Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SEA > SEA > Flashcards

SEA Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 ingredients for effective human skills?

Levels of leader expertise

A
  • Understand behavior
  • Predict behavior
  • Direct, change and influence behavior
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is behavior?

A

A series of activities motivated by achievement of a goal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an activity?

A

The basic unit of behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are motives?

A

Needs, wants, drives or impulses within a person directed toward a goal
(Conscious or subconscious )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are goals?

A

Hoped for rewards outside a person toward which motives are directed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is motive strength?

A

The need that determines behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 5 frustrated behaviors?

R3AF

A 
Rationalization 
Regression 
Resignation 
Aggression
Fixation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 2 categories of activities?

A
  • Goal-directed

- Goal activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are goal-directed activities?

A

Motivated behavior directed at reaching a goal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is goal activity?

A

Satisfying the goal itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the relationship between motives, goals, and activities?

A

Motive to reach a goal drives behavior which results in goal-directed activity leading to goal activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is expectancy?

A

The perceived probability of satisfying a need

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is availability?

A

The perceived limitations of the environment that affect how accessible a goal is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 5 steps of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

A
  • physiological
  • safety (security)
  • social (affiliation)
  • esteem (recognition)
  • Self-actualization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 4 elements of the Johari window?

A
  • known to others
  • unknown to others
  • known to self
  • unknown to self
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the Johari area that is known to self and known to others?

A

Public

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the Johari area unknown to self but known to others?

A

Blind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the Johari area known to self but unknown to others?

A

Facade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the Johari area unknown to self and unknown to others?

A

Unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the 2 processes that affect the size of the Johari areas?

A
  • feedback

- disclosure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the effect of feedback on the Johari window areas?

A

Increases the public area and shrinks the blind area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does disclosure affect the Johari window areas?

A

Increases the public area and shrinks the facade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 4 required roles of group facilitation?

A
  • primary facilitator
  • secondary facilitators
  • timekeeper
  • minute taker
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the optional role of group facilitation?

A

-scribe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the responsibilities of the primary facilitator?

A
  • help group free itself from internal obstacles
  • focus energies
  • define and accomplish common desired outcomes
  • help group use efficient communication processes
  • use group decision making
  • protect members
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the responsibilities of the secondary facilitators?

A
  • alert group when straying
  • handle disruptive behavior
  • deter nit-picking or irrelevant details
  • announce when consensus met
  • halt reopening a decided-on topic (halting)
  • seek information from others
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the responsibility of the timekeeper?

A
  • Monitor the time it takes for group to accomplish tasks.

- provide updates concerning time spent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the responsibility of the minute taker?

A

Take notes

  • decision agreements
  • action items
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the responsibility of the scribe?

A

Write on flip charts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the 3 values of safeguarding?

A
  • decreases chance of prematurely rejecting an idea
  • encourage members to offer suggestions more freely
  • add to an infant idea and develop a mature solution
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the 2 gatekeeping processes?

A
  • gate-opening

- gate-closing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is gate-opening?

A

Directly including other individuals in the discussion or for increasing an individual’s opportunity to contribute to the discussion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is gate-closing?

A

Behavior as a means for excluding an individual from the discussion or reducing an individual’s opportunity to contribute to the discussion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the 4 strategies to process feelings?

A
  • stay personally neutral
  • understand rather than evaluate feelings
  • process feelings using silence, then flip charts
  • refocus the discussion on the original topic and its desired outcomes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the 4 general guidelines for dealing with disruptions?

A
  • firm but friendly confrontation
  • encourage shared responsibility for handling difficult members
  • use nonverbal cues
  • acknowledge acceptable behavior
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the 4 good reasons for encouraging differences?

A
  • critical thinking is stimulated
  • innovation and creativity are sparked
  • group stagnation is minimized
  • healthy debate and discussion are energizing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the 4 negative results of differences?

A
  • winners are produced at the expense of losers
  • polarization is fostered
  • energy is consumed unproductively
  • a short-term orientation takes hold
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the 4 phases of “mining group gold? OR What are the 4 segments of effective group facilitation?”

A
  • preplanning
  • start-up
  • move-out
  • wrap-up
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is developed in “PREPLANNING” phase of “mining group gold”?

A
  • PDORA
  • invite smallest number of people necessary
  • plan procedures to be employed
  • establish task-oriented behaviors, maintenance-oriented behaviors and gatekeeping processes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does “PDORA” stand for?

