of the SID.
  • If the profile contains a restriction providing vertical separation from conflicting traffic on another SID, reiterate the restriction (e.g., “climb now FL120 cross XYZ 5,000 feet or above”) unless separation is ensured by other means.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What must controllers do when issuing instructions that amend the SID route?

A

When issuing instructions that amend the SID route, controllers must confirm the level profile to be followed, e.g.:

  • “Fly heading 095, climb now FL80.”
  • “Route direct EFG, stop climb at altitude 5,000 feet.”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Who can instruct controllers to withhold a clearance, and where are the relevant procedures listed?

A

The Aerodrome Operator and certain other authorized persons can instruct controllers to withhold a clearance. The personnel authorized under civil aviation legislation and the procedures to be adopted when detaining aircraft are listed in unit instructions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What should a controller do if instructed to withhold take-off clearance?

A

If a controller is instructed to withhold take-off clearance, the controller should take reasonable steps to establish the authenticity and powers of the person giving the instruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When must a controller withhold clearance to take-off?

A

A controller must withhold clearance to take-off when it is known that an aircraft has been detained by a police or HM Customs officer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What steps should a controller take if they believe a planned flight is liable to endanger life or involve a breach of legislation?

A

If a controller believes a planned flight is liable to endanger life or involve a breach of legislation, they should:

  • Warn the pilot of the hazardous condition or apparent infringement and obtain an acknowledgment of the message.
  • In the case of an infringement of legislation, warn the pilot that if they take off, the facts will be reported to the appropriate authority.
  • If the pilot still requests take-off clearance after acknowledging the warning, advise the pilot, when traffic permits, that there are no traffic reasons to restrict take-off.
  • Record the warning and any comment made by the pilot in the ATC Watch Log.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is essential when pilots disregard warnings or when detained aircraft depart without clearance, and where can the recommended phraseology be found?

A

Clear and precise messages must be passed to the pilots concerned, and acknowledgments obtained. The recommended phraseology appears in CAP 413. Further transmissions may be necessary to ascertain the pilot’s intentions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What should ATC do if a pilot has not obtained prior permission to proceed to a destination aerodrome that requires it?

A

In no circumstances is either an ATC clearance or permission to take-off to be withheld solely because the pilot has not obtained prior permission to proceed to their destination aerodrome. This matter is between the pilot and the appropriate Aerodrome Operator and is normally of no concern to ATC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What should a controller do if an aerodrome abroad is closed, and can they withhold take-off clearance because of this?

A

If an aerodrome abroad is closed, the information is to be relayed by RTF to any aircraft in flight bound for that aerodrome. Action may be limited to aircraft which have departed less than 30 minutes after the message has been received. A controller has no authority to withhold take-off clearance because the intended destination is closed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How is pertinent air traffic data normally displayed and where can instructions and procedures for data display be found?

A

Pertinent air traffic data is normally displayed on flight progress strips. Instructions for marking handwritten strips appear in Appendix D. Procedures for data display methods are described in MATS Part 2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How are requests for clearances prioritized, and what happens when two or more flights of different categories request clearance?

A

Prioritization of Clearance Requests:

  • Requests for clearances are normally dealt with in the order received and issued according to the traffic situation.
  • Certain flights are given priority over others according to a categorization table.
  • When two or more flights of different categories request clearance, the flight with the highest category is dealt with first.
  • Flow control procedures are implemented and actioned by the Central Flow Management Unit, and a flow control priority is allocated automatically on receipt of a flight plan.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What should a pilot do upon receiving the estimated delay for an approach concerning fuel status?

A

Upon receiving the estimated delay for an approach, a pilot will determine whether they can continue to the aerodrome or divert to a suitable alternative aerodrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does a pilot’s declaration of “MINIMUM FUEL” indicate, and what is the final reserve fuel?

A

A pilot’s declaration of “MINIMUM FUEL” indicates that no further fuel diversion options are available, and the aircraft is committed to land at the nominated aerodrome with not less than ‘final reserve fuel’.

Final reserve fuel:

  • Typically 30 minutes of flight for turbine-powered aircraft.
  • Typically 45 minutes of flight for piston-powered aircraft.

(Note: “MINIMUM FUEL” RTF phraseology is not universally used by every aircraft operator and pilot.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Are controllers required to provide priority to aircraft that have declared “MINIMUM FUEL” or are becoming short of fuel?

A

No, controllers are not required to provide priority to pilots of aircraft that have declared “MINIMUM FUEL” or have indicated that they are becoming short of fuel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How should controllers respond to a pilot’s declaration of “MINIMUM FUEL”?

