Section 1, Chapter 2 - Flight Rules

Question 1

How is UK airspace divided in terms of Flight Information Regions (FIR) and Upper Flight Information Regions (UIR)?

Answer 1

UK airspace is divided into two Flight Information Regions. The airspace below FL245 is known as the Flight Information Region (FIR), and the airspace at and above FL245 is known as the Upper Flight Information Region (UIR).

Question 2

What determines the flight rules and minimum services provided within a FIR, and what are the classifications of airspace in the UK FIRs?

Answer 2

The classification of airspace within a FIR determines the flight rules and minimum services provided (SERA.6001). The classifications are:

• Class A: IFR only, ATC clearance required, ATC separates all aircraft.
• Class C: IFR and VFR, ATC clearance required, ATC separates IFR from all, VFR from IFR, and provides traffic info and avoidance advice to VFR.
• Class D: IFR and VFR, ATC clearance required, ATC separates IFR from IFR, provides traffic info to IFR and VFR, and gives traffic avoidance advice when requested.
• Class E: IFR and VFR, ATC clearance required for IFR only, ATC separates IFR from IFR, provides traffic info to IFR and VFR, and suggests traffic avoidance advice.
• Class G: IFR and VFR, no requirements or minimum services by ATC.
  (Note: Classes A, C, D, and E are controlled airspace; Class E may include Transponder Mandatory Zones (TMZ).)

Question 3

What is the primary objective of air traffic services, and what should a controller provide if necessary for safety?

Answer 3

The primary objective of air traffic services is to prevent collisions between aircraft. If necessary for safety, a controller should provide traffic information and, where appropriate, traffic avoidance advice.
Pilots are responsible for collision avoidance and should be aware of factors that might affect a controller’s ability to detect hazards and provide timely and accurate information and advice.

Question 4

What air traffic service requirements apply to flights at a common level in vertically adjoining volumes of airspace?

Answer 4

Flights at a common level in vertically adjoining volumes of airspace should comply with the requirements of, and be provided with, the air traffic services applicable to the less restrictive class of airspace

Question 5

How are aircraft operating at the lower limit of control areas or upper limit of control zones, adjoining vertically with Class G airspace, managed?

Answer 5

Aircraft operating at the lower limit of control areas (including TMAs) or the upper limit of control zones or control areas (including TMAs) are deemed to be operating outside controlled airspace. Pilots at these levels, in communication with an air traffic control unit, are provided with UK Flight Information Services in accordance with CAP 774. Controllers should include a wake turbulence caution when providing traffic information on controlled flights operating at the lowest available level, using phraseology from CAP 413, chapter 9, paragraph 9.2.

Question 6

What is considered an infringement of controlled airspace for flights operating without an ATC clearance, and what exceptions apply?

Answer 6

With the exception of VFR flights operating into or out of Class E airspace and complying with any applicable TMZ requirement, flights without an ATC clearance observed operating:

• Immediately above the lower limit of a control area (including a TMA)
• Immediately below the upper limit of a control zone or control area (including a TMA)

are considered an infringement of controlled airspace. The risks of infringing controlled airspace and encountering wake turbulence in Class G airspace at these limits are detailed in the UK AIP at ENR 1.

Question 7

What speed limit applies to aircraft flying below FL100, and why is it important?

Answer 7

Aircraft flying below FL100 are required to observe a speed limit of 250 kt IAS, with exceptions. This limit is essential for the ‘see and avoid’ principle when separation is not established by ATC, in addition to speed limits that may be notified for specific procedures.

Question 9

When must an airspace speed limit not be relaxed by ATC?

Answer 9

An airspace speed limit must not be relaxed by ATC for flights transiting from a known traffic environment, such as Class A airspace, into airspace where the ‘see and avoid’ principle is the primary means of separation.

Question 10

Why must controllers not authorize a relaxation of the airspace speed limit in Class E, F, and G airspace?