A
  • purpose of the session
  • desired outcomes
  • roles
  • agenda
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is involved in “START-UP” phase of “mining group gold”?

A
  • informal socialization
  • review PDORA
  • answer questions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is included in “MOVE-OUT” phase of “mining group gold”?

A
  • initiate a collaborative climate
  • maintaining a collaborative climate
  • concluding along the way
  • handling disruptive behavior
  • encourage constructive conflict
  • discourage destructive conflict
  • encourage process checks
  • don’t duck emotions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is accomplished during “WRAP-UP” phase of “mining group gold”?

A
  • tie up loose ends

- conduct critique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is power?

A

Influence potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does power do for a leader?

A

Gain compliance or commitment from others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the 2 types of power?

A
  • position

- personal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Where does position power come from?

A

The extent to which those people to whom managers report are willing to delegate authority and responsibility down to them

From above and flows down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is personal power?

A

The extent to which followers respect, feel good about and are committed to their leader, and see their own goals as being satisfied by the goals of their leader

Comes from below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How many “Bases of Power” are there?

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the power bases from low performance readiness to high readiness level?

A
  • coercive
  • connection
  • reward
  • legitimate
  • referent
  • information
  • expert
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How many position power bases are there?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the 4 position power bases and at what readiness levels/influence behaviors are they used at?

A
  • coercive, r1, s1
  • connection, r1-r2, s1-s2
  • reward, r2, s2
  • legitimate, r2-r3, s2-s3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is coercive power?

A

The perceived ability to provide sanctions, punishment or consequences for not performing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is connection power?

A

The perceived association of the leader with influential persons or organizations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is reward power?

A

The perceived ability to provide things that people would like to have

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is legitimate power?

A

The perception that it is appropriate for the leader to make decisions because of title, role or position in the organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How many personal power bases are there?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the 3 personal power bases are there and at what readiness levels/influence behaviors are they used at?

A
  • referent, r3, s3
  • information, r3-r4, s3-s4
  • expert, r4, s4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is referent power?

A

The perceived attractiveness of interacting with the leader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is information power?

A

The perceived access to, or possession of, useful information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is expert power?

A

The perception that the leader has relevant education, experience and expertise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How many performance readiness levels are there?

A

4 (r1-r4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is readiness level r1?

A

Unable AND insecure or unwilling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is readiness level r2?

A

Unable, BUT confident or willing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is readiness level r3?

A

Able, BUT insecure or unwilling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is readiness level r4?

A

Able AND confident and willing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How many influence behaviors are there?

A

4 (s1-s4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is influence behavior s1?

A

Telling (high task, low relationship)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is influence behavior s2?

A

Selling (high task, high relationship)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is influence behavior s3?

A

Participating (high relationship, low task)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is influence behavior s4?

A

Delegating (low relationship, low task)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the 4 elements of good order and discipline?

A
  • just
  • fair
  • consistent
  • equal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the 2 types of discipline?

A
  • punitive

- constructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the 5 discipline intervention guidelines?

A
  • timely
  • vary the emotional level
  • focus on performance
  • be specific
  • keep it private
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What does punishment do?

A

Prevents the recurrence of a behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What does negative reinforcement do?

A

Strengthens the response that eliminates the punishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the limitation of punishment?

A

It shows what not to do, but not what to do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is extinction?

A

Ignoring or taking no action toward a negative behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

In what situational leadership pane does the leader have a problem, but the follower does not?

A

S1

80
Q

In what situational leadership pane does both the leader and follower have a problem?

A

S2

81
Q

In what situational leadership pane does the follower have a problem, but the leader does not?

A

S3

82
Q

In what situational leadership pane does neither the leader or follower have a problem?

A

S4

83
Q

What are the 3 steps of positive discipline?

A
  • warn orally
  • warn in writing
  • let the individual decide
84
Q

What is leadership?

A

The process of inducing others to take action toward a common goal

85
Q

what is a group?

A

2 or more individuals interacting, in which the existence of all is necessary for the individual group members’ needs to be satisfied

86
Q

What are the 3 elements of leadership?

A
  • it is relational: exists only in relation to others
  • it is a process: leader must do something
  • it requires inducing others to take action
87
Q

What is the function of a leader?

A

Establish the basic vision (purpose, mission, overarching goal or agenda) of the organization

88
Q

What is the function of a manager?

A

Implement the leader’s vision

89
Q

What are the 2 types of leadership?

A
  • transformational

- transactional

90
Q

What is transformational leadership?