A

Controllers shall respond to a pilot’s declaration of “MINIMUM FUEL” by:

  • Confirming the estimated delay they can expect to receive expressed in minutes, or no delay, when the pilot is en-route to, is joining, or is established in an airborne hold.
  • Expressing the remaining track mileage from touchdown if the aircraft is being vectored to an approach (SERA.11012(a)).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What should controllers do at locations where EATs are not issued until the delay reaches a particular value?

A

At locations where EATs (Estimated Approach Times) are not issued until the delay reaches a particular value, controllers must provide a general indication of the delay, based on the best information available at that time (see ENR 1.9-4).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What should controllers do after providing the estimated delay or remaining track mileage to a pilot who has declared “MINIMUM FUEL”?

A

Controllers shall keep pilots informed of any increase in delay or increase in track mileage after the pilot’s initial declaration of “MINIMUM FUEL,” following which the controller can expect the pilot to declare an emergency. Once in possession of either the estimated delay or remaining track mileage, the pilot will determine whether they can continue to the aerodrome with or without declaring a fuel emergency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What RTF phraseology should pilots use to declare an emergency and what priority do controllers provide to such aircraft?

A

Pilots should use the RTF phraseology “MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY” or “MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY FUEL” to declare an emergency. Controllers shall provide these aircraft with flight priority category A (SERA.11012(b)).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What should controllers do if pilots allude to a medical emergency on board but do not formally declare an emergency or indicate serious illness?

A

Controllers should ask the pilots to confirm if they are declaring an emergency. If there is no formal declaration of an emergency, controllers are not required to give priority to the flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the flight priority categories, and what types of flights fall under each category?

A

Category A: Highest priority

  • Aircraft in emergency (e.g., engine fault, fuel shortage, seriously ill passenger)
  • Aircraft declaring a ‘Police Emergency’
  • Ambulance/Medical/Search and Rescue aircraft when safety of life is involved

Category B:

  • Search and Rescue or other humanitarian flights
  • Police flights under normal operational priority
  • Other flights authorized by the CAA, including Open Skies Flights

Category C:

  • Royal Flights
  • Flights carrying visiting Heads of State

Category D:

  • Flights carrying the Prime Minister, Chancellor of the Exchequer, Home Secretary, or Secretary of State for Foreign, Commonwealth and Development Affairs
  • Flights carrying visiting Heads of Government notified by the CAA

Category E:

  • HEMS/Search and Rescue positioning flights
  • Other flights authorized by the CAA, including flight check aircraft on time or weather-critical calibration flights

Normal Flights:

  • Flights with a filed flight plan conforming to normal routing procedures
  • Initial instrument flight tests conducted by the CAA Flight Examining Unit (RTF callsign “EXAM”)

Category Z: Lowest priority

  • Training, non-standard, and other flights

Note: Ambulance aircraft carry patients or casualties, whereas medical aircraft carry harvested organs, biological material, medical equipment, and/or medical personnel. Search and Rescue aircraft may operate as ambulance or medical aircraft.

43
Q

What is required for the notification of flights within controlled or advisory airspace and for flights passing between UK FIRs?

A

Flights within controlled or advisory airspace:

  • A current flight plan, estimate, and control information must be passed to the receiving ACC, sector, or unit in sufficient time for analysis before coordination.

Flights passing from one UK FIR to another (not in controlled or advisory airspace):

  • Details of flights that have passed an estimate for the FIR boundary or adjacent reporting point should be passed to the appropriate ACC whenever workload and communications permit.
44
Q

What information should be included in an estimate message for an intended flight?

A

An estimate message should contain the following information:

  • Direction of flight (eastbound or westbound)
  • Aircraft identification and type
  • Squawk
  • Transfer point and ETA
  • Level
  • True airspeed
  • Route
  • Destination and/or clearance limit
45
Q

When must revisions to an estimate message be passed, and where can the phraseology for telephoning estimate messages be found?

A

Revisions to an estimate message must be passed if:

  • There are any subsequent changes in Flight Level, Squawk, or route; or
  • The estimated time varies by more than 2 minutes (SERA.8020(b)(3)).

The phraseology for telephoning estimate messages is shown in Appendix E.

46
Q

How is the transfer of control achieved in air traffic services?

A

Transfer of control is achieved when a flight, operating according to the coordination, reaches the position or level agreed upon between the transferring and accepting units.

47
Q

When does the transfer of control normally take place in air traffic services?

