Section 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the diaphragm?

A

Forms the floor of the thorax and the roof of the abdomen. At rest, the diaphragm is dome shaped. It consists of a tough sheet of inelastic tissue at its centre (central tendon) and a sheet of muscle that rises as a broad rim from all around the lower portion of the inside of the rib cage and extends upwards to the edges of the central tendon.

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2
Q

What is the abdominal wall?

A

Provides a casing for the lower half of the torso; consists of two large sheets of connective tissue and several large muscles.

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3
Q

Name what controls respiration and differentiate tidal breathing, sustained tone, and speech.

A

The CNS and PNS control respiration.
Tidal breathing is the amount you typically breath in and out at rest (looks like a smooth wave). Sustained tone is what occurs when you are holding a sound, resulting in a sharp quick inhale with sustained exhale alone with phonation. Speech results in sharp quick inhales with extended bumpy exhales, sort of like a staircase.

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4
Q

Define vital capacity and tidal volume.

A

VC: The maximum amount you can breathe in and out. Depending on the size of your rib cage, this is usually 3.5-5 litres of air.
TV: the amount you typically breathe in and out at rest.

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5
Q

Define inspiratory and expiratory reserve volume.

A

IRV: the amount you can inspire if needed, beyond your end-inspiratory tidal volume.
ERV: the amount of air you can expire from your lunch after your end-expiratory lung volume in tidal breathing.

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6
Q

Describe what happens on inspiration, including muscles involved.

A
  1. External intercostals actively contract, pulling the ribcage upwards.
  2. Diaphagm actively flattens to accommodate expansion of the lungs.
    Note that your abdominal muscles are always on during inspiration and exhalation.
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7
Q

Describe what happens on exhalation, including muscles involved.

A
  1. External intercostals passively recoil.
  2. Diagphragm massively returns to rest position
  3. Lungs passively recoil.
    For active exhalation, the internal intercostals may be involved as they pull the ribs downwards to squeeze out air from your ERV. The abdominal muscles may also engage.
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8
Q

Describe breathing during speech.

A

Speech breathing has a short inspiration with a longer expiration with many fine adjustments made during the exhalation. We speak in the middle of our lung volume. Exhalation during speech is often an active process, requiring involvement from internal intercostals and abdominal muscles.

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9
Q

What is included in the articulatory system?

A

Includes the lips, teeth, alveolar ridge, hard palate, soft palate, velum and nasal cavity, tongue, and jaw; these structures (articulators) are used to shape the source signal generated at the glottis in order to generate speech.

Articulators can be active, passive, or both (i.e velum is active when producing nasals, but passive when approximated by the tongue, as in /k/ production)

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10
Q

What is included in the phonatory system?

A

Includes the larynx and vocal folds. In the source-filter model, the phonatory system is involved in generating the source signal from which speech is derived. The source signal will have its own fundamental frequency (f0) and will generate harmonics (multiples of the f0).

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11
Q

What two conditions need be met for vocal folds to be set in motion?

A

Vocal folds sufficiently approximated.

There is sufficient subglottal pressure.

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12
Q

How are vocal tract resonances created?

A

Vocal tract resonances will be created, corresponding to formant frequencies, which are properties of the filter.

F1 = Mostly determined by tongue height - vertical plane
F2 = Mostly determined by tongue “backness” - horizontal plane
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13
Q

What is included in the resonatory system?

A

Also referred to as the vocal tract; includes the “throat” (area above and around the larynx), oral cavity, and nasal cavity. This is the area through which the source signal generated by the phonatory system travels and is filtered (in conjunction with the articulatory system) due, in part, to resonance frequencies and damping characteristics of the tract/system.

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14
Q

What is the larynx?

A

The larynx, commonly called the voice box or glottis, is the passageway for air between the pharynx above and the trachea below.

It extends from the fourth to the sixth vertebral levels. It is formed by cartilages that are connected to each other by muscles and ligaments.

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15
Q

Describe the skeletal framework of the larynx.

A
Hyoid bone: Considered “free-floating” (not attached to any other bone)
Thyroid cartilage: Anterior prominence/ notch = Adam’s apple. Largest component; provides protection to other laryngeal structures
Cricoid cartilage: Ring-like structure located above trachea. The cricoid is the only complete cartilaginous ring of the airway.
Arytenoid cartilages (2): Sit atop the cricoid cartilage
Corniculate cartilages (2): The corniculate and cuneiform cartilages have fibrous attachments to the arytenoids and are located on top of and anterior to the arytenoid cartilage, respectively. The true function of these structures is unknown, but they increase and stiffen the aryepiglottic fold and may therefore aid in prevention of aspiration during swallowing. 
Epiglottis: A single cartilage positioned behind hyoid bone and root of the tongue. Lingual surface attaches to hyoid bone; the lower part attaches to the inner part of the thyroid cartilage just below the thyroid notch.
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16
Q

What is the pharynx?

A

The pharynx, commonly called the throat, is a passageway that extends from the base of the skull to the level of the sixth cervical vertebra.

Inferiorly, it opens into the larynx and esophagus. The pharynx is divided into three regions according to location: the nasopharynx,
the oropharynx, and the laryngopharynx (hypopharynx).

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17
Q

Name the intrinsic laryngeal muscles, their action, and their effect.

A

Cricothyroid: (A) pulls thyroid forward and downward when contracting (stretching vocal ligament). (E) Increases vocal pitch.
Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle: (A) rocks arytenoid away from midline to open VF. (E) moves VF out of the airway, stopping sound via abduction of VF.
Lateral cricoarytenoid: 9A) rocks arytenoid towards midline and backwards to close VF. (E) Adducts VF into the airway; voicing posture.
Transverse arytenoid: (A) pulls arytenoid cartilages together. (E) adducts VF.
Oblique arytenoid: (A) pulls cartilages together in a tipping motion. (E) adducts VF.
Thyroarytenoid: (A) causes arytenoids to pull towards thyroid and towards the midline, relaxes and shortens VF (agnostic to criocothyroid). (E) Makes up VF.

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18
Q

Name the extrinsic laryngeal muscles, their function, and their innervation.

A

Thyrohyoid: contraction decreases the distanced between the thyroid cartilage and the hyoid. (I) Cervical spinal nerves.
Sternothyroid: pulls the thyroid cartilage downwards and may enlarge the pharynx. (I) cervical spinal nerves.
Inferior pharyngeal constrictor: moves the sidewall of the lower pharynx inwards and decreases size of pharyngeal lumen. Stabilizes position of the laryngeal housing. (I) CN X (Vagus)

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19
Q

Name the intrinsic muscles of the tongue and their function.

A

I & S longitudinal muscles: moves tip up and down, can shorten tongue.
Transverse: narrows and lengthens tongue
Vertical: flattens and depresses the tongue.

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20
Q

What innervated the intrinsic tongue muscles?

A

CN XII (Hypoglossal)

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21
Q

Name the extrinsic tongue muscles and their functions.

A

Genioglossus: forms bulk of the tongue, sticks tongue out, presses against teeth/alveolar ridge, pulls tongue tip back, troughs the tongue.
Styloglossus: pulls tongue up and back.
Hyoglossus: retracts and depresses, elevates hyoid.
Palatoglossus: pulls tongue back to groove the tongue.

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22
Q

What muscles make up the vocal folds and cords?

A

Folds: exterior part made up of external and internal thyroarytenoid muscles and the vocal ligament
Vocal cord: interior thyroarytenoid and vocal ligament.

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23
Q

Where do the vocal folds attach to?

A

Anterior: inner surface of the thyroid.
Posterior: Arytenoids.

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24
Q

Name the five layers of the vocal folds.

A

Cover: (1) epithelium & (2) superficial lamina propria (SLP)
Transition: (3) intermediate lamina propria (ILP) & (4) deep lamina propria (DLP)
Body: (5) vocalist/thyroarytenoid.

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25
Q

Describe the myoelstic aerodynamic theory.

A

Vocal folds move towards the midline
Subglottal air pressure builds and blows VF apart
Muscle recoil (elasticity) and Bernoulli Effect (increase in velocity decreases pressure between the VF and sucks them back together again) creates vibration

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26
Q

Name and describe the parts that make up the outer ear.

A

Auricle (pinna): a flap of thin elastic cartilage covered by skin which is continuous with the cartilage of the external auditory meatus; role = sound localization and amplification

Concha (the bowl at the entrance to the ear canal) - has a resonating frequency of 4.5 kHz and amplifies this frequency by 10-15 dB

External Auditory Meatus aka EAM (Ear canal)

Outer part of tympanic membrane (eardrum)

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27
Q

Name and describe the parts that make up the middle ear.

A

Tympanic membrane: concave oval cone-like disc, that appears pearly gray in colour and translucent. The apex lies at the umbo which corresponds to the bottom end of the malleus handle

Umbo - area of slightly rounded elevation where malleus attaches to TM (point of maximal convexity/greatest retraction)

Ossicles:
Malleus = largest and most lateral and attached to the eardrum and the incus
Incus = middle bone
Stapes = attaches to the oval window of the cochlea by ligament

Stapedial muscle: attaches to the neck of the stapes; contracts bilaterally to loud sound and tenses the membrane in the oval window. This reduces some of the signal passed onto the cochlea (acts as a protective mechanism for loud, startling sounds)

Tensor tympani: inserts into the manubrium of the malleus and contracts bilaterally to non-auditory stimulation ( i.e., touching the ear canal or introducing air into the ear canal)

Eustachian tube: This mucous lined tube is about 25 mm long and provides communication of the middle ear cavity with the nasopharynx (above and behind the soft palate) and permits equalization on both sides of the TM. It’s usually closed → opens when a mismatch in air pressure is detected between the middle ear cavity and ear canal.

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28
Q

What is the general function of the inner ear?

A

Overall function: transduction of mechanical energy to electrical.

Cochlea (hearing)

Vestibular system (balance)

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29
Q

What functions do the outer and middle ear serve.

