Second Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is a labor supply?

A

The number of available workers who possess the required skills that an employer might need.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is labor demand?

A

The number of workers an organization needs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is HR planning?

A

The process an organization uses to ensure that it has the right amount and right kind of people to deliver a particular level of output or service.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are two parts of HR planning?

A
  1. Forecast the labor demand

2. Estimate the labor supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a labor surplus?

A

Supply > Demand. If the company already has too many people, layoffs will occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a labor shortage?

A

Demand > Supply. The company would need to provide training and development in order to get qualified workers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is an internal labor market?

A

Existing employees inside the organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is an external labor market?

A

People outside the organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the four parts of the hiring process?

A
  1. HR planning
  2. Recruitment
  3. Selection
  4. Socialization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is recruitment?

A

The process of generating a qualified pool of candidates for a job.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is socialization?

A

The process of getting new employees orientated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is promotion from within?

A

Filling vacancies above entry-level positions with current employees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the benefits and drawbacks of promoting from within?

A

Benefits: Cuts down on training and recruitment costs, improves morale of other employees.
Negatives: Cuts down on new points of view and ideas that could be brought into the organization by someone else.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are three other sources of internal recruitment?

A
  1. HR databases
  2. Job posting/bidding
  3. Employee referral (big one) - if they refer too many people like themselves, they can get in trouble for lack of “diversity.”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are some external recruitment SOURCES?

A
  1. Schools
  2. Competitors
  3. Military personnel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some external recruitment METHODS? (other than the internet)

A
  1. Media advertising
  2. Employment agencies
  3. Recruiters and job fairs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the flypaper method of recruiting?

A

Emphasizing only the good points of the job, trying to get as many applicants as possible. This results in unrealistic expectations and high turnover.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a realistic job preview?

A

An honest method of recruitment. Results in less turnover.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does a company know what recruitment sources to use? (Three ways)

A
  1. Yield ratios
  2. Cost-per-hire
  3. Applicant quality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is selection?

A

The process of choosing the individual best suited for a particular position and organization from a group of applicants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why is selection important?

A

Goal is to properly match people with jobs and organization. Selecting the wrong person for any job can be costly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are some factors affecting the selection process?

A
  1. Other HR functions
  2. Legal considerations
  3. Decision-making speed
  4. Organizational hierarchy
  5. Applicant pool
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is preliminary screening?

A

The process of eliminating clearly unqualified job applicants early in the selection process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the Review of Applications?

A

When they’re looking at the job applications tuned in. The application form must reflect firm’s informational needs and EEO requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A preprinted job application will include what three things?

A
  1. Certifies that information provided is accurate
  2. Should state position is employment at will.
  3. Gives permission for background check.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a resume?

A

Goal-directed summary of a person’s experience, education, and training developed for use in the selection process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Professional/managerial applicants often begin selection process by doing what?

A

Submitting their resumes! Serious positions usually don’t receive simple applications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Most large companies use what?

A

Keyword seekers (in resumes). Applicant tracking system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are selection tests?

A

Reliable and accurate means of selecting qualified candidates. Cost is small. Identify attitudes and job-related skills that interviewers cannot recognize.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are three potential problems with selection tests?

A
  1. What they can do vs what the WILL do (they might do well on a test, but not for real)
  2. Test anxiety
  3. Adverse impact: if a minority cannot pass the test, hello lawsuit.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are six characteristics of properly designed selection tests?

A
  1. Standardization - all tests are done in same setting
  2. Objectivity
  3. Norms
  4. Reliability - consistent results
  5. Validity - accurate results
  6. Job relatedness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are two different ways of testing the validity of selection test?

A
  1. Content validity: includes certain tasks actually required by the job (like testing someone on their ability to use Excel).
  2. Criterion-related validity: comparing scores on selection tests to some aspect of job performance.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are examples of concurrent and predictive validity (both are criterion-related)?

A

An example of concurrent validity is a comparison of the scores of the CLEP College Algebra exam with course grades in college algebra to determine the degree to which scores on the CLEP are related to performance in a college algebra class. An example of predictive validity is a comparison of scores on the SAT™ with first semester grade point average (GPA) in college; this assesses the degree to which SAT scores are predictive of college performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are a few types of employment tests?