A

Transfer of control normally takes place:

  • At an agreed reporting point
  • On an estimate for an FIR boundary
  • At or passing an agreed level
  • While the aircraft is climbing or descending to a previously agreed level, provided the transferring controller has ensured standard separation will exist between the transferred aircraft and all others for the remainder of the climb or descent.
48
Q

How does transfer of communication differ from transfer of control in air traffic services?

A

Transfer of communication should not be confused with transfer of control. Transfer of communication may be allowed so that instructions effective later can be issued. However, an accepting ATC unit in communication with an aircraft that has not yet reached the stage of transfer of control must not alter the clearance without the transferring unit’s approval.

49
Q

What is the Expected Approach Time (EAT) and what does it depend on?

A

The Expected Approach Time (EAT) is the time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding fix to complete its approach for a landing. The actual time of leaving the holding fix depends on the approach clearance.

50
Q

How are Expected Approach Times (EATs) calculated and communicated to aircraft?

A
  • Calculation: EATs are based on the landing rate and the traffic situation, and they are expressed as actual times, not time intervals.
  • Communication: EATs should be passed to aircraft well in advance and revised as necessary until the aircraft has left the holding facility.
51
Q

What procedures should be followed when the extent of a delay is not determined, and when should the expression “delay not determined” be used?

A
  • If the delay is not determined due to reasons other than weather (e.g., an obstruction on the runway), aircraft should be advised with “delay not determined.” EATs should be issued as soon as approach procedures can recommence.
  • The expression “delay not determined” should not be used when changing runways.
  • Delays should be forecast with reasonable accuracy, and EATs should be passed to aircraft.
52
Q

What is the responsibility of the controller at the aerodrome when an ATC clearance contains a Calculated Take Off Time (CTOT)?

A

When flow management is in force and an ATC clearance contains a CTOT, the controller at the aerodrome must arrange the traffic so that the aircraft departs within the tolerance specified in MATS Part 2, in compliance with UK Reg (EU) No. 255/2010, which details Common Rules on air traffic flow management.

53
Q

What should controllers communicate to aircraft electing to hold for weather improvement at the landing aerodrome?

A
  • The first aircraft entering the holding pattern should be informed: “no traffic delay expected.”
  • Subsequent aircraft should be informed: “delay not determined, (number) aircraft holding for weather improvement.”
54
Q

What are the general requirements and parameters for considering formations as a single unit for separation/deconfliction purposes in different airspace classes?

A

**Formations are considered a single unit for separation/deconfliction if they stay within the following parameters:
**
Class A/C/D and IFR in Class E Airspace:

  • Military Aircraft: 1 NM laterally and longitudinally, within 100 ft vertically of the formation leader.
  • Civilian Aircraft: 0.5 NM laterally and longitudinally, within 100 ft vertically of the formation leader.
  • All Aircraft: As agreed following prior tactical negotiation between appropriate civilian and military supervisors or as detailed in an Airspace Coordination Notice (ACN) specific to the formation flight.

Class F/G and VFR in Class E Airspace:

  • Military Aircraft: 1 NM laterally and longitudinally, within 100 ft vertically of the formation leader.
  • Civilian Aircraft: 0.5 NM laterally and longitudinally, within 100 ft vertically of the formation leader.
  • All Aircraft: Subject to tactical ATC approval, 3 NM laterally and longitudinally and/or up to 1,000 ft vertically, or as detailed in an ACN specific to the formation flight.
55
Q

What information should be included in the flight plans for formations, and what should formation leaders state when making initial contact with ATC?

A
  • The callsign of the formation leader and the number of aircraft in the formation should be included in flight plans.
  • When making initial contact with the ATC unit, formation leaders should clearly state the number of aircraft in the formation.
  • Controllers must ensure that this information is obtained before establishing an Air Traffic Service (ATS).
56
Q

How should units with SSR allocate codes to formation aircraft?

A
  • A discrete SSR code should be allocated to the lead aircraft.
  • All other aircraft should normally be instructed to squawk ‘standby’.
  • If the formation stream extends for 3 NM or more, the last aircraft should also be allocated the same code.
  • For longer streams, the code should be allocated to intermediate aircraft as appropriate.
57
Q

How should ATC instructions and clearances be addressed in formation flights, and what is the formation leader responsible for?

A
  • All ATC instructions and clearances should be addressed to the formation leader.
  • The formation leader is responsible for ensuring safe separation between aircraft in the formation.
  • For military aircraft, this responsibility is known as “Military Accepts Responsibility for Separation of Aircraft” or MARSA.
58
Q

What must controllers do during coordination, traffic information, and handover messages for formations?

A
  • Clearly state the number of aircraft in a formation.
  • Identify the full extent of any formation more than 1 NM in length.
59
Q

What are the requirements for civilian formation flights within controlled airspace (CTA/CTR/TMA)?