Answer 10

In Class E, F, and G airspace, conflicting traffic may not be known to ATC, requiring all flights to use the ‘see and avoid’ principle. To facilitate this, controllers shall not authorize a relaxation of the airspace speed limit. The 250 kt speed limit for VFR flights in Classes C, D, E, F, G and for IFR flights in Classes D, E, F, G ensures effective visual acquisition of flights which are not separate.

Question 11

Why are procedure speed limits published for specific ATC procedures, and what are some examples?

Answer 11

Procedure speed limits are published for specific ATC procedures to manage traffic safely and efficiently. Examples include:

• A 250 kt speed limit on published SID procedures to help provide initial separation between successive departing aircraft.
• A 250 kt speed limit on some STAR procedures to assist ATC in integrating traffic flows.
• Non-standard maximum holding speeds in some holding patterns for containment within controlled airspace or separation from adjacent routes or procedures.
• Non-standard maximum speeds on some instrument approach procedures for obstacle avoidance or controlled airspace containment

Question 12

When can procedure speed limits be relaxed by controllers, and what responsibilities do they assume?

Answer 12

Procedure speed limits can be relaxed by controllers when an aircraft is receiving an ATS surveillance service, except for instrument approach procedures. Controllers must exercise extreme caution, as they then become responsible for providing separation, controlled airspace containment, and obstacle clearance, which would otherwise be ensured by the procedure design.

Question 13

Who is responsible for determining if meteorological conditions permit flight under Visual Flight Rules (VFR), and what is used to make this determination?

Answer 13

The pilot of an aircraft is responsible for determining if the meteorological conditions permit flight under Visual Flight Rules (VFR).

Question 14

What are the VFR distance from cloud and visibility requirements by day for different classes of airspace?

Answer 14

At and Above FL100 (Class B, C, D, E, F, G airspace):
* Horizontal: 1500 m
* Vertical: 1,000 ft
* Visibility: 8 km

Below FL100 and above 3,000 ft AMSL, or above 1,000 ft above terrain (whichever is higher) (Class B, C, D, E, F, G airspace):
* Horizontal: 1500 m
* Vertical: 1,000 ft
* Visibility: 5 km

At and below 3,000 ft AMSL, or 1,000 ft above terrain (whichever is higher) (Class B, C, D, E airspace):
* Horizontal: 1500 m
* Vertical: 1,000 ft
* Visibility: 5 km

Alternatively, in Class D airspace:
For aircraft other than helicopters flying at 140 kts IAS or less:
* Clear of cloud, with the surface in sight, visibility 5 km

For helicopters flying at 140 kts IAS or less:
* Clear of cloud, with the surface in sight, visibility 1500 m

Class F and G airspace:
* Clear of cloud, with the surface in sight, visibility 5 km
* Alternatively, for aircraft including helicopters flying at 140 kts IAS or less: Clear of cloud, with the surface in sight, visibility 1500 m

Question 15

What are the VFR distance from cloud and visibility requirements by night for different classes of airspace?

Answer 15

At and Above FL100 (Class B, C, D, E, F, G airspace):
* Horizontal: 1500 m
* Vertical: 1,000 ft
* Visibility: 8 km

Below FL100 and above 3,000 ft AMSL, or above 1,000 ft above terrain (whichever is higher) (Class B, C, D, E, F, G airspace):
* Horizontal: 1500 m
* Vertical: 1,000 ft
* Visibility: 5 km

At and below 3,000 ft AMSL, or 1,000 ft above terrain (whichever is higher) (Class B, C, D, E airspace):
* Horizontal: 1500 m
* Vertical: 1,000 ft
* Maintain continuous sight of the surface
* Visibility: 5 km

Class F and G airspace:
* Clear of cloud and maintain continuous sight of the surface
* Visibility: 5 km

Question 16

What are the VMC minima for Class A airspace and for gliders crossing airspace in VMC by day?