A

Leadership that changes the organization and motivates subordinates to work for “higher level” goals that transcend their immediate self interest

91
Q

What is transactional leadership?

A

Leadership that maintains or continues the status quo and involves an exchange process where followers get immediate, tangible rewards

92
Q

What are the 4 parts to the leadership model?

A
  • motives and traits
  • knowledge, skills and abilities
  • vision
  • implementation of the vision
93
Q

What are the two motives?

A
  • drive

- leadership motivation

94
Q

What are the 5 drive motives?

A
  • achievement
  • ambition
  • energy
  • tenacity
  • initiative
95
Q

What are the 2 types of leadership motivation?

A
  • socialized

- personalized

96
Q

What is the socialized leadership motivation?

A

Seeking power to meet a larger goal

97
Q

What is the personalized leadership motivation?

A

Seeking power for power

98
Q

What 2 things can cause a decrease in motive strength?

A
  • need satisfaction

- blocked need

99
Q

What 3 coping behaviors can result from blocked needs?

A
  • cognitive dissonance
  • frustration
  • increasing motive strength
100
Q

What are the 5 core traits?

A
  • honesty/integrity
  • self-confidence
  • originality/creativity
  • flexibility/adaptability
  • charisma
101
Q

What are the 2 aspects of leadership knowledge?

A
  • technical expertise

- knowledge of the organization and industry (gained through experience)

102
Q

What are the 2 skills?

A
  • people skills

- management skills

103
Q

What are the 5 people skills?

A
  • listening
  • oral communication
  • network-building
  • conflict management
  • assessment
104
Q

What are the 4 management skills?

A
  • problem-solving
  • decision-making
  • goal-setting
  • planning
105
Q

What is meant by “ability”?

A

Cognitive ability/intelligence

106
Q

What are the 4 aspects of the vision?

A
  • develop a vision statement
  • formulate the vision
  • promote commitment
  • develop a strategic vision
107
Q

What are the 7 parts of implementing a vision?

A
  • agenda development
  • structuring
  • motivating
  • managing information
  • team building
  • promoting change, innovation and risk-taking
108
Q

What are the 4 tenants of a vision?

A
  • brevity
  • clarity
  • abstractness
  • challenge
109
Q

What are the 4 stages of team growth?

A
  • forming
  • storming
  • norming
  • performing
110
Q

What happens during “forming” stage of team growth?

A

members cautiously explore the boundaries of acceptable group behavior

111
Q

What is included in “forming” stage of team growth?

A
  • pride in being chosen
  • excitement, anticipation, optimism
  • initial attachment
  • anxiety about the job ahead
  • define task and decide how to be accomplished
  • decide what information needed
  • determine acceptable team behavior
  • wait to be told what to do from leader
112
Q

What happens during “storming” stage of team growth?

A

team members begin to realize difficulty of task and become testy, anxious or overzealous

113
Q

What does “storming” stage of team growth include?

A
  • frustration and resistance to tasks and methods
  • sharp fluctuations in attitude
  • anxiety about or withdraw from conflict
  • arguing among members
  • being defensive and competitive
  • questioning wisdom of other members
  • establishing unrealistic goals
  • withdrawing
114
Q

What happens during “norming” stage of team growth?

A

members reconcile competing loyalties and responsibilities, and accept team ground rules (norms) or their roles on the team

115
Q

What is included in “norming” stage of team growth?

A
  • sense of team cohesion
  • acceptance of membership
  • relief
  • attempts to achieve harmony
  • experimenting with ways to raise and discuss differences of opinion
  • confiding in each other
  • expressing constructive criticism
  • maintaining team ground rules and boundaries (norms)
116
Q

What happens during “performing” stage of team growth?

A

the team has settled relationships and expectations, and performs consistently, diagnosing and solving problems, choosing and implementing changes

the team is an effective, cohesive unit

117
Q

What is included in “performing” stage of team growth?

A
  • insights into personal and group processes
  • better understanding of each members’ strengths and weaknesses
  • satisfaction at progress
  • close attachment to team
  • creating constructive self-change
  • preventing or working through group problems
118
Q

What are the 10 ingredients for a successful team?

A
  • clarity in team goals
  • a plan for improvement
  • clearly defined roles
  • clear communication
  • beneficial team behaviors
  • well-defined decision procedures
  • balanced participation
  • established ground rules
  • awareness of group process
  • use of the scientific approach
119
Q

What is conflict?