A
  • Civilian VFR transit, arrival, and departure formation flights may take place in CTA/CTR/TMA without NSF approval, subject to normal airspace entry requirements, general requirements and procedures, and additional controlled airspace procedures.
  • All other civilian formation flights within such airspace, including SVFR, require NSF approval as detailed in UK AIP ENR 1.1.4.
  • In considering NSF requests, unit operations departments or ATC Supervisors should assess the impact on the control task and airspace, considering current and forecast meteorological conditions.
60
Q

What are the requirements for formation flights by military aircraft in controlled airspace?

A

Formation flights by military aircraft may take place in controlled airspace without NSF approval, subject to:

  • Normal airspace entry requirements
  • General requirements and procedures
  • Additional controlled airspace procedures specified (next card)
61
Q

How should formations be considered regarding RVSM compliance?

A

Formations should be considered non-RVSM compliant, regardless of the RVSM status of the individual aircraft types.

62
Q

What is required of all aircraft in a formation regarding ATC frequency monitoring?

A

All aircraft in the formation must monitor the relevant ATC frequency.

63
Q

What must controllers do before a formation enters controlled airspace (CAS)?

A

Before a formation enters CAS, controllers must obtain confirmation on RT that all aircraft in the formation are within the parameters specified in paragraph 15A. If the formation leader reports that they are outside these parameters, controllers must instruct the formation to remain clear of controlled airspace and establish their intentions.

64
Q

What must controllers do after clearing a formation to climb or descend in controlled airspace (CAS)?

A
  • Controllers must obtain confirmation that all elements of the formation have vacated the level in question before re-allocating the previously assigned level.
  • Formation leaders should confirm when all formation elements have reached the new assigned level.
65
Q

What actions must be taken if formation elements are unable to maintain within the required parameters?

A
  • The formation leader must immediately inform ATC if formation elements are unable to maintain within the parameters specified in 15A.1.
  • Controllers must then establish the extent of the formation to provide appropriate instructions and/or information based on the airspace classification and flight rules.
  • If necessary, additional discrete SSR codes should be allocated to individual aircraft.
66
Q

What steps should be taken if an IFR formation is unable to maintain the required parameters?

A

The formation leader remains responsible for separation between aircraft in the formation until standard separation is achieved between individual aircraft and each aircraft is identified and placed under service.

Controllers must:
* Provide other IFR traffic with essential traffic information and instructions as necessary.
* If practicable, establish standard separation minima between all aircraft in the formation as soon as possible, using ATS surveillance systems if available. If normal separation minima cannot be established, the aircraft should be given as much separation from each other as possible and the formation should be directed to leave controlled airspace by the shortest possible route.

67
Q

Under what conditions may civilian controllers permit an IFR formation to join up in controlled airspace?

A
  • Civilian controllers may permit an IFR formation to join up in controlled airspace only when one of the aircraft is in emergency and a formation join up is essential.
  • Military controllers have specific procedures for formation join up in controlled airspace, considering the formation’s proximity to UARs and other airspace users.
68
Q

How are military formation flights within controlled airspace typically conducted, and what are the exceptions?

A
  • Normal Procedure: Military formation flights within controlled airspace are normally conducted as Operational Air Traffic (OAT).
  • Exception: There may be occasions when formation flights plan as General Air Traffic (GAT) and receive a service from civil controllers.
69
Q

What are the procedures for military aircraft in a formation when an emergency occurs?

A
  • An aircraft in an emergency that needs to break away from the formation must squawk the emergency special purpose code.
  • It is usual for another element of the formation to follow the emergency aircraft.
    1. The emergency aircraft will squawk the emergency code.
    2. If the accompanying aircraft is not already in close formation, it will squawk a discrete code until it joins formation with the emergency aircraft.
  • If the lead aircraft is in an emergency, the formation will advise ATC of the new leader, who must be identified and allocated a discrete squawk.
70
Q

What callsign procedures apply to UK military formations and how should ambiguity with foreign aircraft callsigns be addressed?

A
  • UK Military Formations: Standard UK military callsign procedures apply.
  • Foreign Aircraft: When working with USAF or foreign aircraft, use the suffix “flight” or “formation” to indicate that the call refers to a formation.

Examples:

  • “BLACKCAT” – denotes a UK formation.
  • “BLACKCAT 1” – denotes a UK single element.
  • “DEADLY 31 flight” – denotes a USAF formation.
  • “DEADLY 31” – denotes a USAF singleton.
71
Q

What is the Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS) and what types of equipment does it include?