Answer 16

VMC Minima for Class A Airspace:
* At or above FL100: 8 km flight visibility, 1500 m horizontally, and 1,000 ft vertically from cloud.
* Below FL100: 5 km flight visibility, 1500 m horizontally, and 1,000 ft vertically from cloud.

VMC Minima for Gliders Crossing Airspace in VMC by Day:
* At all levels: 8 km flight visibility, 1500 m horizontally, and 1,000 ft vertically from cloud.

Question 17

What permits VFR flight at night in the UK?

Answer 17

UK General Permission ORS4 No. 1477 permits VFR flight at night.

Question 18

What exemptions are provided by UK General Exemptions ORS4 No. 1576 and ORS4 No. 1577 for certain helicopter operations?

Answer 18

UK General Exemption ORS4 No. 1576:
Exempts helicopters conducting Police, HEMS, Search and Rescue (SAR) flights, including SAR training flights operating under a Letter of Agreement with the Air Traffic Service Provider, from complying with SERA.5005(b) and SERA.5010(b). It also exempts air traffic control units from complying with SERA.5005(b) and SERA.5010(c) when controlling such flights.

UK General Exemption ORS4 No. 1577:
Exempts helicopters conducting powerline, pipeline, and rail track inspection flights from complying with SERA.5005(b) and SERA.5010(b). It also exempts air traffic control units from complying with SERA.5005(b) and SERA.5010(c) when controlling such flights.

Question 19

What does UK General Permission ORS4 No. 1578 permit for aircraft in level cruising flight above 3,000 feet AMSL under VFR?

Answer 19

UK General Permission ORS4 No. 1578 permits an aircraft in level cruising flight above 3,000 feet above mean sea level (AMSL) and operated in accordance with the visual flight rules (VFR) to be flown at a level other than a cruising level appropriate to its magnetic track, as specified in the table of cruising levels in Appendix 3 of SERA

Question 20

When must a pilot fly according to Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)?

Answer 20

A pilot must fly according to IFR:

• If the airspace has been notified as Class A.
• If meteorological conditions preclude VFR flight or (within a Control Zone) Special VFR flight.

Question 21

What are the requirements for a pilot flying according to IFR within and outside controlled airspace?

Answer 21

Within Controlled Airspace (Classes A to E):
* File a flight plan and obtain a clearance before proceeding with the flight.
* Conduct the flight according to clearances and instructions from ATC.
* Maintain a listening watch on the appropriate radio frequencies.
* Report the position of the aircraft according to published procedures.

Outside Controlled Airspace (Class G):
Comply with the table of cruising levels (UK Reg (EU) No. 923/2012 SERA.5025(a) and Appendix 3) when in level flight above 3,000 ft AMSL, with the altimeter set to 1013.2 hPa and the cruising level selected according to the magnetic track, unless:
* Operating in conformity with levels allocated by an appropriate air traffic service unit.
* Operating in accordance with instrument approach procedures notified by the CAA in relation to an aerodrome.

Question 22

What are the cruising levels for different magnetic tracks according to IFR?

Answer 22

Cruising Levels:
* Magnetic Track Less than 180°: FL30, 50, 70, 90, etc., up to FL190.
* Magnetic Track At least 180° but less than 360°: FL40, 60, 80, 100, etc., up to FL180

Question 23

What are the requirements for aircraft flying within an Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ)?

Answer 23

Requirements for Aircraft Flying within an ATZ:
ATZ Classification: ATZ adopts the classification of the surrounding airspace and adheres to SERA and RoA Regulations, specific airspace conditions, and the level of ATS provided.

Aerodromes with an ATC Unit:

• All movements within the ATZ require permission from the ATC unit.
• Aircraft must comply with instructions given by RTF and maintain a listening watch.
• Non-radio aircraft with prior permission must comply with visual signals.

Aerodromes with AFIS or AGCS:

• Pilots must obtain information from the unit to conduct the flight safely within the zone and maintain a listening watch.
• Non-radio aircraft must comply with any conditions prescribed by the unit before the flight.