A

Transformation of sound into mechanical energy.
Outer ear: Sound waves reach the outer ear and are localized and amplified by the pinna and EAM. Sound reaches the external part of the tympanic membrane at the end of the EAM.
Middle ear: The eardrum is the first movable link in the chain of auditory events. Acoustic pressure waves, which hit the eardrum, cause it to vibrate, reproducing the same spectrum of sounds that enter the eardrum. Sound pressure changes at the TM cause it to move.

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30
Q

Name and describe the functions and parts of the inner ear.

A

Fluid-filled series of canals called the “labyrinth”.

The outer duct is called the bony (osseous) labyrinth (spaces/cavities) because walls are made from temporal bone.
It is divided into three sections:
the vestibule
the semicircular canals
the cochlea.
Within the bony labyrinth is a membranous labyrinth.
It is also divided into three parts:
the semicircular ducts;
two saclike structures, the saccule and utricle, located in the vestibule
the cochlear duct ( the only part of the inner ear involved in hearing).

The entire inner ear is bathed in a cushioning fluid, called the endolymph when it lies within the membranous labyrinth and the perilymph when it separates the bony and membranous labyrinths.

The cochlea is a spiral chamber that resembles a shell of a snail (~ 35mm long tube). It is subdivided into 3 chambers (upper, middle and lower). The scala vestibuli is the superior duct that begins at the oval window and extends to the apex of the cochlea. The inferior duct, called the scala tympani, begins at the apex and ends at the round window.

The organ of Corti, a sensory mechanism of hearing, is located in the scala media and rests on the basilar membrane. It is the site of sensory transduction, containing the sensory cells responsible for transducing mechanical motion into electrical (neuronal) activity, and nerve fibres which transmit the electrical activity to the brain where it is perceived as auditory signals. It is the beginning of tonotopic organization within the auditory system (the frequency of a sound is coded or mapped to a place on the basilar membrane) and each hair cell has a characteristic frequency.

Two types of sensory cells:
1 row of inner hair (3500) cells lined up side by side along the length of the organ of Corti
3-5 rows of outer hair cells (12,000). The OHC have hairs (modified microvilli) that project into the tectorial membrane which form a W pattern

Hair cells synapse with nerve fibres which form the cochlear nerve (branch of CNVIII)

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31
Q

How does the cochlear work (physiology)?

A

The stapes pushes in the oval window which moves the fluid in the scala vestibuli (aka vestibular duct) and scala tympani (aka tympanic duct). The motion is referred to as a travelling wave.

The wave travels the length of the cochlea, growing in strength until it reaches a place of maximum displacement. At this point, hair cells embedded in the tectorial membrane experience a shearing force and begin to bend

This causes a release of a neurotransmitter from the base of the hair cells that stimulates the nerve ending of the cochlear branch of the VIII nerve, causing an action potential which travels up the auditory pathway.

The direction of the travelling wave is from the base (high frequencies) to the apex

Low tones cause a vibration of the basilar membrane in the apex where the membrane is the widest but the cochlea is the narrowest (i.e in the center)

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32
Q

Describe the ascending auditory pathway.

A

Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII CN) - enters brainstem where its fibres bifurcate to synapses in the ventral and dorsal cochlear nuclei (cranial nerve nuclei)
Some fibres decussate (cross over) the midline and synapse in the superior olivary complex ( first site of binaural representation from ipsilateral and contralateral input from CN,
Role: localization through information on time and intensity) on the opposite side.
Information travels to the nucleus of the lateral lemniscus
Inferior colliculus AKA IC (relay station). The two IC are connected by fibres to allow crossover from both sides of the brainstem
From the IC, pathway travels ipsilaterally and contralaterally, then continues to the medial geniculate body (MGB)
The MGB is located in the thalamus and is the last subcortical relay station for auditory impulses. It:
maintains and directs auditory attention (dorsal MGB)
tells the brain to pay attention to what is going on (medial MGB)
integrates information about the source, location, frequency and intensity of sound (ventral MGB)
After the MGB, the central auditory tract fans out into multiple small fibres (auditory radiations) which run from MGB to the auditory cortex

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33
Q

Describe the primary auditory cortex.

A

Located in the temporal lobes on both sides of the cortex in an area called superior temporal gyrus (Heschl’s gyrus)
The tonotopic organization continues in the cortex
Information is finally processed at this level
Loudness perception and pitch are controlled at the brainstem, but higher-level behaviours (understanding speech and processing complex signals) is at the auditory cortex
Speech is primarily processed in the LEFT Auditory Cortex.
This means speech information from the right AC (information from left cochlea) crosses to the left AC, via the corpus callosum to be processed by the brain.

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34
Q

Discuss the basic embryology and development of the auditory system.

A

The outer, middle and inner ears develop from different embryological tissue, and therefore one can have an abnormality in one part of the ear and not the other (usually abnormalities of the outer and middle ear are seen in combination with a normal inner ear)
Outer and middle ear development starts around 3 weeks gestation; the pinna develops between 5th and 18th-week gestation, the tympanic membrane is formed by 4 months gestation, and the middle ear ossicles (adult size at birth) are correctly positioned/ formed by the 8th month (This means that most babies can “hear” in utero by 8 months gestation)

The eustachian tubes are more horizontal in babies/young children, which often results in poor drainage; this is the reason young children are so susceptible to ear infections (as are individuals with Down Syndrome) due to fluid build up

The brainstem and auditory cortex are not mature at birth;
Brainstem response is adult-like by 18-24 months
Auditory cortex is ½ the thickness at birth; development continues until age 2-3

Undetected hearing loss stunts auditory cortex development

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35
Q

What are neurons?

A

Cells specialized to transport information throughout the body.
Consist of a cell body (soma) with one axon (projecting segment), and one or more dendrite(s) (receptor segments).

Grey matter; primary found on the outside of the brain and in the middle of the spinal cord (for protection)

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36
Q

What are glial cells?

A

Surround neurons and provide support for and insulation between them, which increases the speed at which impulses travel through the neural system.
Support neuronal function by regulating the environment of the nervous system and providing protection against harmful agents.

White matter; on the inside of the brain and the outside of the spinal cord.

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37
Q

What is the diancephlon?

A

Refers to 4 structures together: Thalamus (Relay station for all sensory and motor tracts, except olfaction; seems to regulate cortical activity for alertness), Subthalamic nucleus (STN -Tiny nucleus that sits under the thalamus; part of basal ganglia circuits or motor and cognitive functions), Hypothalamus (Controls the autonomic nervous system - heart rate, digestion, respiration, stress response, blood pressure, temperature regulation, fluid balance in the body), and the Epithalamus (Contains the pineal gland which secretes melatonin - involved in sleep/wake cycles).

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38
Q

Describe the limbic system.

A

The part of the brain involved in our behavioural and emotional responses, especially when it comes to behaviours we need for survival: feeding, reproduction and caring for our young, and fight or flight responses. Includes the hippocampus, the amygdala, and the hypothalamus.

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39
Q

What is the amygdala?

A

A roughly almond-shaped mass of gray matter inside each cerebral hemisphere, involved with the experiencing of emotions and drives.

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40
Q

Name the four different lobes of the brain and their main function

A

Frontal: Higher order reasoning, planning, organization, inhibitory control, focusing attention, executive functions, decision making, motor control (mainly motor functions and higher-level functions)
Occipital: Vision
Temporal: Auditory, comprehension of language, some parts of taste, memory
Pariatal: Somatosensory (touch, pressure, etc.)

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41
Q

Name the four primary cortex of the brain.

A

Primary motor
Primary somatosensory
Primary auditory
Primary visual

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42
Q

What is the function of the temporal gyri (Superior, middle and inferior)?

A

Processing eye movements, analysis of visual social information, semantic memory processing, language processes, visual perception, and integrating information from different senses

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43
Q

Differentiate Broca’s and wernicke’s area.

A

Brocas: expressive language; Production of speech and written language.
Wernickes: Receptive language; Language comprehension, creates plans for meaningful speech.

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44
Q

What is the function of the prefrontal cortex?

A

Executive functions; Attention, planning, impulse control, making predictions, cognitive flexibility

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45
Q

What are the functions of the association cortex?

A

Coordinates brain functions that require more than basic primary sensory or motor functions.
Can include language, attention, memory, visuospatial functions, mathematical functions, social cognition, reasoning, problem-solving, personality, critical thinking.
Main purpose = Appropriate use of muscles (QUALITY; planning, sequencing) in context

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46
Q

Describe the ‘what’ pathway.

A

Runs from the primary occipital lobe in the occipital cortex to the temporal lobe. Supports object identification – Images will start in the visual cortex, then move to the association cortex

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47
Q

Describe the ‘where’ pathway.

A

Runs from the primary occipital lobe in the occipital cortex to the parietal lobe. Supports navigating space and understanding where you are in space

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48
Q

Describe the function of the brainstem.

A

Corridor for all major sensory, motor, cerebellar and cranial nerve pathways
Location of cranial nerve nuclei
Location of other nuclei with unique functions that do not exist in the spinal cord (ex. critical for consciousness, cerebellar circuits, muscle tone, cardiac functions, & respiratory functions)

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49
Q

Describe the function of the medulla.

A

Transmits motor and sensory signals from the spinal cord to higher parts of the brain.
Regulation of heartbeat, respiration, and hormone release

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50
Q

Describe the function of the pons.

A

Relays information from the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum; motor and sensory function of face, head, & eyes; hearing & balance; salivation

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51
Q

Describe the function of the midbrain.

A

Associated with vision, hearing, motor control, sleep and wakefulness, arousal (alertness), and temperature regulation

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52
Q

Describe the function of the cerebellum.

A

Responsible for the smooth coordination of movement.

One of the “big three” responsible for the quality of movement.

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53
Q

What is the function of the thalamus?

A

All sensory roads connecting the outside world to the cortex go through the thalamus (except smell). A relay for the pathway between the cerebellum and primary motor cortex,as well as between the basal ganglia and primary motor cortex. Also regulates cortical activity for alertness.

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54
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

Controls autonomic nervous system. Responsible for homeostatic functions including autonomic and neuroendocrine functions.

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55
Q

What is the subthalamic nucleus?

A

Part of basal ganglia circuits for motor and cognitive functions

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56
Q

What is the epithalamus?