A

Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS) is a generic term that captures all equipment that assists a pilot to avoid a Controlled Flight Into Terrain (CFIT) event, including but not limited to:

  • Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS)
  • Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System (EGPWS)
  • Ground Collision Avoidance System (GCAS)
72
Q

What are the specific requirements for the carriage of TAWS in turbine-powered aircraft engaged in CAT operations?

A

All turbine-powered aircraft engaged in Commercial Air Transport (CAT) operations with:
* A Maximum Certified Take-Off Mass (MCTOM) of more than 5,700 kg, or
* More than 9 passenger seats

are required to be fitted with a TAWS system.

73
Q

What action do pilots take when a TAWS warning is triggered and why might they delay informing ATC?

A
  • When a TAWS warning that requires the pilot to climb immediately is triggered (normally at or below 2,500 ft AGL with a 20-second warning of a CFIT event), pilots will prioritize manually operating their aircraft to respond to the warning.
  • As a result, informing ATC of their response to the TAWS warning may be delayed.
74
Q

How should controllers respond when a pilot receives a TAWS warning and begins to climb?

A
  • Controllers should not dissuade a pilot from climbing their aircraft upon receipt of a TAWS warning.
  • The controller should acknowledge the message and pass the appropriate pressure setting (QFE, QNH, or Regional Pressure Setting) for confirmation.
75
Q

What should controllers be aware of regarding TAWS warnings and ACAS RAs, and how should they respond to ACAS RA reports?

A
  • Controllers should be aware that when a TAWS warning instructs a pilot to climb, ACAS Resolution Advisories (RAs) are temporarily suppressed for the aircraft receiving the TAWS warning.
  • This suppression only affects the aircraft receiving the TAWS warning while the warning remains active.
  • Other aircraft in conflict that are suitably equipped and not receiving a TAWS warning may still receive an ACAS RA.
  • Controllers should respond to ACAS RA reports from other aircraft in accordance with section 1, chapter 10, paragraph 6.
76
Q

What should controllers do when providing traffic information to aircraft responding to a TAWS warning?

A
  • Essential traffic information and/or traffic information/traffic avoidance advice should be passed first to aircraft in conflict with the aircraft responding to a TAWS warning.
  • Then, essential traffic information and/or traffic information/traffic avoidance advice should be passed to the aircraft responding to the TAWS warning once its Mode C/Mode S altitude report is observed to be at or above the appropriate SMAC level.
  • Exceptionally, a controller may pass traffic information earlier if it is considered essential to mitigate an actual or perceived risk of collision.
77
Q

What is Non-Deviating Status (NDS) and what are the requirements for aircraft with this status?

A
  • Notification: CAA Airspace Regulation (AR) will notify ATC units in advance when a flight is allocated NDS. Queries should be addressed to AR. Details appear in Appendix H.
  • Operational Requirement: Aircraft (both military and civil) with NDS must maintain a specific track and level(s) or a particular route and level(s).
  • Controller Responsibility:
    1. NDS aircraft must not be moved from their pre-planned flight path to avoid rendering them operationally ineffective.
    2. If adequate separation cannot be maintained, controllers must seek coordination with the agency providing service to the NDS aircraft.
78
Q

What does Unusual Aerial Activity (UAA) include in its ATC context?

A

Unusual Aerial Activity (UAA) includes:

  • A concentration of aircraft that is significantly greater than normal.
  • Activities that may require the issue of a Permission or an Exemption from the ANO or RoA Regulations.
  • Air Shows, Displays, Air Races, or other competitions.
  • Activities which require the establishment of a temporary ATSU (Air Traffic Service Unit).
79
Q

What is the process for approval and clearance of Unusual Aerial Activity (UAA) within controlled airspace, and what are the controller’s responsibilities?

A
  • Approval and clearance for a UAA within controlled airspace rest with the relevant airspace controlling authority.
  • Controllers may become involved in arrangements for UAAs, which can take place in any class of airspace.
  • Many UAAs, whether in or outside controlled airspace, involve Airspace Regulation (AR) in coordination with the sponsor and other participants.
  • Notification of the event to the aviation community is required.
80
Q

What is essential for the coordination and notification of Unusual Aerial Activities (UAAs), and how are affected ATC units informed?

A
  • Early Warning: Early warning of all UAAs is essential for timely coordination and notification by Airspace Regulation (AR).
  • Notice Requirements and Responsibilities: These are described in the UK AIP and Aeronautical Information Circulars (AICs).
  • Notification to ATC Units:
    1. AR notifies affected ATC units of airspace reservations or temporary procedures through NOTAM and Airspace Coordination Notices.
    2. This initial dissemination may be supplemented by Temporary Operating Instructions or other locally produced briefing material.
81
Q

What are the responsibilities of Airspace Regulation (AR) in relation to Unusual Aerial Activities (UAAs) and other flight operations?