Question 24

What should controllers do if they need to ascertain a pilot’s intentions regarding routing around or transiting through an ATZ in Class G airspace?

Answer 24

Controllers should advise the pilot of the ATZ status and confirm the pilot’s intentions. They may also advise pilots to change to the published aerodrome RT frequency to either:

• Obtain ATZ crossing clearance from an ATC unit.
• Obtain information from an AFIS or AGCS unit.

Question 25

How can a pilot change from IFR flight to VFR flight, and what are the conditions and limitations?

Answer 25

A pilot can change from IFR flight to VFR flight by using the expression “cancelling my IFR flight.” ATC cannot invite or suggest this change (SERA.5015(c)).

Conditions and Limitations:
* Class A Airspace: Cancelling an IFR flight is not possible.
* Class E Airspace: Cancelling an IFR flight simultaneously cancels the provision of an Air Traffic Control Service. Refer to CAP 774 for types of UK FIS available in Class E airspace.

Question 26

What phrase should controllers use to acknowledge the cancellation of an IFR flight?

Answer 26

Controllers should acknowledge the cancellation of an IFR flight using the phrase “IFR flight cancelled at (time)”.

Question 27

What information should be given to pilots cancelling IFR plans?

Answer 27

Pilots cancelling IFR plans should be given any information indicating that IMC (Instrument Meteorological Conditions) may be encountered along the intended route.

Question 28

What must ATS units do upon receiving notification of an aircraft’s intention to change from IFR to VFR flight?

Answer 28

ATS units must inform subsequent ATS units of the IFR flight plan cancellation, as necessary, by automated means or otherwise.

Question 29

What conditions must be considered before issuing a Special VFR clearance?

Answer 29

Before issuing a Special VFR clearance, a controller must consider:

• The prevailing traffic conditions.
• The extent of the proposed flight.
• The availability of air-ground communications.

Special VFR flights should not hinder normal IFR flights.

Question 30

What should ATC do when meteorological conditions at aerodromes in Class D airspace fall below specified limits for Special VFR operations?

Answer 30

When meteorological conditions at aerodromes in Class D airspace fall below a ground visibility of 1500 m and/or a cloud ceiling of 600 ft, ATC should:

• Advise pilots intending to operate under Special VFR to or from such aerodromes.
• Request the pilot to specify the type of clearance required.

Question 31

Under what conditions should controllers not issue a Special VFR clearance, and what are the exceptions?

Answer 31

Controllers should not issue a Special VFR (SVFR) clearance to aircraft (except certain helicopters) for operations within a control zone, aerodrome traffic zone, or aerodrome traffic circuit when the official meteorological report indicates:

By day or night:
Aircraft other than helicopters:

• Ground visibility less than 1500 m.
• Cloud ceiling less than 600 ft.

Helicopters:

• Ground visibility less than 800 m.
• Cloud ceiling less than 600 ft.

Exceptions:
* Helicopters using callsigns for Police, Helimed, Rescue, Electricity, Grid, Powerline, or Pipeline operations.
* SAR training flights operating in accordance with MATS Part 2.
* Rail track inspection flights.

Question 32

When can ATC issue a Special VFR clearance for a flight crossing a control zone with reported ground visibility less than 1500 m?

Answer 32

ATC may issue a Special VFR clearance for a flight crossing the control zone (not intending to take off or land at an aerodrome within the control zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or aerodrome traffic circuit) when the flight visibility reported by the pilot is:

• Not less than 1500 m for aircraft other than helicopters.
• Not less than 800 m for helicopters.

Question 33

When determining if a Special VFR clearance can be issued, which value of reported ground visibility should be used?

Answer 33

When the reported ground visibility consists of two values, the lower of the two values should be used to determine if a Special VFR clearance can be issued.

Question 34

What should controllers be prepared to do if an aircraft flying along promulgated routes encounters deteriorating weather conditions?

Answer 34

Controllers should be prepared to provide an alternative route to enable the pilot to comply with the conditions of a Special VFR clearance if the aircraft encounters deteriorating weather conditions.