A
  1. Cognitive aptitude test - judges IQ
  2. Psychomotor abilities
  3. Job knowledge
  4. Work-sample
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is an employment interview?

A

Goal-oriented conversation where interviewer and applicant exchange information. This is the primary method for evaluating applicants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

As an interviewer, you want to obtain what information from the interviewee?

A
  1. Occupational experience
  2. Academic achievement
  3. Interpersonal skills
  4. Personal Qualities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

As an interview, what information do YOU provide for the interviewee?

A
  1. Company
  2. Job
  3. Expectations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is an unstructured job interview?

A

When there is no set format or specific questions. This can be dangerous.

39
Q

What is a structured job interview?

A

One with prepared questions.

40
Q

What is a behavioral interview?

A

When they ask you to describe a challenging situation at work and how you handled it.

41
Q

What is a situational interview?

A

When you are asked a hypothetical scenario and how you would handle it.

42
Q

What is a group interview?

A

When there are multiple candidates interviewing simultaneously. This is done to test people skills.

43
Q

What is a board interview?

A

Several people interviewing one applicant.

44
Q

What is meant by multiple interviews?

A

Several one-on-one interviews.

45
Q

What is a video interview?

A

Like a Skype interview; candidates could be a long way away and this is cheaper than flying them in.

46
Q

What is a stress interview?

A

When they intentionally create anxiety in the candidate to test them out.

47
Q

What two questions must you keep in mind when asking a candidate a question?

A
  1. Why am I asking this question?

2. Why do I need to know this?

48
Q

What are four other potential interviewing problems?

A
  1. Interview bias (halo and horn)
  2. Interviewer domination
  3. Lack of training
  4. Nonverbal communication
49
Q

What are the 10 DONTS of interviewing?

A
Children
Age
Disabilities
Physical characteristics
Marital status
Citizenship
Arrest Records
Smoking
Diseases
Religion
50
Q

What is the purpose of a background check?

A

Determine accuracy of information submitted or determine if vital information was omitted. The intensity of background checks depends on important of position.

51
Q

What is a reference check?

A

Checking out the references given by a candidate, who of course will only have good things to say about them.

52
Q

What are the two schools of thought with it comes to references of former employees?

A

Many state laws shield employers from liability for harm to an ex-employee based on job references.

  1. Don’t tell them anything: could open you up to lawsuits
  2. Honesty is the best policy: Don’t hide anything
53
Q

What is negligent hiring?

A

The liability a company incurs when it fails to conduct a reasonable investigation of the applicant’s background, and then assigns a potentially dangerous person to a position where he can inflict harm.

54
Q

What is the primary consideration in negligent hiring?

A

If the company had done a background check and found nothing bad, they are not responsible for workplace violence (for example).

55
Q

What is the selection decision?

A

if the company had done a background check and found nothing bad, they are not responsible for workplace violence (for example).

56
Q

What is a medical examination?

A

Determines whether applicant is physically capable of performing the work. You can now drug test them, but only after the job offer.

57
Q

What is HRD?

A

Human Resource Development

58
Q

What is training?

A

Providing employees with specific skills or helping them correct deficiencies in their performance.

59
Q

What is development?

A

Providing employees with the abilities the organization will need in the future.

60
Q

How are training and development different?

A
  1. Focus: current job (training) vs current and future jobs (development)
  2. Scope: individual employees vs workforce
  3. Time frame: immediate vs long term
  4. Goal: fix skill deficit vs prepare for future
61
Q

How do we know when training is appropriate?

A

When the deficiency can be fixed through training; some can’t.

62
Q

What are the three phases of the training process?

A
  1. Needs assessment
  2. Develop and conduct
  3. Evaluation
63
Q

What is organizational analysis?

A

Broad factors/organizational needs

64
Q

What is task analysis?

A

Examination of the job.

KSA - knowledge, skills, and abilities

65
Q

What is person analysis?

A

Which employees need training? Is there a discrepancy between an employee’s performance and the organization’s expectation?