A

Pineal gland secretes melatonin, epithalamus connects diencephalon to limbic system and cortex

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57
Q

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

A

Made up of the caudate and putamen nuclei, the globus pallidus, the subthalamic nucleus, and the substantia nigra.
Refines motor commands from the cortex by receiving and processing information from the cortex, then sending it back to the cortex through the thalamus.
Involved in the initiation (and inhibition) of movement

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58
Q

What is the function of the hippocampus.

A

Memory.

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59
Q

What are upper motor neurons?

A

Nerve cells that have cell bodies in the cerebral cortex and axons which run to the brainstem and spinal cord to synapse with interneurons and lower motor neurons, which in turn signal muscles to contract or relax

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60
Q

What are lower motor neurons?

A

Nerve cells that have cell bodies in the spinal cord or brainstem (CNS) and axons that go into the PNS to synapse with interneurons or muscles
Final common pathway

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61
Q

What is a neuromuscular junction?

A

A synapse formed by the contact between a motor neuron and a muscle fibre

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62
Q

Describe a peripheral nerve.

A

Contains lower motor neurons but can also contain sensory nerves.
There can be a peripheral nerve that is only sensory, a peripheral nerve that is only motor, or a peripheral nerve that is a combination of the two.

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63
Q

Describe a motor unit.

A

Made up of a motor neuron and the muscle fibres innervated by that motor neuron’s axonal terminal

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64
Q

What functions do spinal nerves serve?

A

Only carry motor and somatosensory information (don’t carry smell, taste, vision, hearing)
Carry information between the spinal cord and the body
All spinal nerves carry both sensory and motor information together

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65
Q

What functions to cranial nerves serve?

A

In addition to what spinal nerves carry, cranial carry smell, taste, vision, hearing
Carry information between the head & neck and the body
Can carry sensory information, motor information, or both

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66
Q

Name the 12 cranial nerves in order with their major function.

A

Olfactory - smell
Optic - vision
Oculomotor - eye movement, pupil size, accommodation
Trochlear - Eye movement, looking down
Trigeminal - sensation (TTPP in face), motor (muscles of mastication)
Abducens - eye movement, looking temporally
Facial - sensation (taste), motor (muscles of facial expression)
Vestibulocochlear - Sensation (sound, balance)
glossopharyngeal - sensation (taste), motor (muscles of pharynx)
Vagus - motor (larynx, parasympathetic to viscera)
Hypoglossal - motor (muscles of the tongue)

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67
Q

What are the key concepts that characterize neural development?

A

Neural development is characterized by over-development followed by pruning
Neurons are born biased for certain functions but uncommitted
The ultimate function of cells depends on what other cells they connect with and what input they receive
Nervous system develops on a use-it-or-lose-it basis
- Developmental plasticity permits correction of “minor mistakes”
- Reorganized cortex may end up being somewhat different from the typical pattern

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68
Q

Define gastrulation, neurulation, and embryonic folding.

A

Gastrulation: The process by which the three germ layers of the trilaminar embryonic disc are formed (Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm)
Neurulation: The beginning of the formation of the nervous system– the process by which the neural plate forms into the neural tube
Embryonic folding: Process by which the trilaminar disc creates a basic three-dimensional human body plan. See section 1.3 for more details.

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69
Q

Name the three layers present after gastrulation and what they form.

A

Ectoderm: skin and nervous system.
Mesoderm: bone, muscles, and connective tissue
Endoderm: lining of organs such as gastrointestinal tract and airways

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70
Q

What do the notochord and neural tube become?

A

Notochord: neucleus of the backbone

Neural tube: comes off ectoderm and forms CNS`

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71
Q

How does the brain change after birth?

A

At birth there is over-proliferation of neurons
After birth, there is over-proliferation of connections
- Programmed cell death
- Pruning of connections
Second wave of synaptogenesis and pruning in the pre-adolescent years
Within the first few months of life, ventricles continue to grow and myelin coated axons begin connecting.

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72
Q

When does myelination occur?

A

Myelination and formation of connections continues well after birth. For example, there is dramatic growth of neural connections between birth and 24 months in Broca’s area (and other brain regions).
Different motor, sensory, and cognitive systems “come online” at different points throughout life as the neurons in the associated areas become myelinated and transmit information more effectively. Although MOST areas become myelinated in early childhood, several areas do not become myelinated until adolescence or even adulthood.

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73
Q

What are the key principles of neuroplasticity?

A
Use it or lose it
Use it and improve it
Repetition matters
Time matters
Intensity matters
Specificity matters
Salience matters
Difficulty matters
Transference
Interference
Age matters
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74
Q

Describe the steps of responding “no” to a question.

A

In order to respond “no” to a question, the auditory cortex will first receive information.
From the auditory cortex, the prefrontal cortex makes the decision to respond.
Muscle actions are planned in the premotor and supplementary motor area, which is connected to Broca’s area (“broken tongue” – expression is impaired).
Then, info is sent to basal ganglia to decide if and how to proceed with action.
Muscle actions begin to be planned in the premotor area, then are sent to basal ganglia that decides whether to initiate movement based on previous experiences
Info goes back to the thalamus, which directs info to the primary motor cortex, which sends info to the brainstem and spinal cord, as well as a copy being sent to the cerebellum (allows the cortex to make adjustments)

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75
Q

Name the different types memory and name the associated brain structures.

A

Sensory memory: peripheral receptors
Working: frontal lobes and anterior structures of the limbic system
Long-term (declarative): association cortex, medial temporal lobe, hippocampal formation, adjacent cortex of parahippocampal gyrus, medialdiencephalic memory areas, thalamus, mammillary bodies, other diencephalic nuclei lining 3rd ventrical
Long-term (non-declarative): subcortical structures and cerebellum

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76
Q

Name the three types of declarative memory and their associated structures.

A

Episodic: temporal neocortex
Lexical: angular gyrus
Semantic: temporal parietal, frontal association cortex

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77
Q

Name the three types of non-declaratice memory and their associated structures

A

Skills and habits: cerebellum, basal ganglia (debated)
Emotional associations: interactions among the limbic system, prefrontal cortex, subcortical structures (debated)
Conditioned reflexes: cerebellum (debated)

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78
Q

Discuss the evidence for a localization view of the brain.

A

The structure of our brains—from the time the brain begins to develop, neurons grow outwards from the middle in columns (which also differentiate into layers); this supports the idea that one column does one distinct thing, while a different column does something else.
Existence of primary cortices and a variety of cell types
Connections and dendritic arborization patterns across brain regions
Lesion-behaviour correlations (especially for basic sensorimotor functions; i.e. a lesion in Broca’s area affects fluent speech output)

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79
Q

Discuss the evidence against a localization view of the brain.

A

How interconnected and interdependent the brain is—when completing many functions (ex. reading, having a conversation, etc.), areas all over the brain are affected, and it is currently impossible to determine what sections of the brain do what
It’s oversimplified
Doesn’t account for individual variability
A lot of data comes from patients with lesions (i.e difference between brains with and without lesions - different organization)
Doesn’t account for dynamic changes in the brain over time

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80
Q

What is lateralization?

A

A special kind of localization; function is primarily controlled by one hemisphere relative to the other

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81
Q

Using the lateralization view, what functions are associated with the left hemisphere?

A
Language & verbal ability
Logic 
Sequential things 
Details
Fast temporal processing: acoustic timing and integration of information over time
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82
Q

Using the lateralization view, what functions are associated with the right hemisphere?

A

Spectral processing: acoustic pitch and integration of information over space
Big picture (gestalt)
Musical ability
Emotion recognition
Attention to extrapersonal space (paying attention to the space around you- this is why right hemisphere strokes lead to spatial neglect far more often than left hemisphere strokes)

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83
Q

Name the different structural imaging types.

A

Angiography: blood vessels over time
CT: structural images collected over time via multi-angle x-ray (show tissue density)
MRI: structural images collected via exposure to magnetic field (reflects density of hydrogen ions)
MRA: blood vessels at one moment in time

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84
Q

Name the different functional imaging techniques

A

PET: radiation emitted by radioisotopes injected into artery, measures metabolism of glucose
EEG: brain electrical activity via electrodes on the scalp or on brain

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85
Q

Compare UMN and LMN damage based on strength, reflexes and the presence of atrophy and fasciculations.

A

Strength: reduced weakness (UMN), weakness (LMN)
Reflexes: hyperreflexia, hyporeflexia
Atrophy: N/A, present
Fasciculations: N/A, present.

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86
Q

Describe the four major events of embryologic development.

A

1) Formation of embryonic disc: Differentiation into endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm (aka gastrulation)
2) Formation of the neural plate: Notochord (structure that derives from embryonic disc) secretes growth factors that induce development of ectoderm layer into the neural plate → folds in and edges fuse to become neural tube → develops into brain and spinal cord with hollowed-out center that will become central canal and ventricles. Neural plate is formed during gastrulation
3) Migration of neural crest cells to become cranial nerves: Neural crest cells originate in the ectoderm and the settle down in various parts of the body. Cranial neural crest that gives rise to the head, connective skeletal structures and nerves
4) Development and fusion of pharyngeal arches

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87
Q

What do the different pharyngeal arches form into?

A

The first arch gives rise to the mandible
The second arch gives rise to the hyoid
The third arch gives rise to the stylopharyngeus
The fourth arch gives rise to the cricothyroid and soft palate
The fifth doesn’t really form in humans
The sixth arch gives rise to the intrinsic muscles of the larynx (except for the cricothyroid)

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88
Q

Discuss how cleft palate arises.

A

Cleft palate forms if facial ridges don’t fuse properly in embryological development from sides and top of head. Cleft palate can lead to a variety of issues, including feeding/swallowing and nasal air emissions impacting speech intelligibility.

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89
Q

How does substance consumption impact embryological development?

A

Early in embryological development, there are many processes that could be impacted by consuming substances like alcohol and drugs. These may impact the development before a pregnant person even knows they are pregnant (e.g., FASD), which may in turn impact speech or language development.

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90
Q

How does premature birth impact development?

A

Risks of a lack of folds in the brain; the brain cortex is not developed fully and prepared for birth. White matter is not fully developed in premature children.