A

Airspace Regulation (AR) is responsible for:

  • Allocating GAT flight priorities.
  • Allocating Non-Deviating Status (NDS).
  • Coordinating Controlled Airspace Temporary (CAS-T) requirements.
  • Coordinating VVIP/special/calibration flights.
  • Coordinating air-to-air refuelling.
  • Coordinating military deployments and exercises.
82
Q

What are the regulations and considerations for balloon flights in controlled airspace?

A
  • Permission: Written permission from the CAA is required for flights by unmanned free balloons in controlled airspace notified for the purposes of Article 92(2) of the ANO 2016.
  • Compliance: Pilots of controlled balloon flights must comply with the same rules as other aircraft and are subject to normal clearances. Balloons can typically only comply with ATC instructions for changes in level.
  • Clearance: It is anticipated (but not mandatory) that clearance would be sought before take-off and rarely issued for flights in busy airspace. Balloon flights are not permitted in Class A airspace.
  • Weather Conditions: The minimum in-flight weather conditions by day are those required for VFR in the relevant class of airspace.
  • Controller Considerations: Controllers should consider the present and expected traffic situation when considering flight requests and should not hesitate to refuse clearance if other traffic might be compromised. It is unlikely that balloons will operate in wind speeds greater than 15 knots.
83
Q

What types of aircraft does the term ‘sailplane’ refer to, and what are the main types of lift used by sailplanes?

A

Sailplanes: The term ‘sailplane’ (often referred to as ‘glider’ for conventional sailplanes) includes:
* Conventional sailplanes
* Powered sailplanes
* Hang gliders
* Paragliders
* Other comparable craft

Types of Lift:
* Thermal Lift: Caused by a column of rising air.
* Ridge (Orographic) Lift: Caused by rising air on the windward side of a slope or ridge.
* Wave Lift: Caused by oscillations on the lee side of high ground due to the disturbance in the horizontal air flow caused by the high ground.

84
Q

Sailplane Flying Utilizing Thermal or Ridge Lift

A
  • Route Deviations: Up to 30° around a straight-line route.
  • Thermalling: Circling in thermals, typically over an area around 0.5 NM wide.
  • Surveillance Returns: Intermittent, may appear stationary or show downwind drift.
  • Paragliders/Hang Gliders: Fly with the prevailing wind, flights over four hours and 100 NM common.
  • Fixed-Wing Sailplanes: Long cross-country flights over 300 NM, speeds between 60 and 130 kt.
85
Q

Sailplane Flight Patterns and Airspace Requests

A
  • Flight Patterns: Alternates between straight-line flight and periods of gaining height.
  • Clearance Requests: Mostly from radio-equipped, conventional sailplanes.
  • Purpose: Cross country flying, crossing/transiting controlled airspace, or exploiting thermal lift.
  • Path Deviations: Likely to deviate by around 30° or 2 NM.
  • Altitude Changes: Significant variations expected.
  • Thermalling Requests: Specific location requests to ‘thermal’ in controlled airspace.
86
Q

Why can a sailplane’s heading and track differ markedly, and how do pilots navigate?

A

A sailplane’s heading and track can differ due to wind effects. Pilots navigate by track rather than heading due to the limitations of the magnetic compass, which is mainly useful for indicating cardinal direction.

87
Q

What must controllers consider when deciding on the compatibility of sailplane operations with prevailing traffic, and how should they manage sailplane flights?

A
  • Compatibility Decision: Controllers must decide if a sailplane operation is compatible with the prevailing traffic situation.
  • Lateral Constraints: Controllers may constrain sailplane flights laterally using features on the 1:500,000 Aeronautical Chart (e.g., instructing the pilot to route no further west than a specific town or maintain a set distance from an aerodrome).
  • Track Specification: Controllers may specify a particular track for the sailplane to follow.
  • Clearance Timing: If immediate clearance is not possible, the pilot must be advised when it is likely to be granted.
  • Identification Methods: When identifying a sailplane, controllers should avoid using ‘the turn method’ and instead use SSR or ADS-B where approved and if the aircraft is equipped.
88
Q

What are the typical height losses against track nautical miles flown for various types of gliders not influenced by thermals and topography?