66
Q

What three goals should training address?

A
  1. Performance
  2. Quality
  3. Conditions
    Example: Conduct CPR on a dummy (1), making no mistakes (2), without assistance from the instructor (3).
67
Q

What is the “develop and conduct” phase of the training process?

A

Find out how training will actually be done, then do it.

68
Q

What is on-the-job-training (OJT)? Benefits and drawbacks.

A

Training in the actual work setting.
Benefits: relevant to the job; not expensive
Drawbacks: customer frustration
Examples: Job rotation, apprenticeships, internships

69
Q

What are a couple examples of off-the-job training?

A

Formal courses and simulations

70
Q

What is a control group?

A

Group of workers who did not go through the training program.

71
Q

What are four levels of training evaluation?

A

Reactions: how did those trained react to it?
Learning: Did the people actually learn anything?
Behavior (transfer of training): use their new skills and knowledge on the job.
Return/results: the company’s return on training investment

72
Q

What is the main legal concern with training?

A

It is that employees must have access to training and development programs in a nondiscriminatory fashion.

73
Q

What does a performance appraisal include?

A

This includes the identification, measurement, and management of human performance in organizations.

74
Q

What are the two main purposes or uses of performance appraisal?

A
  1. Administrative - management wants employees’ performance records on file. This is useful for promotion from within. Also for termination.
  2. Developmental - if there is a deficiency in performance, an appraisal can be used to highlight it and training can take place to fix it.
75
Q

What is a dimension?

A

Aspect of the job that determines effective job performance (ex. quality of work, quantity of work).

76
Q

What are the three steps in developing performance appraisal items?

A
  1. Job analysis
  2. Job description
  3. Performance appraisal items (this is tied to job duties and responsibilities from a job description)
77
Q

What are the two types of judgments?

A

Relative and absolute judgment

78
Q

What is relative judgment?

A

Compare an employee’s performance to the performance of other employees doing the same job.

79
Q

What is absolute judgment?

A

Make judgments about an employee’s performance base solely on performance standards.

80
Q

What are the pros and cons of relative judgment?

A

Pros:
Easy to use
Force managers to differentiate among workers (everyone can’t get a good rating)
Cons:
Forces managers to differentiate (it may not accurately reflect who the good performers are)
Only considers one dimension (metric) of performance at a time

81
Q

What are the three types of relative judgment?

A
  1. Straight ranking - rank order from best to worst
  2. Paired comparison - each employee is compared with another employee
  3. Forced distribution - classifies employees into groups (top, middle, bottom third)
82
Q

What are pros and cons of absolute judgment?

A
Pros:
Considers many dimensions of performance 
Can give specific feedback
Cons:
Difficult and time-consuming to develop 
Vulnerable to ratings errors
83
Q

What is a rating scale (as an absolute judgment)?

A

A scale that can be used to assess both traits or behaviors. It uses anchors (“above average”).
Pro: easy to use
Con: not too much information (too general)

84
Q

Performance appraisals that assess ________ are the most legally defensible.

A

Behaviors (not traits or outcomes)

85
Q

What is a direct supervisor review?

A

This is the most common performance appraisal. It’s when the supervisor tells the employee how they’re doing.

86
Q

What is self-review?

A

Employee rates their own performance. Orgs usually use this and supervisor performance appraisals.

87
Q

What is a subordinate review?

A

When those below you rate your performance.

88
Q

What a 360 degree feedback?

A

Performance information from everyone who works around you.

89
Q

What are some advantages and disadvantages of 360 degree feedback?

A

Advantages: lots of perspectives; the more people involved, the better.
Disadvantages: politics and usual bullshit can affect ratings; very time consuming; you can get many different, conflicting points of view.

90
Q

What are restriction of range errors?

A

When the rater only uses a small portion of the rating scale. They need to use 1-5, not just 4 & 5. Ratings are objective in nature.

91
Q

What is a leniency error, from a rater?

A

When a rater only rates people highly.

92
Q

What is a severity error, from a rater?

A

When the rater rates everyone poorly.

93
Q

What is a central tendency error, from a rater?

A

When everyone is average.