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91
Q

Define chromosome and gene.

A

Chromosome: a thread-like (x like) structure of nucleic acids and protein found in the nucleus of most living cells, carrying genetic information in the form of genes
Gene: section of chromosomes that are the basic unit of heredity in all living things. Genes are chemical instructions, inherited from your parents, that determine proteins. Each gene is a segment of DNA that is the code for the production of particular proteins (function: to make the proteins)

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92
Q

Why is gene regulation important in embryonic development?

A

The genes are important because they determine what proteins we have and the proteins determine who we are
How the genes develop during embryonic development will govern who we are, what we look like, all of our features
It is the “instruction manual” (and of course, there are also env. factors)

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93
Q

Give an example of each different type of hereditary pattern.

A

Autosomal recessive: only problematic is homozygous (this isn’t always true)
Autosomal dominant: huntington’s
X-linked disorder: fragile X syndrome, colour blindness

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94
Q

What are some examples of disorders linked to chromosomal mutations?

A

Down Syndrome, William’s Syndrome (deletion in a chromosome – a handful of genes are missing) – these are NOT inherited syndromes. They result from mutations

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95
Q

Discuss the impact of fragile X syndrome on a child.

A
Delayed speech and language development
Mild-moderate intellectual disability
Anxiety, ADHD
33% also have ASD
Fragile X is the most common cause of ASD
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96
Q

Discuss the impact of Down’s syndrome on a child.

A
Extra 21st chromosome
Delayed speech and language development
Mild-moderate intellectual disability
Attention problems, OCD
Increased risk of gastroesophageal reflux, celiac disease, hypothyroidism, vision and hearing problems, cancer of blood-forming cells, Alzheimer disease
Ramifications for family members:
- Not typically inherited
- Risks increase with the mother’s age at conception
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97
Q

Discuss the impact of william’s syndrome on a child.

A
Part of chromosome 7 is deleted
Mild-moderate intellectual disability
Cardiovascular problems
Large vocabularies
 Poor visual-spatial skills
ADHD, Anxiety, phobias
Ramifications for family members:
- Not typically inherited
98
Q

What are some examples of non-syndrome congenital disorders? List their causes as well.

A

Hearing loss: Can be Recessive, Dominant, X-linked, Mitochondrial
ASD: Fragile X, Tuberous Sclerosis Complex, Rett Syndrome, family history, genetics (involving one or more genes), parental age, low birthweight, fetal exposure to valproate
Cleft Lip/Palate: Van der Woude syndrome, Velcardiofacial syndrome, Median facial dysplasia

99
Q

Discuss the feeding and swallowing related developmental changes a child undergoes from birth to 3 months.

A

Presence of sucking pads
Relatively smaller and retracted mandible
High and anterior position of hyoid and larynx
Close approximation of tongue, cheeks, hard and soft palate
Close approximation of uvula and epiglottis
Rooting, suckling, tongue protrusion (tongue thrust), transverse tongue, phasic bite (open and close jaw when pressure put on gums) and santmyer reflexes (blow air on babys face, elicits reflexive swallow) are present
Gag and swallowing reflex present.

100
Q

Discuss the feeding skills developed from birth to 3 months.

A

Obligatory nose breathers
Suckling liquids by bottle or breast
Pause-burst swallow pattern
Brings hands and toys to the mouth
Generally fed in a semi-reclined position
Begins to recognize food source
BOTTLE VS JAW: **see jaw movement to faciliate tongue movement, Lip seal looks different, bigger lip, less work for bottle, See social piece, looking up at mom when feeding. Lots of research about bonding

101
Q

Discuss the feeding and swallowing related developmental changes a child undergoes from 3 to 6 months.

A

Developmental Changes = increasing distance in oral cavity
Sucking pads are absorbed
Mandible grows downward and forward
Hyoid and larynx shift downward
Increasing distance between uvula and epiglottis
Greater distances between oral and pharyngeal structures
Integration of rooting and tongue protrusion reflexes
Increased muscle control of the mandible
Increased active mobility of the tongue, lips, and cheeks
Improved timing, rhythm, and co-ordination of suckling, swallowing, and breathing

102
Q

Discuss the feeding skills developed from 3 to 6 months.

A

Some exploration of puree consistencies by spoon
No active lip movement to assist with spoon feeding
Suckling used for spoon feeding as well as bottle
Sequences greater than 20 sucks
Some spillage from lips
Places hands on the bottle
Recognizes and anticipates food

103
Q

Discuss the feeding and swallowing related developmental changes a child undergoes from 6 to 12 months.

A

Continued elongation of the aerodigestive tract
Mandibular incisors erupt between 6-8 months
Increase in saliva production
Continued increases in motor control and co-ordination
Integration of the transverse tongue, suckling, and phasic bite reflex
Gag reflex becomes less sensitive

104
Q

Discuss the feeding skills developed from 6 to 12 months.

A

Gradual development of sucking (vs. suckling)
Holds tongue and jaw stable position for spoon
Fed purees more upright position
Active lip movement to remove food from spoon
Phasic bite-release pattern initially but develops into bite and stable hold
Munching used if solids break off in mouth
Tongue moves laterally ONLY if food placed on the side
Child learns to swallow with tongue tip elevation
Finger feeds dissolvable and soft solids
Begins to hold spoon and cup
Fed in upright position - highchair or feeder seat

105
Q

Discuss the feeding and swallowing related developmental changes a child undergoes from 12-24 months.

A

Continued elongation of aerodigestive tract
Development of food preferences
Integration of the santmyer reflex

106
Q

Discuss the feeding skills developed from 12-24 months.

A

Diagonal rotary chewing pattern
Less spillage from the lips
Tongue tip can elevate independently of the jaw
Refines independent spoon feeding and cup drinking skills
Food may fall off the spoon as child learns to spoon feed
Begins to use a fork for solid foods

107
Q

What are the typical feeding milestones in infants?

A

Solid food introduction: 6 months
Cup drinking introduction: 6-9 months
Straw drinking: By first birthday (12 months)
Munching: 6-9 months
Self feeds with fingers: 8-10 months
Self feeds with spoon or fork: 33-36 months (fully independent)
Management of combination of textures: 18+ months. By 18-24 able to manage combination

108
Q

Describe the expressive and receptive language skills in the perlocutional stage

A

0-9 months
Expressive: Smiles, cries, coos (functional communication interpreted as intent by adults)
Receptive: Responds to sound; seems to recognize your voice

109
Q

Describe the expressive and receptive language skills in the Illocutionary stage.

A

9 months
Expressive: Intended meaning - uses protowords (their own sound used consistently for a message)
Protoimperative - affect others’ behaviours
Protodeclarative - affect other’s attention
Receptive: Looks when you point, turns head when you call name

110
Q

Describe the expressive and receptive language skills in the locutionary stage.

A

11-13 months
Expressive: Literal meaning of words, first word milestone, unstable vocabulary for first 10 words
Receptive: Starts to respond to simple commands like “come here” and “no”

111
Q

Describe the expressive and receptive skills seen in 1 year olds.

A

Expressive: 50% of words are nouns, 2-word combinations, have naming errors (18 months vocabulary explosion)
Receptive: Points to pictures in a book when you name them

112
Q

Describe the expressive and receptive skills seen in 2 year olds.

A

Expressive: Has a word for almost everything, possessive /s/,
Receptive: understands basic WH questions

113
Q

Describe the expressive and receptive skills seen in 3 year olds.

A

Expressive: Uses some plural words like toys, birds, and buses.
Most people understand what your child says
Receptive: Responds when you call from another room, understands words for colours/shapes/family members

114
Q

Describe the expressive and receptive skills seen in 4 year olds.

A

Expressive: Says all speech sounds in words, tells a short story, names letters and numbers
Receptive: Understands sequence of events, follow multi-step instructions, hears and understands what is said at school

115
Q

Describe the expressive and receptive skills seen in 5 year olds.

A

Expressive: Increase in figurative language (jokes), increase in language development because of school
Receptive: Improved language-based conversation and reasoning skills

116
Q

List the key concepts that characterize neurodevelopment.

A

1) Neural development is characterized by over-development followed by pruning
- Initially, you have all of these connections at birth, then through your experience and through genetic coding, your brain gets pruned back and shaped to ones individual circumstances
2) Neurons are born biased for certain functions but uncommitted
- There are neurons that are biased to be motor neurons, but if something goes wrong during development, they can be other things (because there is some flexibility/plasticity in the nervous system)
3) The ultimate function of neurons depends on what other cells they connect with and what input they receive
- Through experience, certain neurons end up communicating with other neurons, and then they become part of that network
4) The nervous system develops on a use-it-or-lose-it-basis
- Developmental plasticity permits correction of “minor mistakes”
- Recognized cortex may end being somewhat different from the typical pattern

117
Q

Describe some of the neurological changes that occur in adolescence.

A

Cognitive development is primarily executive functioning - the brain is undergoing major transformation in early adolescence.
Most concerns in development surround executive functioning, not necessarily language - demands for executive functioning increase as one ages.
Needs in attention, language, memory, visuospatial functions, and social cognition increase.
It is suggested that adolescence now ends around 25, as research suggests the ability to use working memory, reasoning, etc. is still developing into your 20s.

118
Q

How does language change in adolescence?

A

Adolescent individuals with typical language development primarily see advances in language for more intensive social interactions, with language at the literate end of the oral-literate continuum, and with abilities related to abstract and critical thinking, and executive functioning
Acquire a larger vocabulary - includes increasing understanding of derivational morphology, the recognition of root words, prefixes, and suffixes that can change the part of speech and pronunciation of base words. Morphological awareness can compensate for some phonological deficiencies in adolescents with LLDs.
Learn to elaborate and expand the meanings of known words (e.g., “cold” meaning temperature, or “cold” meaning affect) and to understand connections among words related in various ways, such as by derivation or by meaning, synonyms, or sound.

119
Q

Name the stages of literacy development, their relative grade levels, and some achievements you might see at each.