A
  • Paraglider: 1,000 ft loss for every 1.5 NM
  • Hang glider: 1,000 ft loss for every 2 NM
  • Standard Class sailplane: 1,500 ft loss for every 10 NM
  • Open Class sailplane: 1,000 ft loss for every 10 NM
89
Q

Where can further details on handling sailplanes operating VFR in Class D airspace and their integration with other traffic be found?

A
  • Section 1, Chapter 5: Contains details on handling sailplanes operating VFR in Class D airspace and their integration with other VFR and IFR traffic.
  • Letters of Agreement: Information on Letters of Agreement between ATC units and other airspace users, including gliding operations, is provided in Section 1, Chapter 5.
  • TRAs: Details of sailplane operations in Temporary Reserved Airspaces (TRAs) are provided in Section 4.
  • CAP 413: Contains RTF phraseology and explanations of terms relating to sailplane operations.
90
Q

What is a Police flight and what purposes do they serve?

A

A Police flight is a flight by an aircraft operating under a Police Air Operator’s Certificate, which facilitates police operations where immediate and rapid transportation is essential. Purposes include:

  • Responding to a ‘Police Emergency’: Declared by the pilot when immediate response is required due to life being at immediate risk, or when a serious crime or major incident is in progress.
  • Supporting Ground Personnel: In sensitive and serious operations.
  • Non-Standard and Other Flights: To support various police operations.
91
Q

What are the flight categories for police flying operations and their associated callsigns?

A

Flight Category A:
* For aircraft declaring a “Police Emergency”.
* Callsign: “POLICE [XX or XXX] Alpha”.

Flight Category B:
* For normal operational priority.
* Controllers may suggest new altitude or minor changes to the operating area to avoid delays to other traffic.
* Callsign: “POLICE [XX or XXX]”.

Flight Category Z:
* For training, test, and other flights involving police aircraft.
* Callsign: “POLICE [XX or XXX] Zulu”.

92
Q

What are the three elements of a Police flight callsign and what do they indicate?

A

Radiotelephony Callsign:

  • The callsign begins with “POLICE”.
  • The ICAO three-letter telephony designator is “UKP”.

Aircraft Identifier:

  • A two-digit individual aircraft identifier.
  • Exceptionally, a three-digit identifier for units operating two or more aircraft, consisting of a two-digit root followed by single digits for each aircraft in a regional operation.

Flight Category Suffix:

  • Indicates the priority required by the pilot.
  • “Alpha”: Indicates a ‘Police Emergency’.
  • No Suffix: Indicates flight category ‘B’ (normal operational priority).
  • “Zulu”: Indicates training, testing, or other flights involving police aircraft.
93
Q

What SSR codes should Police aircraft select, and under what conditions might they use different codes?

A

Police aircraft should select either Mode A0032 or other SSR codes assigned to the Police and promulgated in the AIP. However, if they are receiving a service from an ATS Unit that requires a different setting, they should use the SSR code assigned according to that unit’s SSR allocation plan.

94
Q

What is a HEMS flight and what is its purpose?

A

A HEMS flight is a flight by a helicopter operating under a HEMS approval, aimed at facilitating emergency medical assistance where immediate and rapid transportation is essential. This includes carrying medical personnel, medical supplies, or ill or injured persons.

95
Q

What are the flight categories for HEMS operations and their associated callsigns?

A

Flight Category A:

  • For all HEMS flights on emergency operational tasks.
  • Callsign: “HELIMED [XX] Alpha”.

Flight Category E:

  • For aircraft positioning to conduct HEMS duties (e.g., returning to base after delivering a casualty to hospital).
  • Afforded priority over normal flights.
  • Callsign: “HELIMED [XX] Echo”.

Normal Flight Category:

  • Used when SAR aircraft do not require additional priority.
  • Callsign: “HELIMED [XX]”.

Flight Category Z:

  • For training, test, and other flights involving HEMS aircraft.
  • Callsign: “HELIMED [XX] Zulu”
96
Q

What are the three elements of a HEMS flight callsign and what do they indicate?

A

Radiotelephony Callsign:

  • The callsign begins with “HELIMED”.
  • The ICAO three-letter telephony designator is “HLE”.

Aircraft Identifier:

  • A two-digit individual aircraft identifier allocated to each HEMS aircraft by the CAA.

Flight Category Suffix:

  • Indicates the priority required by the pilot.
  • “Alpha”: Emergency operational tasks.
  • “Echo”: Positioning for HEMS duties.
  • “Zulu”: Training, test, and other flights.
  • No suffix indicates the normal flight category.
97
Q

What is the purpose of SAR flights and what do they typically involve?

A

SAR flights operate to and from incidents where a response is required for the safety of life. These flights might be time-critical and may involve the transportation of casualties to hospital.