Question 35

What types of separation are required for Special VFR flights?

Answer 35

Standard separation must be applied between:

• IFR flights and Special VFR flights.
• Aircraft cleared for Special VFR flights (except where a reduction is authorized by the CAA).

Question 36

How is vertical separation typically achieved for Special VFR flights?

Answer 36

Aircraft on Special VFR flights are not normally given a specified level to fly. Instead, vertical separation from aircraft flying above is achieved by requiring the Special VFR flight to fly not above a specified level.

Question 37

What are the responsibilities of a pilot on a Special VFR flight?

Answer 37

A pilot on a Special VFR flight is responsible for:

• Complying with ATC instructions.
• Ensuring flight conditions enable remaining clear of cloud, determining the flight path with reference to the surface, and keeping clear of obstructions.
• Flying at an indicated airspeed of 140 kt or less to observe and avoid obstacles (SERA.5010(b)(3)).
• Flying within the limitations of their pilot’s licence.
• Complying with relevant SERA and RoA Regulations regarding low flying restrictions.
• Avoiding Aerodrome Traffic Zones unless prior permission for penetration has been obtained from the relevant ATC unit.

Question 38

What are the flight plan requirements for a Special VFR flight?

Answer 38

For a Special VFR flight, a full flight plan is not required. The pilot must provide brief details including the callsign, aircraft type, and their intentions.

A full flight plan is required if the pilot wishes their destination to be notified.

Question 39

What is the classification and boundary of airspace between FL195 and FL660 within the UK FIRs/UIRs, and what cruising level should not be allocated by controllers?

Answer 39

The airspace classification between FL195 and FL660 within the UK FIRs/UIRs is Class C, with the FIR/UIR boundary at FL245. Controllers shall not allocate FL195 as a cruising level to any aircraft under their control.

Question 40

What are the basic rules for use of Class C airspace, and what cruising levels apply above FL195?

Answer 40

Basic Rules for Class C Airspace:
* A flight plan must be filed. Abbreviated flight plans for civil aircraft are permissible as described in the UK AIP (ENR) section and MATS Part 1. For military aircraft, abbreviated flight plans are acceptable only when operating under the control of a military ATSU or Air Surveillance and Control System (ASACS) unit.
* An ATC clearance must be obtained to fly within Class C airspace.
* Radio contact must be maintained on the appropriate frequency.
* The flight must be conducted in accordance with ATC instructions.

Cruising Levels Above FL195:
* Westbound: Flight Levels 200, 220, and 240.
* Eastbound: Flight Levels 210 and 230.
* etc…

Question 41

What are the separation requirements and procedures for Class C airspace?

Answer 41

Class C Separation Requirements:
* Controllers shall provide separation between:
1. IFR flights.
2. IFR flights and VFR flights.
* For separation purposes, controllers must treat all flights as IFR until the flight rules are ascertained.

Unit Specific Procedures (detailed in MATS Part 2):
* The VFR status of aircraft must be established. Pilots will inform controllers when they wish to operate VFR and when VFR operations are complete.
* Military aircraft formations, in accordance with extant procedures, will remain responsible for separation within their formation (MARSA).

Question 42

What must controllers be aware of regarding pilot qualifications and procedures for VFR flights in Class C airspace?

Answer 42

Pilot Qualifications and Procedures for VFR Flights in Class C Airspace:
* Pilots of VFR flights in Class C airspace are not required to have an instrument rating.
* VFR aircraft will receive a Radar Control Service and must comply with ATC instructions.
* If weather conditions deteriorate unexpectedly, pilots who are not qualified or whose aircraft is not equipped to fly IFR will request an amended clearance to continue in VMC to their destination or an alternative aerodrome.

Question 43

What are the requirements for VFR flights above FL195 in Class C airspace?