A

0) Pre-reading (pre-k) - Literacy socialization
1) Decoding (1-2) - phonological analysis, segmentation, and synthesis of single words.
2) Automaticity (2-4) - fluent reading.
3) Reading to learn (4-8) - more complex comprehension, increased rate.
4) Reading for ideas (8-12) - recognition of different view points, use of inferencing.
5) Critical reading (college) - synthesis of new knowledge, critical thinking.

120
Q

Name the stages of narrative development, their relative ages, and some achievements you might see at each.

A

1) heap stories (2-3 years) - labels and descriptions of events with no organized theme.
2) sequence stories (3) - labels of events around a theme but still mostly listed without plot.
3) primitive narratives (4-4.5) - satires with a core or central person, object, or event; 3 story grammar elements; initiating event, attempt, or action, consequence, no real ending.
4) chain narratives (4.5-5) - a plot with some evidence of cause and effect and temporal relationships and some consideration of motivation; 4 story grammar elements; ending does not necessarily follow logically.
5) True narratives (5-7) - all 5 story grammar elements; central theme, character, plot, motivations behind actions, logical and temporal ordered sequences of events.

121
Q

How does normal aging affect cognition?

A

Highly variable changes
Cognitive changes only relate to the nervous system
Anything that does decline is not severe enough to cause significant impairment like a dementing disorder
Individuals keep learning until the end of life
We do slow down psychologically for processing and reacting - reduced inhibition and slow speed due to perceptual deficits and cognitive capacity

122
Q

How does normal aging affect attention?

A

Decline in executive attention/selective attention
Reduced ability to ignore concurrent distraction
Reduced ability to delete information that’s no longer relevant

123
Q

How does normal aging affect learning/memory?

A

Slower learning speed
Not all types of memory are equally vulnerable (episodic > working memory > semantic/lexical > Procedural)
Mild cognitive impairment is common, debate if precursor to Alzheimer type dementia

124
Q

How does normal aging affect language?

A

Syntax and morphology intact, word knowledge still increasing
Word finding may decline, language comprehension might be impacted if presented too quickly, but secondary to slower processing

125
Q

How does normal aging affect motor?

A

The main change is sarcopenia - the loss of skeletal muscle mass
This causes weakness (and thinking speed slows a little)

126
Q

How does normal aging affect respiratory?

A

Smaller lung volumes and speaking with a greater proportion of vital capacity are associated with aging

127
Q

How does normal aging affect nervous?

A

The main changes are cognitive slowing and reduced inhibition
Main theory of cognitive aging is that it represents reduced inhibition and slow speed, with contributions from perceptual deficits, domain-specific cognitive impairments and reduced cognitive capacity
Slower at perceiving, processing and reacting to information (particularly when the situation requires rapid processing of complex information)

128
Q

How does normal aging affect sensory?

A

Presbyopia: loss of visual acuity, seen first at near distances (cause is unknown)
Presbycusis: hair cell degeneration in the cochlea
Presbyosmia, Presbystasis: along with presbycusis, might be caused by interaction of body compression at foramen and loss of nerve fibers
Decreased somatosensory function, including tactile spatial acuity

129
Q

What doesn’t change with aging?

A

IQ - crystallized intelligence, personality (inhibitory control changes are usually just exaggerations of personality)

130
Q

Define senescence.

A

Progressive deterioration of many bodily functions over time.

131
Q

What are the general principles of normal aging?

A

Overall, muscle mass decreases
Thinking speed slows down
Decreased somatosensory function, including tactile spatial acuity

132
Q

Discuss some fo the possible psychosocial effects of communication disorders on clients and their SO.

A

Decrease in participation in social situations (client)
Feelings of loneliness/isolation, increased mental health challenges (both)
Finding and keeping a job (client)
Loss of relationships (both)
Communication partners may feel burdened/unsupported and experience caregiver burnout. (sig. other)

133
Q

Discuss the psychosocial impacts of stroke.

A

Communication barriers may lead to reduced participation
Reduced autonomy/ ability to express needs
Accommodations for job/ keeping a job
Fatigue may impact memory reserves which may impact conversation exchange
Loss of self
Limited insight or reasoning may put person in dangerous situation
Increased functional dependency -> caregiver burnout
Mobility limitations in the community
Apathy leading to decreased participation

134
Q

Discuss the psychosocial impacts of laryngeal/head/lung cancer.

A

Loss of voice, appearance changes and functional limitations may disrupt self image and identity
Limited mobilization due to equipment needs and environmental barriers (O2, suctioning, noise, light, immunocompromised)
Anxiety/depression

135
Q

Discuss the psychosocial impacts of CP.

A

Hearing loss and/or vision problems leading to social exclusion/ lack of willingness to participate
Delays in emotional and physical development may lead to not being able to pick up on social cues emotional tone/empathy leading to reduction in friendships/inclusion
Attention and behavioral deficiencies
Mental health implications from frustrations of communication challenges and social exclusion/isolation
Self acceptance and acceptance from others
Need for accommodations in the workplace

136
Q

What are some coping mechanisms that can be used by clients and families with communication disorders?

A

Use of mental health/counselling resources
Attending support groups (Eg: Niagara aphasia Program)
Facilitating a strong support system
To avoid caregiver burnout → alternate role with other family members if possible
Working with HCP to promote effective strategies to mobilize and communicate with individual
Physical activity to help alleviate tensions, frustrations/ mental health challenges
Journaling
Taking breaks when necessary

137
Q

Describe motivational interviewing.

A

A collaborative, goal-oriented style of communication with particular attention to the language of change. It is designed to strengthen personal motivation for and commitment to a specific goal by eliciting and exploring the person’s own reasons for change within an atmosphere of acceptance and compassion.
Involves:
- Partnership: involves mutual respect, not imposing idea of trying to “fix” situation
- Acceptance: See others’ perspective, acknowledge their right to make decisions and the ability to recognize the other person’s strength and effort
- Compassion
- Evocation

138
Q

What are the key principles to motivational interviewing?

A

Express empathy
Develop discrepancy: guide the client to see the discrepancy between goals and current behaviour
Roll with resistance: understand that this is a necessary part of the process.
Support self-efficacy

139
Q

What are some vital skills to counselling in SLP practice?

A

Listening: non-judgemental and active.
Empathizing
What do I say: clarifying, disclosing, affirming.

140
Q

Define intersectionality.

A

Concerned with simultaneous intersections between aspects of social difference and identity and forms of systemic oppression at macro and micro levels

141
Q

Define microagreessions.

A

A comment or action that subtly and often unconsciously or unintentionally expresses a prejudice attitude toward a member of a marginalized group

142
Q

Define cultural competence, humility, and safety.

A

Cultural Competence: Skills you can learn that makes the care you provide more effective.
Cultural Humility: Your ongoing commitment to self-evaluation and longer-term awareness of bias.
Cultural safety: Outcome of effective learning and practices on part of individuals and organizations when people feel safe receiving health care.

143
Q

Describe the learning theory.

A

Behaviourism: operant conditioning principles, the learner is a blank slate and must be provided experience. New behaviours are acquired through associations of stimuli and responses. Eg: Drill/Rote work, repetitive practice, participation points, verbal reinforcement
Cognitivism: Humans process stimuli they receive rather than just responding to it → they think about what’s happening. Changes in behaviour indicate what is going on in the learners’ head. Learner plays an active role. Eg: Linking concepts, real word examples, mnemonics, analogies, imagery, problem solving
Constructivism: We all construct our own perspective of the world, based on individual experience. Learning based on how we individually interpret the world around us. Learning is unique for each person. Eg: Case studies, research projects, problem based learning, brainstorming

144
Q

Describe behaviour modification.

A

Behavior modification is defined as “the alteration of behavioral patterns through the use of such learning techniques as biofeedback and positive or negative reinforcement.
Skinner noted that a reinforcer is a consequence that increases the likelihood of behavior to recur, while punishment is a consequence that decreases the chance.
The indications for developing a behavior modification plan can be for any unwanted, maladaptive, or aberrant behavior. It can also be used to teach and reinforce new, desired behaviors. In clinical settings, the treatment team utilizes the concept of operant conditioning to reinforce prosocial behaviors through positive consequences as seen in token economy, shaping, differential reinforcement of desired behaviors, and extinguish the undesired behaviors through negative consequences like an overcorrection, response costs, time outs

145
Q

Describe the different brown’s stages, providing age range in months, MLUm, MLU range, morphological structure, and a few examples.

A

1) 15-30 months, 1.75, 1.5-2.0, stage 1 sentence types, examples: nomination, negation, recurrence, possession, attribution, locative, agent-action, action-object, agent-object.
2) 28-36 months, 2.25, 2.0-2.5, will see present progressive (-ing), in, on, -s plurals. Examples include it going, in box, on tree, my cars.
3) 36-42 months, 2.75, 2.5-3.0, will see irregular past tense, -s possessives, uncontractible copula, examples include me fell down, doggie’s bone, are they there?
4) 40-46 months, 3.50, 3.0-3.7, includes articles, regular past tense (-ed), third person regular present tense, examples include the/a book, she jumped, he swims.

146
Q

List some possible assessments used at the various stages of language development.

A

Perlocuationary: feeding assessment, hearing assessment, overall development, parent-child communication and relationship, vocal assessment
Illocutionary: intentional communication? play observation, parent report instrument, can initiation be elicited?
Locutionary: play assessment, relationship between use of words as labels and functional play, receptive language, communicative function assessment.

147
Q

Discuss the development of pragmatics from 3-5 years.

A

3-3.5 years: More flexibility in requesting, including the following:

  • Permission directives (can you…?)
  • Indirect requests (would you…?)
  • Direct requests decrease in frequency, as indirect requests increase
  • Narratives are “primitive”, with theme and some temporal organization

3.5-4 years: New functions emerge, include the following: Reporting on past events, Reasoning, Predicting, Expressing empathy, Creating imaginary roles and props, Maintaining interactions

4-5 years: Hints that do not mention the intention in the request (“those smell good”) emerge
Ability to address specific requests for clarification increases
Narratives are “chains” with some plot, but no high point or resolution

148
Q

Discuss the development of semantics from 3-5 years.