98
Q

What callsigns are used for aircraft engaged in SAR activities, and under what circumstances might these callsigns change?

A
  • The callsign used for aircraft engaged in SAR activities is task dependent and can be either “COASTGUARD” or “BRITISH RESCUE”.
  • Re-tasking: Coastguard callsigns can be re-tasked by the Joint Rescue Coordination Centre (JRCC) and will adopt the callsign “British Rescue”.
  • HEMS Tasks: SAR helicopters may also undertake HEMS tasks and will use the callsign “British Rescue” in these instances.
99
Q

What procedures should be followed when a SAR aircraft’s callsign changes from ‘Coastguard’ to ‘British Rescue’, and how can the callsign be abbreviated?

A
  • Notification of Callsign Change: The ATSU providing the ATS to the aircraft at the time of re-tasking must inform the ATS unit at the departure aerodrome of the change in callsign from ‘Coastguard’ to ‘British Rescue’.
  • Abbreviation: The callsign “BRITISH RESCUE” may be abbreviated to “RESCUE” by an ATSU within the UK FIR when appropriate after initial contact.
100
Q

What are the flight categories for SAR operations and HEMS operations conducted in SAR aircraft, and their associated callsigns?

A

Flight Category A:

  • Applies to SAR or HEMS flights when the safety of life is involved.
  • Callsign: “BRITISH RESCUE [XXX] Alpha”.

Flight Category B:

  • Applies to SAR, HEMS, or humanitarian flights when priority is required.
  • Callsign: “BRITISH RESCUE [XXX] Bravo”.

Flight Category E:

  • Authorized for SAR aircraft carrying out a positioning flight following a SAR or HEMS task (e.g., returning to base after delivering a patient/casualty).
  • Callsign: “COASTGUARD [XXX] Echo”.

Normal Flight Category:

  • Used when SAR aircraft do not require additional priority.
  • Callsign: “COASTGUARD [XXX]”.

Flight Category Z:

  • Used for training and testing flights in SAR aircraft.
  • Callsign: “COASTGUARD [XXX] Zulu”.
101
Q

What elements make up the callsigns for SAR operations under “BRITISH RESCUE” and “COASTGUARD”?

A

BRITISH RESCUE Callsigns:

  • ICAO Three-Letter Telephony Designator: SRG
  • Aircraft Identifier: A three-digit individual aircraft identifier allocated by the JRCC
  • Suffix: The three-digit identifier will be suffixed with “Alpha” or “Bravo” to indicate the corresponding flight category

COASTGUARD Callsigns:

  • ICAO Three-Letter Telephony Designator: SRD
  • Aircraft Identifier: A three-digit individual aircraft identifier allocated by the JRCC
  • Suffix: The three-digit identifier may be suffixed with “Echo” or “Zulu” to indicate the corresponding flight category. The absence of a suffix indicates the normal flight category

Training and Testing Flights:

SAR aircraft engaged in training and testing will use the base allocated callsign, prefixed with “Coastguard”.

102
Q

What is a freezing order and how might it affect ATS providers and personnel?

A
  • Definition: A freezing order (previously known as a ‘Mareva injunction’) is a court order preventing a defendant from removing assets from the UK and the jurisdiction of the court.
  • Notification: ATS providers and their personnel may be notified of freezing orders imposed on specific aircraft.
  • Implication: While a freezing order is most likely to be served at the aerodrome where the aircraft is located, it is possible for an order to be notified to an ATS unit concerning an aircraft in flight.
103
Q

What steps should ATS providers take upon receipt of a freezing order related to an aircraft?

A
  • Establish Communication: Determine if they are in communication with the aircraft specified in the freezing order, which is likely to specify the aircraft registration rather than a callsign.
  • Inform the Pilot: If the aircraft is being provided with an ATS, the controller should inform the pilot with the following message:
  • “You are subject to a Court Order prohibiting your aircraft from leaving the United Kingdom, what are your intentions?”
  • Procedure Application: This procedure applies regardless of whether the aircraft is conducting an internal UK flight or an international flight.
104
Q

What actions should controllers take if an aircraft is subject to a freezing order, and what should ATS providers do to manage such situations?

A

Controller Actions:

  • Do not take any actions that would compromise flight safety.
  • Continue providing ATS as normal, even if the pilot continues their flight.
  • Note that freezing orders are relevant to international flights, but the aircraft could be flying legitimately on an internal flight within the UK.

ATS Provider Procedures:

  • Develop and promulgate local procedures for handling situations involving freezing orders.
  • Consider taking legal advice to ensure procedures are consistent with legal obligations related to the order.