Answer 43

Requirements for VFR Flights Above FL195 in Class C Airspace:
* First RTF Contact: The pilot must notify the VFR status of the flight.
* En-route VFR Flights Above FL195:
1. Not permitted unless accorded specific arrangements by the appropriate ATS authority.
2. VFR flights are only authorized:
* In TRAs (Temporary Reserved Areas).
* Outside of a TRA, by the responsible ATSU in accordance with procedures established and published in the UK AIP.
* Civil air traffic above FL285 is only permitted to operate VFR within airspace defined by an airspace reservation.

Question 44

What are the ATC procedures for Class C airspace above FL195?

Answer 44

ATC Procedures for Class C Airspace Above FL195:
* Adopt Same Procedures: Units will adopt the same procedures for coordination and application of service that apply above FL245.
* Off-Route Flights:
1. Civil controllers providing a service to off-route (ATS) flights must comply with off-route notification and coordination procedures defined in MATS Part 2.
2. Arrangements between civil and military ACC units to declare “off-route” status must be specified in the unit MATS Part 2.
* Radar Control Service: All aircraft, including those operating VFR, shall be provided with a Radar Control Service.
* Separation: Separation must be applied against aircraft operating IFR.

Question 45

What are the two categories of flight plans, and what do they entail?

Answer 45

Categories of Flight Plans:
Full Flight Plans:

• Require the information specified on Form CA48/RAF2919.

Abbreviated Flight Plans:

• Require limited information to obtain a clearance for a portion of the flight (e.g., flying in a control zone, crossing a control area).
• Can be filed either on the RTF (Radio Telephony) or by telephone prior to take-off.

Question 46

When will the destination aerodrome be advised of a flight?

Answer 46

The destination aerodrome will be advised of the flight only if the flight plan information covers the entire route of the flight.

Question 46

What is the requirement for filing an airborne flight plan?

Answer 46

An airborne flight plan may be filed provided that the pilot leaves sufficient time for the clearance to be issued before the aircraft reaches the boundary of controlled airspace, which is normally 10 minutes.

Question 46

Can a pilot file a flight plan for any flight?

Answer 46

Yes, a pilot may file a flight plan for any flight.

Question 46

When is a pilot required to file a flight plan according to UK Reg (EU) No. 923/2012 SERA.4001(b)?

Answer 46

A pilot is required to file a flight plan for:

• Any flight or portion thereof to be provided with an air traffic control service.
• Any IFR flight within advisory airspace.
• Any flight within or into areas, or along routes designated by the Authority, to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting, and search and rescue services.
• Any flight within or into areas, or along routes designated by the Authority, to facilitate coordination with military units or air traffic service units in adjacent States to avoid possible interception for identification.
• Any flight across international boundaries.

Note: For flight planning purposes in the UK, international borders are the international FIR boundaries.

• Any flight planned to operate at night, if leaving the vicinity of an aerodrome.

Question 47

When is a pilot advised to file a flight plan?

Answer 47

A pilot is advised to file a flight plan:

• If the flight involves flying over the sea more than 10 nm from the UK coast or flying over sparsely populated areas where SAR operations would be difficult.
• If the pilot intends to fly into an area where SAR operations are in progress. The flight plan should include the expected times of entering and leaving the area, and the details must be passed to the parent ACC. The ACC is to notify the JRCC concerned.

Question 48

What procedure must a pilot follow if they have filed a flight plan to a destination without an ATSU and not connected to the AFTN?

Answer 48

Procedure for a destination without an ATSU and not connected to the AFTN:
* Nominate a Responsible Person:
1. Inform the responsible person of the planned ETA.
2. If the aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA, the responsible person will notify the parent ATSU, which will initiate Alerting action.
* If No Responsible Person:
1. The pilot will contact the parent ATSU and request they act in the same capacity.
2. The pilot must inform the parent ATSU of their arrival within 30 minutes of the notified ETA, otherwise, Alerting action will be automatically initiated.

Question 49

What should be done with a flight plan that specifies a non-standard route at aerodromes where SIDs are designated?