A

A state of disharmony; the opposition or simultaneous functioning of mutually exclusive impulses, desires or tendencies

120
Q

What is an incompatible activity?

A

One that prevents, blocks, interferes with, injures or in some way makes a second activity less likely or less effective

121
Q

What are the 7 benefits of conflict?

A
  • prevents stagnation
  • encourages change
  • prevents boredom
  • stimulates interest
  • adjusts balance of power
  • increases motivation
  • encourage creativity and innovation
122
Q

What is controversy?

A

A discussion, debate or dispute in which opposing opinions clash

123
Q

Why is controversy essential among group members?

A

It evolves involvement, creativity, commitment to task accomplishment and group maintenance, and high quality decisions

124
Q

What is the value of controversy?

A
  • Provides creative, high-quality decisions
  • builds commitment
  • encourages inquiry
  • promotes new and better alternatives
  • synthesize ideas
  • better understanding of self
  • opportunity to air differences
125
Q

What are the problems with win-lose rather than problem solving?

A
  • win at expense of others
  • see actions in terms of domination
  • deny legitimacy of others interests
  • force others to give in
  • winners find it hard to enforce implementation
  • cohesion decreases
  • maintenance problems
  • distrust
126
Q

What are the advantages of constructive controversy?

A
  • increases motivation
  • strengthens chances
  • develops critical thinking
127
Q

What are the 3 conflict responses?

A
  • avoidance
  • difusion
  • confrontation
128
Q

What is avoidance?

A

The tendency to repress emotional reactions, look the other way or leave the situation entirely

129
Q

What is difusion?

A

Trying to cool off the situation, at least temporarily, or to keep the issues so unclear that attempts at confrontation are improbable

130
Q

What is confrontation?

A

Can include power strategies including physical force, bribery, and punishment

131
Q

What are the 4 negotiation skills?

A
  • diagnosis
  • initiation
  • listening
  • problem-solving
132
Q

What is discounting?

A

Responding to a team member’s opinion or idea in such a way as to disregard it or consider it irrelevant

133
Q

What is communication?

A

The process of people sharing thoughts, ideas and feelings with each other in commonly understandable ways

134
Q

What are the 3 communication models?

A
  • one-way
  • circular
  • transaction
135
Q

What is the sender?

A

The source of the message

136
Q

What is the receiver?

A

The interpreter of the message

137
Q

What are the 2 things that must be present for a sender to want to communicate?

A
  • stimulus

- motivation

138
Q

What is encoding?

A

The process of putting a message into the form in which it will be communicated

139
Q

What is decoding?

A

The process the receiver goes through in trying to interpret the exact meaning of a message

140
Q

What is included in frame of reference?

A
  • educational background
  • race
  • cultural values
  • gender
  • life experiences
  • attitudes
  • personality
141
Q

What is the communication code?

A

The symbols that carry the message

142
Q

What are the 3 communication codes?

A
  • language
  • para language
  • non-verbal
143
Q

What is the channel?

A

The medium selected to carry the message

144
Q

What is channel richness?

A

The amount of information a channel can convey

145
Q

What is feedback?

A

Verbal and visual response to a message

146
Q

What is included in the communication environment?

A
  • time
  • place
  • physical surroundings
  • social surroundings
147
Q

What is noise?

A

Anything that interferes with communication by distorting or blocking the message

148
Q

What are the 2 types of communication systems?

A
  • formal

- informal

149
Q

What is the formal communication route?

A

The official path prescribed by an organization’s chain of command

150
Q

What is the informal communication route?

A

Communication that circumvents the chain of command based on friendships or specific information needs

151
Q

What is another name for the informal communication route?

A

The grapevine

152
Q

What are the 3 aspects of formal communication?

A
  • downward
  • upward
  • horizontal
153
Q

What is downward communication?

A

Messages that flow from managers and supervisors down to subordinates

154
Q

What is upward communication?

A

Messages that flow upward from subordinates to supervisors and managers

155
Q

What is horizontal communication?

A

Messages that flow laterally between people of the same rank

156
Q

What are the 6 barriers to good listening?

A
  • physical
  • personal
  • gender
  • age/generational
  • semantic
  • technology
157
Q

What are the 5 stages of listening?

A
  • sensing
  • interpreting
  • evaluating
  • responding
  • memory
158
Q

What is the sensing stage of listening?

A

Hearing what is important

159
Q

What is the interpreting stage of listening?

A

Assigning meaning to what is seen, heard and felt

160
Q

What is the evaluating stage of listening?