A

3-3.5: Semantic relations between adjacent and conjoined sentences include Additive, Temporal, Causal, and Contrastive
Understanding of basic colour words
Use and understanding of basic kinship terms

3.5-4: Use and understanding of “when” and “how” questions
Understanding of words for basic shapes (circle, square, triangle)
Use and understanding of basic size vocabulary (big, small)
Use of conjunctions and and because to conjoin sentences

4-5: Knowledge of letter names and sounds emerges
Knowledge of numbers and counting emerges
Use of conjunctions when, so, because, and if

149
Q

Discuss the development of syntax from 3-5 years.

A

3-3.5: Brown’s Stage IV: Emergence of Embedded Sentences
First complex sentence forms appear
Auxiliary verbs are placed in questions and negatives
Irregular past tense, articles (a, the), possessive (‘s) acquired

3.5-4: Brown’s Stage IV to Early Stage V
Early emerging complex sentence types, including the following:
Full prepositional clauses
Wh- clauses
Simple infinitive
Conjoined 

4-5: Brown’s Stage V
Later developing morphemes acquired, including To be verbs, Regular past tense, Third person /s/
Past-tense auxiliaries used including Relative clauses (right branching), Infinitive clauses with different subjects, Gerund clauses, and Wh- infinitive clauses
Basic sentence forms acquired

150
Q

What might be some red flags in content in children?

A

Poor vocabulary skills

Inflexible word knowledge (challenges with figurative language)

Trouble with verbs

151
Q

What might be some red flags in form in children?

A

Omission of morphosyntactic markers

Difficulty forming wh-questions

Difficulty understanding complex syntax

152
Q

What might be some red flags in use in children?

A

Immature pragmatics

Weak Theory of Mind

Trouble understanding emotion & non-verbal cues

153
Q

What are some phonological characteristics associated with a language-learning disability?

A

May have intelligible speech without obvious errors in speech production
More likely to have a speech sound disorder than the general population (e.g., 25% of children with LLD have delayed speech)
Reading outcomes are poorest for children with the most severe phonological disorders, however language skills were a better predictor of later reading difficulties
Often have difficulty with speech perception, phonological memory, and phonological awareness. Need specific assessment tasks (see p421)

154
Q

What are some syntactic characteristics associated with a language-learning disability?

A

Deficits in comprehension and production of complex syntax are common in children with LLD
They have difficulty understanding passive voice, negation or relative clauses
High error rates and less complex sentences in written language (e.g., fewer prepositions and descriptive words), also more morphological errors in writing.
Syntax and morphology errors decline by age 8 in oral speech, but are prevalent in writing.
50% of children with LLD had syntactic deficits

155
Q

What are some semantic characteristics associated with a language-learning disability?

A

“Children with LLD have small vocabularies that are restricted to high-frequency, short words” (p422)
Limited vocabulary may reflect limited words acquired through readings
Weak word knowledge (e.g., meaning, categorization).
Retrieval difficulties were noted.
Receptive difficulties with complex directions, figurative language and integrating information from a large discourse
Hard time with reading to learn

156
Q

What are some pragmatic/social/emotional characteristics associated with a language-learning disability?

A

“Many children with LLD have limited verbal fluency (Oetting & Hadley, 2009). They don’t talk much, and what they say is brief and unelaborated” (as cited in Paul, Norbury, Gosse, p422)
Many reported conversational challenges, e.g., not sensitive to the needs of listeners, difficulties with repair, miss responses to others initiations, language may be more hostile, less assertive, tactful and polite.
“Conversational pragmatics may be the area of the most significant deficit in the oral language of some students with LLD”
“Children with LLD have been shown to be less accepted by peers, have poorer social skills, and have higher levels of problem behaviors than children with typical school achievement” (Weiner, 2002, as cited in Paul Norbury, Gosse p426)
May be withdrawn or join social groups with higher levels of problem behavior (boys especially have challenges with emotional regulation)

157
Q

What are some attention and activity characteristics associated with a language-learning disability?

A

“Many students who have learning problems also have behavioral and emotional difficulties that make it harder for them to take advantage of the instruction, both regular and special, that they receive” (426)
Unclear whether the behavioral causes the learning disorder or the learning disorder causes the behavior or if a third factor affects both
Many children with LLD also have attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Challenge with selective attention.
“Children with attention disorders are easily distracted and have short attention spans, low frustration tolerance, inability to recognize the consequences of their actions or learn from mistakes, and difficulty organizing and completing tasks”

158
Q

What are the key language assessment criteria for children 3-5 years old?

A

Risk Factors
Vocabulary
recommendations are to formally test receptive language first, but to treat expressively (unless the are speech sound disorders or difficulty with word recall)
Syntax and morphology
Both need to be assessed expressively and receptively because children commonly produce sentence forms (e.g., agent-action-object) before they can understand those forms when nonlinguistic cues are removed
Usually assessed by obtaining a speech sample
Pragmatics, play and literacy

159
Q

Compare simultaneous vs. sequential language learners.

A

Simultaneous bilingualism (or multilangualism) is when a child acquires two (or many) languages simultaneously, for example when they are raised by parents speaking more than one language.

Sequential is when the child acquires the second language(s) after having considerably learnt the first language, for example when the parental tongue is different from the main language of the community or education system.

160
Q

How does the quantity/quality of language input effect language development in bilingual children?

A

Most children exposed to two languages hear one of those languages more than they hear the other
This feature of dual language input creates a common feature of bilingual children’s language skills—that they are more advanced in one language than the other
There are several properties of child-directed speech that are positive predictors of children’s language development, including use of a diverse vocabulary, diverse syntactic structures, and decontextualized language use

161
Q

How is the rate of language development impacted by dual language input?

A

Children who hear and acquire two languages build linguistic knowledge at a rate comparable to or greater than is observed in children who hear and acquire only one language. But the language growth of bilingual children, like their language input, is divided between two languages. The result is that young bilingual children tend to lag behind monolingual children of the same age in vocabulary and grammatical development when measured in each language separately.
Some evidence suggests that in grammatical development, bilingual children catch up to monolingual children in single language skills by the age of 9 or 10
The bilingual–monolingual difference in vocabulary size may be lifelong, because vocabulary development does not have a point at which it is complete.

162
Q

Define the catch-up period for bilingual children.

A

The size of the lag associated with bilingualism varies depending on the domain of language under consideration and age. Bilingual children’s phonological skills and higher-level narrative skills are often closer to monolingual levels than their vocabulary and grammar, and their receptive abilities may be stronger than their expressive abilities…. some evidence suggests bilingual children catch up to monolingual children by the age of 10 years

163
Q

Compare language difference and language delay.

A

Some common misidentifications during these phrases are Language Disorder and Specific Learning Disability. Be careful that the years refer to a 12-month period of constant and consistent exposure. Our academic calendars are typically nine months, so it may take more academic years to acquire conversational and academic language.
There is a difference between the terms ‘delay’ and ‘disorder’. A delay means that a child is developing language in a typical manner, but is doing so more slowly than other children his or her age. A disorder means that a child is not developing language as one would expect, or abnormally

164
Q

What should you consider when determining a delay vs. a difference?

A

Phonology—Linguistic development in bilingual children can result in different patterns from those seen in monolingual children. This can include phonological patterns as the result of transfer or interference from another language. Recognizing dialectal variations and the influence of accent is an essential component of phonological assessment.
Morphology—Grammatical structures are not constant across languages. Pronouns, verb conjugation and verb inflection structures, tense, etc. may not exist equally in each language spoken by a bilingual individual.
Syntax—Due to the variability of syntactic structures across languages, underlying syntactic deficits will likely manifest differently across languages. Consider if the patterns observed are due an underlying deficit, which may manifest differently across languages, or due to a difference, such as transfer of a grammatical structure from one language to another.
Semantics—Clients may learn specific words and/or categories of words in their home language and other words in the language used in academic environments.

165
Q

What forms might intervention take for language delays?

A

Indirect treatment and monitoring
Provide activities for parents and caregivers to engage in with the child, such as book-sharing and parent-child interaction groups.
Check in with the family periodically to monitor language development.
Direct intervention, including techniques such as:
Expansions—repeating the child’s utterance and adding grammatical and semantic detail.
Recasts—changing the mode or voice of the child’s original utterance (for example, declarative to interrogative).
Build-ups and breakdowns—the child’s utterance is expanded (built up) and then broken down into grammatical components (break down) and then built up again into its expanded form.

166
Q

What are the basic requirements for reading?

A

Word-level processing: see letters, convert letters into speech sounds (aka decode), map the speech sounds to the word meaning

Higher-level processing:, Combine words to form sentences and understand syntax to obtain sentential meaning, link sentences and paragraphs and obtain global meaning representation for a given text

167
Q

Describe the dual route model.

A

This model describes two routes of reading and can be used to help determine where a breakdown is occurring and what parts of the brain are involved.
The roots are indirect (lexical) and direct (non lexical)
The man argument is whether or not we just use the indirect or both routes.

168
Q

Describe the indirect route of the dual route model.

A

Indirect route = Goes through meaning. converting letter units orthographic input lexicon semantic system phonological output lexicon phoneme system speech. Involves meaning (explaining how if you have background information, you have something to map the word onto which helps with this process of print to speech.)

You cannot do non-word reading with this route

The lexicon is a dictionary, when reading a familiar word you access this word from the lexicon and how it’s pronounced

​​should be able to use the phonological representation of the words they have acquired through experience with oral language to access the meanings of those words in their printed form.

169
Q

Describe the direct route of the dual route model.

A

Direct route = on the right-hand side of the dual route model, It goes from letter units to grapheme-phoneme rule system to phoneme system to speech. This indirect route can bypass meaning (e.g. child with ASD hyperlexic, can read well without comprehension

You skip accessing the mental lexicon (dictionary) by using rules instead to sound out words, while not attaching previous knowledge of word meaning.

You can “sound out words” (read non-words)

170
Q

What language comprehension skills are required for reading?

A
Background knowledge
Vocabulary
Language structures
Verbal reasoning
Literacy knowledge
171
Q

What word recognition skills are required for reading?

A

Phonological awareness
Decoding
Sight recognition

172
Q

What are most kids able to do by the end of SK in terms of writing?