Answer 49

Any filed flight plan that specifies a non-standard route at aerodromes where Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs) are designated should be referred back to the originator for correction.

Question 50

What is the repetitive flight plan scheme and its purpose?

Answer 50

The repetitive flight plan scheme is a more convenient method of filing flight plans for flights that operate regularly. Only one plan is filed, and the details are brought forward for each flight.

Question 51

What must be done regarding supplementary flight plan information when the operator or departure handling agency closes before ETA at destination plus one hour?

Answer 51

Procedures for Supplementary Flight Plan Information:
Operator or Departure Handling Agency Closes:

• They must advise the ATSU at the departure aerodrome of the number of persons on board.
• If there is no ATSU, they must file with the parent ACC the name and address of a person who has access to flight departure records.

ATSU Closes:

• If the ATSU at the departure aerodrome closes before ETA at destination plus one hour, the senior controller must forward the details contained in field 19 of the flight plan form to the parent ACC, including any changes to endurance or number of persons on board.

Question 52

What is “booking-out” and what is required of pilots who do not file a flight plan?

Answer 52

“Booking-out” is when pilots who do not file a flight plan, either full or abbreviated, inform the ATSU at the aerodrome of their departure. The ATSU records the departure, and no further action is required.

Question 53

What should be done with requests for exemptions from legislation and non-standard flights?

Answer 53

Handling Requests for Exemptions and Non-Standard Flights:
Exemptions from Legislation:
* All requests from operators for exemptions from the legislation for particular flights shall be referred to the CAA for authorization.

Non-Standard Flights:
* Requests for non-standard flights (e.g., photographic surveys above 1,500 ft agl) should be referred to the appropriate addressee as detailed in the UK AIP (ENR) section.

Question 54

What is an AIRPROX?

Answer 54

An AIRPROX is a situation where, in the opinion of a pilot or a controller, the distance between aircraft, along with their relative positions and speeds, have been such that the safety of the aircraft involved was or may have been compromised.

Question 55

What should a controller do if a pilot wishes to file an AIRPROX report by RTF?

Answer 55

If a pilot wishes to file an AIRPROX report by RTF, the controller should accept the relevant details whenever possible, especially for flights bound for a foreign destination. If the controller’s workload is too high, the pilot should be requested to file the details after landing.

Question 56

Who is responsible for taking follow-up action after an AIRPROX report is filed?

Answer 56

The senior controller is responsible for taking follow-up action after an AIRPROX report is filed.

Question 57

What information should a pilot include in an AIRPROX report filed by RTF?

Answer 57

An AIRPROX report filed by RTF should include:

• The words “AIRPROX Report” (controller should ask if omitted).
• Position at time of incident.
• Time of incident.
• Altitude/Flight Level (climbing, descending, or level flight).
• Heading.
• Brief details of the incident, including first sighting and miss distance.
• Weather conditions.

Question 58

What should the controller remind the pilot if they intend to file an AIRPROX report after landing?

Answer 58

The controller should remind the pilot that, to avoid any delay in its progression, the details of the AIRPROX report are required as soon as possible after landing.

Question 59

What must controllers avoid when discussing an AIRPROX report, and what can they tell pilots?

Answer 59

Controllers must not offer opinions as to cause or responsibility, either to pilots at the time or to operators or pilots subsequently. They may tell pilots that the incident will be investigated.

Question 60

What steps should be taken if the identity of the reported aircraft in an AIRPROX is not immediately apparent?

Answer 60

The identity of the reported aircraft should be established as soon as possible by any practical means. If the identity is not immediately apparent, the senior controller should be advised to commence search action.

Question 61

What actions should the senior controller take if the identity of an aircraft involved in an incident is unknown?

Answer 61

Actions by the Senior Controller:
Institute Search Action:

• Initiate search action if the identity of an aircraft involved in an incident or apparent infringement of legislation is unknown.