A
show they understand that text is written left to right, words have spaces between them, and words have capital and lowercase letters
print most letters of the alphabet
print their own name, names of family members, and some short words (e.g., "cat" and "dad")
use a variety of instruments to communicate, including crayons, markers, pencils and paper; computers or tablets; and chalkboards or whiteboards
contribute words or sentences to a class story written down by the teacher
write messages using a combination of pictures, symbols, and letters
173
Q

What are most kids able to do by the end of grade 1 in terms of writing?

A

use phonics to decode or spell basic words
write simple but complete sentences
correctly form the plural of single-syllable words
use periods and capitals when writing
correctly spell high frequency words that have been taught in the classroom (e.g., “and”, “the”, “as”, “it”)
print recognizable letters
leave spaces between words when writing

174
Q

What are most kids able to do by the end of grade 3 in terms of writing?

A

use correct subject-verb agreement when writing
use nouns, verbs, adjectives and adverbs correctly
use irregular plurals correctly such as deer, children
use apostrophes in contractions, for example cannot = can’t
use exclamations
use phonics (letter sounds) and spelling rules when spelling
use different sources to check how to spell unfamiliar words
divide words into syllables
use prefixes, suffixes and compound words
use titles and subheadings to organize writing
print words clearly

175
Q

What must theories speech perception be able to account for?

A

There is inter-speaker and intra-speaker variability among signals that convey information about equivalent phonetic events
The acoustic signal is continuous even though it is perceived as and represents a series of discrete units
Speech signals contain cues transmitted very quickly and simultaneously
Theories must also account for various perceptual phenomena, such as
Categorical perception, Phonemic restoration, Episodic memory, and Various word recognition effects (e.g., frequency effects, priming)

176
Q

What are the main two theories of speech perception?

A

Auditory: listeners identify acoustic patterns or features by matching them to stored acoustic representations
Evidence for: context effects, coarticulation

Motor: listeners extract information about articulations from the acoustic signal (i.e., when perceiving speech, listeners access their own knowledge of how phonemes are articulated)
Evidence for: categorical perception, duplex perception, and the McGurk effect

177
Q

Name the key concepts to speech perception.

A

Bottom-up vs. top-down
Active vs. passive
Autonomous vs. interactive

178
Q

Compare bottom-up vs. top down related to speech perception.

A

Bottom-up: perception is built from information in the physical signal
Top-down: listeners use higher level sources of information to supplement the acoustic signal

179
Q

Compare active vs. passive speech perception.

A

Active (or controlled): cognitive/intellectual work is involved in perception
Passive (or automatic): perception relies on passive responses (e.g., thresholds)

180
Q

Compare autonomous vs. interactive speech perception.

A

Autonomous: closed system of decision making (capsulated, modular)
Interactive: decision-making process relies on various sources of information outside the perceptual processor

181
Q

What is categorical perception?

A

There are no clear boundaries between vowels when we look at the acoustic properties, however, we PERCEIVE separate categories.
This may include voice onset time (difference between the start of voicing and release of plosive)

182
Q

What is duplex perception?

A

One ear receives the third formant transition which sounds like a nonspeech chirp. The other ear receives a base syllable. As a result, the listener hears both the completed syllable AND the nonspeech chirp at the same time (i.e., we hear both the separate info (chirp) and the result of the integrated info (full syllable))
In real life, we can separate overlapping acoustic info (speech, cars, AC, siren, etc.)

183
Q

What is multimodal perception?

A

We integrate auditory and visual information
When the information is conflicting between the modalities, we integrate and “hear” something in between both individual stimuli

184
Q

What two conditions are required for the generation of a sound wave?

A

Vibratory disturbance and elastic medium (ex. air)When a vibrating object is placed in an elastic medium, an air pressure disturbance is created through a chain reaction.
The crowding effect is called compression or condensation. The relatively wide particle spacing is called rarefaction.
The pattern that is produced by a simple vibratory system is called a sine wave.
The sound produced by a tuning fork comes quite close to a sinusoidal shape, as do the simple tones that are used in hearing tests. Much more common in both speech and music are more complex, nonsinusoidal patterns.

185
Q

What is pitch?

A

Pitch depends on the frequency – the higher the frequency, the faster the vibration and the higher the pitch while the lower the frequency, the slower the vibration and the lower the pitch.

186
Q

What is Resonance?

A

Resonance is the increased amplitude (or loudness) of vibrations of an object caused by a source of sound that has the same natural frequency as the object’s frequency. Resonance occurs when two interconnected objects share the same vibrational frequency. When one of the objects is vibrating, it forces the second object into vibrational motion. The result is a large vibration and a loud noise. An example would be hitting one tuning fork near another tuning fork with the same natural frequency. The second tuning fork would vibrate even though it was not struck with a mallet but reacts to the vibrating air particles from the first tuning fork. The sounds we, ourselves, make produce resonance in the air filling the hollows in the throat, mouth and nasal cavities.

187
Q

Define frequency.

A

the number of cycles completed in one second, the unit of measurement for frequency is hertz (Hz)

188
Q

Define amplitude.

A

magnitude of the displacement pattern

189
Q

What is psychophysics?

A

Psychophysics is a set of methods (and the results obtained using these methods) relating sensation to the physical characteristics of a stimulus (Gustav Fechner developed the basic psychophysical methods we use today).

190
Q

Relating to psychophysics, what is concept of threshold and reality of threshold?

A

Concept of threshold: The smallest stimulus that can be perceived
Reality of threshold: The stimulus that produces an arbitrary, but defined, level of performance

191
Q

Name the psychophysical methods used to estimate thresholds.

A

Classical methods: method of constant stimuli, method of adjustment, method of limits
Adaptive methods: staircase methods, parameter estimation by sequential testing (PEST), maximum-likelihood adaptive procedures (QUEST, MLP)

192
Q

Describe Method of constant stimuli and name some pros or cons.

A

Choose stimuli of several values (included some you don’t think the person will be able to hear), present these stimuli multiple times, record the proportion of times they report hearing each one

Pros:
Provides complete picture of sensitivity
Easy to administer
Cons:
Have to know approx. threshold before starting
A lot of trials and time are wasted
193
Q

Describe the method of limits and name some pros and cons.

A

Start with a level you think the listener will hear, if they hear that one, present a lower level. Continue until listener says they can’t hear the stimulus, repeat
Pros:
Efficient: get threshold in small number of trials
Don’t need to know where the threshold is at the start
Cons:
Spurious thresholds may be obtained without evidence that the listener was really listening

194
Q

Describe the method of adjustment and name some pros and cons.

A
Give listener control of the stimulus level, instruct listener to adjust level until they can just not hear the stimulus, repeat.
Pros:
Easy
Intuitively appealing
Cons:
Produces unreliable results
195
Q

Describe the staircase methods.

A

Variation of method of limits where the level is changed on a trial by trial basis according to the listener’s response
Pros:
Efficient
Cons:
Observer may easily become aware of process, which could lead to anticipation of the approach of threshold and changes in response

196
Q

Describe PEST.

A

Adjustments in the amount of change in the stimulus are based on information already gathered according to the observer’s performance.
Pros:
Faster and more accurate than conventional staircase procedures

197
Q

Describe QUEST, MLP

A
Variation of staircase method  that uses prior knowledge about psychometric function. Requires computer system to compute probability of different functions based on responses.
Pros:
Efficient and accurate
Cons:
Complex to learn and understand
198
Q

What is the goal of psychoacoustics?

A

The goal of psychoacoustics is to establish relations between stimuli, defined in the physical domain, and the related hearing sensations.

199
Q

Describe Fechner’s law.

A

Fechner’s Law: subjective sensation is proportional to the logarithm of the stimulus intensity
Our subjective perception is structured in perceiving relations between values rather than absolute differences

200
Q

How can medication, surgery, and radiation/chemo impact auditory function?

A

Medication:
Ototoxicity: damage to hair cells from medications that are toxic to ears/hearing1
Temporary damage: salicylate pain relievers (aspirin), quinine (treatment for malaria), loop diuretics
Permanent damage: mycin family of drugs (used for ear infections)
Surgery: Can help with conductive hearing loss due to otitis media, atresia, microtia, tympanic membrane perforation, otosclerosis. Cochlear implant surgery
Radiation:Cisplatin chemo: can cause high frequency damage (which is a permanent hearing loss)

201
Q

How can cognitive function be impacted by medication or surgery?

A

Brain injuries can metabolize medications differently

Surgeries to remove tumors can affect cognitive function depending on tumor location

202
Q

How can medication impact the voice?

A

Allergic reaction to medication could cause swelling in laryngeal region

Antihypertensives, antihistamines, diuretics may affect vocal quality

Hydration is important - medication, caffeine, and alcohol can also affect hydration levels/have a drying affect

Hormone therapies may be used as part of gender affirming voice and communication therapy

203
Q

How can surgery impact the voice?

A

Voice disorders can be caused by phono-surgery (leading to scarring), traumatic intubation, etc. Voice disorders may also be treated via surgeries (remove polyps, nodules)

Laryngectomy is the removal of the larynx

204
Q

How can radiation and chemotherapy impact voice?

A

Radiation therapy can cause dryness/hoarseness (may not be permanent)

205
Q

How can medication impact general communication

A

Dosage timing of neuroactive medications may affect communication

Sedatives may result in lethargy which may influence communication function

Alcohol results in loss of brain mass/ matter and affects executive function

Opioids affect verbal learning and executive functions

206
Q

How can surgery impact general communication?

A

Cleft lip and palate surgery can help with articulation, resonance, etc.

Surgeries to remove tumors in the oral cavity can affect articulation.

Brain surgeries may affect communication depending on location of surgery.

207
Q

How can radiation/chemo impact general communication?

A

Chemotherapy and radiation can cause a diffuse toxic-metabolic injury (an example of an Acquired Brain Injury)

208
Q

What is the scientific method?

A

All scientific disciplines are united by their use of the scientific method. The scientific method offers an objective methodology for scientific experimentation that results in unbiased interpretations of the world and refines knowledge. Across all scientific disciplines, the major precepts of the scientific method are verifiability, predictability, falsifiability, and fairness.