Examine Data and Consult Units:

• Examine data, consult other units, and use all means consistent with safety to identify the aircraft.

Track the Aircraft:

• Use ATS surveillance systems to track the aircraft until it has landed.
• Correlate the track and time with movement at the appropriate aerodrome.
• If necessary, transfer the aircraft’s position indication to another unit to continue tracking.

Question 62

What should controllers consider before authorizing a flight to continue at night with a navigation light failure?

Answer 62

Considerations Before Authorizing Flight with Navigation Light Failure:

Controlled Airspace:

• Permission should normally only be granted if the flight is to continue wholly within UK controlled airspace (Classes A-D).
• Flight outside the UK under these conditions may not be authorized unless permission to continue has been obtained from the adjacent controlling authority.

Outside Controlled Airspace:

• If the pilot intends to fly outside controlled airspace or within Class E airspace, they should be instructed to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.
• The selection of this aerodrome is the pilot’s responsibility, although they may request information to assist their decision-making.
• Under certain circumstances, the pilot may decide that the nearest suitable aerodrome is the original destination.

ANO Requirement:

• An aircraft must not depart from an aerodrome at night if there is a failure of any required light that cannot be immediately repaired or replaced.
• If in flight, the aircraft should land as soon as it can safely do so unless authorized by ATC to continue.

Question 63

Who is responsible for decisions regarding the serviceability of an aircraft for flight with unserviceable equipment?

Answer 63

The pilot in command is solely responsible for decisions regarding the serviceability of an aircraft for flight with unserviceable equipment.

Question 64

What steps should an ATSU take when a captive balloon breaks free?

Answer 64

When a captive balloon breaks free, the ATSU should immediately telephone the appropriate ACC with the following information:

• The type of balloon and whether it is carrying any person.
• The position of the balloon site.
• The direction and speed of drift.
• The last observed height.
• The length of cable attached to the balloon.
• The balloon operator’s name and telephone number.

ACC Action:
* The action taken at the ACC, including warning aircraft in flight, is described in MATS Part 2.

Question 65

What is a Radio Mandatory Zone (RMZ) and how is it operated?

Answer 65

A Radio Mandatory Zone (RMZ) is airspace of defined dimensions where the carriage and operation of suitable/appropriate radio equipment is mandatory (SERA.6005(a)). RMZ airspace is operated in accordance with the regulations pertaining to the background airspace classification.

Question 66

What are the communication requirements for flights operating in a Radio Mandatory Zone (RMZ)?

Answer 66

Flights operating in a RMZ designated by the CAA must:

• Establish two-way communication before entering the RMZ.
• Maintain a continuous air-ground voice communication watch on the appropriate communication channel.
• If unable to establish two-way radio communication with the designated ANSP, the pilot must remain outside the RMZ.

These requirements apply unless alternative provisions are prescribed for that particular airspace by the ANSP.

Question 67

What should pilots do if radio communications are not possible at aerodromes or operating sites within a Radio Mandatory Zone (RMZ)?

Answer 67

If radio communications are not possible at aerodromes or operating sites within a RMZ, pilots should:

• Seek to agree on letters of agreement with the ANSP describing alternative provisions for compliance.
• Establish two-way radio communications (where appropriate) at the earliest opportunity after take-off.

Question 68

What information must a pilot provide to establish two-way communication in a Radio Mandatory Zone (RMZ)?

Answer 68

To establish two-way communication in a RMZ, a pilot must provide the following information on the appropriate communications channel and receive acknowledgment from ATS:

• Callsign
• Type of aircraft
• Position
• Level
• Flight rules
• Intentions of the flight

Question 69

What must a pilot do to operate in an RMZ without the necessary radio equipment?

Answer 69

To operate in an RMZ without the necessary radio equipment, the pilot must:

• Operate in accordance with conditions promulgated for the specific RMZ.
• Or operate in accordance with agreed tactical arrangements with the ANSP.
• If unable to make such arrangements, the pilot must remain outside the RMZ, unless in an emergency.