209
Q

Name and define the major precepts of the scientific method.

A

Verifiability means that an experiment must be replicable by another researcher
Predictability in a scientific theory implies that the theory should enable us to make predictions about future events
Falsifiability refers to whether a hypothesis can be disproved. For a hypothesis to be falsifiable, it must be logically possible to make an observation or do a physical experiment that would show that there is no support for the hypothesis.
Fairness implies that all data must be considered when evaluating a hypothesis.

210
Q

Describe the general flow of the scientific method.

A

Make an observation
Ask a question
Form a hypothesis that answer the question
Make a prediction based on the hypothesis
Do an experiment to test the prediction
Analyse the restyles
Hypothesis is either correct or incorrect (if incorrect return to form a hypothesis as well as the next step)
Report results

211
Q

What are the different levels of measurement?

A

Nominal: data can only be categorized
- Examples: ethnicity, city of birth
Ordinal: data can be categorized and ranked
- Examples: likert-type questions, language ability (beginner, intermediate, fluent)
Interval: data can be categorized, ranked, and evenly spaced
- Examples: temperature in Fahrenheit or Celsius, personality inventories, test scores
Ratio: data can be categorized, ranked, evenly spaced, and has a natural zero
- Examples : height, age, temperature in Kelvin

212
Q

What are the three main types of descriptive statistics?

A

Distribution refers to the frequencies of different responses
Measures of central tendency give you the average for each response
Measures of variability show you the spread or dispersion of your dataset

213
Q

What are descriptive statistics?

A

Summarize the characteristics of a data set
Describe the sample of participants in the study
Organize, summarize, and simplify data
May be shared as tables or graphs

214
Q

Define the following terms: mode, median, arithmetic mean, range, interquartile range, standard deviation, and variance.

A

Mode: a data set is the most frequently occurring value
Median: the value that’s exactly in the middle of a data set when it is ordered
Arithmetic mean: the sum of all values divided by the total number of values
Range: the spread of your data from the lowest to the highest value in the distribution
Interquartile range: tells you the spread of the middle half of your distribution
Standard deviation: the average amount of variability in your dataset; how far each value lies from the mean
Variance: calculated by taking the average of squared deviations from the mean

215
Q

What are inferential statistics?

A

Allow you to test a hypothesis or assess whether your data is generalizable to the broader population.
Interval- or ratio-level data: parametric statistics (e.g., t-test, ANOVA, Pearson’s correlation)
Nominal- or ordinal-level data: non-parametric statistics (e.g., Mann-Whitney, chi-square, Spearman’s correlation)
- Also use non-parametric statistics if interval- or ratio-level data do not meet assumptions required by the parametric test

216
Q

What is the meaning of the p–value and it’s statistical significance?

A

P stands for probability and tells us the chance that our finding occurred by chance alone
When doing research, you are testing if the null hypothesis is true or not. A p-value of <0.05 means there is less than 5% chance that the null hypothesis is true.
Statistically significant does NOT equal importance.
Hypothesis testing is a type of statistics that determines the probability of a hypothesis being true or false. If hypothesis testing reveals that results were “statistically significant,” this means that there was support for the hypothesis and that the researchers can be reasonably confident that their result was not due to random chance. If the results are not statistically significant, this means that the researchers’ hypothesis was not supported.

217
Q

What are the two types of statistical error?

A

Type 1: false positive

Type 2: false negative

218
Q

What is a confidence interval?

A

A confidence interval is the range of scores around a single measurement in which we are confident that the true scores lies
Generally, researchers will look at the 95% confidence interval (i.e., the range in which the true score will be found 95 times out of 100)
As the same size increases, the confidence interval decreases (i.e., becomes more precise)

219
Q

Define effect size.

A

An effect size quantifies the size or magnitude of a finding in a research study
It is one indicator of the importance or clinical meaningfulness of a finding. It is related to, but not the same as, statistical significance.

220
Q

What are some common effect sizes?

A

Cohen’s d: a metric that quantifies the difference between two groups by converting all scores to the same standard deviation units
d = 0 (no difference)
d = 0.25 (small ES)
d = 0.50 (medium ES)
d = 0.80 (large ES)
R2: describes the amount of variance shared between two variables. It is based on the correlation or strength of relationship between two variables. It is simply the correlation squared and it is interpreted as a percentage.
Odds ratio: describes the odds of an event or outcome occurring in one group with the odds of the same event or outcome occurring in a different group

221
Q

Compare the different commonly used research designs based on if there is a control comparison and experimental manipulation.

A

Y/Y: controlled trial, multiple baseline
Y/N: cohort, case-control, cross-sectional
N/Y: uncontrolled trial
N/N: case report, case series.

222
Q

Name the different types of quantitative research designs.

A

Experimental
Quasi-experimental
Correlational
Descriptive

223
Q

Describe the purpose and characteristics of experimental study designs.

A

Used to test causal relationships
Involves manipulating an independent variable and measuring its effect on a dependent variable
Subjects are randomly assigned to groups
Usually conducted in a controlled environment (e.g. a lab)

224
Q

Describe the purpose and characteristics of quasi-experimental study designs.

A

Used to test causal relationships
Similar to experimental design, but without random assignment
Often involves comparing the outcomes of pre-existing groups
Often conducted in a natural environment

225
Q

Describe the purpose and characteristics of correlational study designs.

A

Used to test whether (and how strongly) variables are related
Variables are measured without influencing them

226
Q

Describe the purpose and characteristics of descriptive study designs.

A

Used to describe characteristics, averages, trends, etc

Variables are measured without influencing them

227
Q

Name the different types of qualitative research designs.

A
Case study
Ethnography
Grounded theory
Phenomenology
Narrative
228
Q

Describe the purpose and characteristics of case studies.

A

Detailed study of a specific subject (e.g. a place, event, organization, etc).
Data can be collected using a variety of sources and methods.
Focuses on gaining a holistic understanding of the case.

229
Q

Describe the purpose and characteristics of ethnography.

A

Detailed study of the culture of a specific community or group.
Data is collected by extended immersion and close observation.
Focuses on describing and interpreting beliefs, conventions, social dynamics, etc.

230
Q

Describe the purpose and characteristics of grounded theory.

A

Aims to develop a theory inductively by systematically analyzing qualitative data.

231
Q

Describe the purpose and characteristics of phenomenology.

A

Aims to understand a phenomenon or event by describing participants’ lived experiences.

232
Q

Describe the purpose and characteristics of narrative research.

A

Exploring the life of participants

233
Q

Name and describe the different grouping research design types.

A

Cohort: A type of longitudinal research that samples a cohort (a group of people with a shared characteristic) while doing a cross-section at specific time intervals
Cross-sectional: Analyzes data either from a population, or from a representative sample, at a specified point in time
Longitudinal: Involves repeated observations of the same variables over short or long periods of time
Cross-sequential: Combines longitudinal and cross-sectional research design, aiming to compensate for some of the issues inherently present in the two aforementioned designs

234
Q

What are the 4 steps to critically evaluating research?

A
  1. Determine your purpose for reading. Think about what you need to get out of the article.
  2. Device a reading strategy
  3. Read to get an overview and then read closely and actively engage with the text
  4. Don’t waste time - very few articles are so important that every word needs to be read carefully
235
Q

Define reliability.

A

The reliability of an assessment tool is the extent to which it consistently and accurately measures performance.

236
Q

Name the different types of reliability and describe them.

A

Inter-rater: indicates how consistent test scores are likely to be if the test is scored by two or more raters
Test-retest: indicates the repeatability of test scores with the passage of time
Alternate or parallel form reliability: indicates how consistent test scores are likely to be if a person takes two or more forms of a test
Internal consistency: indicates the extent to which items on a test measure the same thing

237
Q

Define validity.

A

The validity of an assessment tool is the extent by which it measures what it was designed to measure.

238
Q

Name and describe the different types of validity.

A

Face: Does it really measure what it says it is going to measure?
Content: Is a test based on a theoretical model that is explicitly stated? Does the test address all the behaviors it should?
Construct: Does the structure of the test support its stated purposes? Do test scores on this measure correlate with scores on other measures of similar constructs? Is the test measuring other constructs that confound test result interpretation?
Criterion: Does it distinguish groups or other disorders?
Concurrent
Ecological: Does it have any relevance to life in that person’s individual context beyond therapy, including that individual’s culture?
Predictive

239
Q

Compare internal and external validity.

A

Internal validity: “extent to which empirical evidence provides a true or accurate reflection of patients, procedures, and settings observed”
External validity or generalizability: “extent to which the [empirical] evidence provides an accurate reflection of patients, procedures, and settings other than those observed”

240
Q

What are some factors that can affect internal validity?

A

Subjective bias: impact of a person’s beliefs, opinions, and expectations on the findings from a study
Can be controlled via blinding/concealment and/or placebos
Quality of measurement
Validity: does it measure what it’s supposed to measure
Reliability: does it give consistent results
Research design
Nuisance variables: any systematic factor that inadvertently interferes with drawing accurate conclusion from a study
Statistical significance (external evidence only)

241
Q

What factors can affect external validity?

A

How representative the study conditions are of the clients, settings, clinicians, and procedures encountered in typical practice settings
How accurately the procedures described in the study were actually implemented by the researchers
- Fidelity: did treatment get carried out the way it was planned

242
Q

What is treatment efficacy and how is it achieved?

A

A treatment is said to be efficacious to the extent that it brings about desired outcomes under highly controlled conditions (e.g., optimal operational definition for selecting patients, delivering treatment, dosing treatment, indexing the effects of treatment, etc). Under these conditions, valid statistical inference warrants the general expectation that a particular treatment will bring about desired outcomes when administered in clinical practice. As a result, evidence of treatment efficacy establishes the potential of a particular treatment protocol for bringing about beneficial change when administered to members of a particular clinical population.

Efficacy data result from carefully conducted measurements of a large sample of rigorously selected patients from a clearly defined clinical population. Most often, participants in this form of research are randomly assigned to a treatment condition or a no-treatment condition. For a treatment protocol to achieve status as efficacious, it must be convincingly demonstrated that the protocol is the exclusive agent bringing about beneficial change.