A

Determining speaker credibility and message importance

161
Q

What is the responding stage of listening?

A

Reacting to speech (usually nonverbal)

162
Q

What is the memory stage of listening?

A

Retaining parts of a message in memory

163
Q

What are the 7 signs of poor listening?

A
  • breaking the chain of command
  • learning about events too late
  • always putting out fires
  • information must be repeated
  • tasks given to others
  • increase in written communication
  • increase in poor listening habits
164
Q

What are task behaviors?

A

Behaviors that are concerned with a group’s effort to define and accomplish its desired outcomes

165
Q

How many task behaviors are there?

A

10

166
Q

What are the 3 task behavior subgroups?

A
  • initiating
  • processing
  • confirming
167
Q

What 2 behaviors are included in initiating?

A
  • proposing

- building

168
Q

What 5 behaviors are included in processing?

A
  • information seeking
  • opinion seeking
  • information giving
  • opinion giving
  • disagreeing
169
Q

What 3 behaviors are included in confirming?

A
  • summarizing
  • testing comprehension
  • consensus testing
170
Q

What are maintenance behaviors?

A

Behaviors to deal with the group’s effort to survive, regulate, grow and strengthen itself as an effective instrument for achieving its desired outcomes

171
Q

How many maintenance behaviors are there?

A

5

172
Q

What are the 2 maintenance behavior subgroups?

A
  • team cohesion

- performance improvement

173
Q

What is included in team cohesion?

A
  • encouraging
  • harmonizing
  • tension relieving
174
Q

What is included in performance improvement?

A
  • performance checking

- standard setting

175
Q

What methods are used to regulate participation?

A
  • gate-opening

- gate-closing

176
Q

What are the 7 brainstorming ground rules?

A
  • all criticism and evaluation ruled out
  • wild ideas are expected and accepted
  • the quantity of ideas count, not quality
  • build on other’s ideas when possible
  • Focus on the issue
  • make sure all members are heard
  • record all ideas
177
Q

What are the 3 ways to change the equilibrium of Lewin’s Force Field?

A
  • strengthen or add forces in the direction of change
  • reduce or remove restraining forces
  • change the direction of the forces
178
Q

What are the 5 steps to problem solving?

A
  • Define the problem
  • diagnose the problem
  • formulate alternative strategies
  • decide on and implement a strategy
  • evaluate the success of the solution and the group process
179
Q

What is “defining the problem”?

A

looking for and deciding on what the desired state is, what the actual state is and how they differ

180
Q

What is “diagnosing the problem”?

A

looking to see the size and the cause of the problem more clearly

181
Q

What is “formulating alternative strategies”?

A

generate strategies to decrease the strength or number of restraining forces, increase the strength or number of helping forces, or a combination of the two

182
Q

What is “deciding upon and implementing a strategy”?

A

decision making steps and solution implementation

183
Q

What is evaluating the success of the solution and the group process?

A

looking at 3 things:

  • group process
  • implementation process
  • consequences of the implementation
184
Q

What is “groupthink”?

A

An uncritical way of thinking, often characteristic of groups in which the desire to avoid conflict and reach agreement is more important than careful consideration of alternatives

185
Q

What are the 7 symptoms of groupthink?

A
  • illusion of invulnerability
  • shared stereotypes
  • rationalization
  • illusion of morality
  • self-censorship
  • illusion of unanimity
  • direct pressure
  • mind guarding
186
Q

What are 6 techniques to avoid groupthink?

A
  • bring in outside experts
  • all are critical evaluators
  • keep personal opinions to self until all have expressed their opinion
  • leader intentionally miss a meeting
  • impress importance of looking at many options
  • take a 2nd chance to rethink choice
187
Q

What are the 4 decision-making styles?

A
  • authoritative
  • consultative
  • facilitative
  • delegative
188
Q

What is “authoritative”?

A

leader makes decision and provides specific instructions

189
Q

What readiness level is the “authoritative style” used at?

A

R1

190
Q

What is “consultative”?

A

the leader makes and explains the decision and provides opportunity for dialogue and clarification

191
Q

What readiness level is the “consultative styles” used at?

A

R2

192
Q

What is “facilitative”?

A

the leader shares the problem and mutually makes decisions with follower(s)

193
Q

What readiness level is the “facilitative style” used at?

A

R3

194
Q

What is “delegative”?

A

the leader turns responsibility for decision over to follower(s)

195
Q

What readiness level is the “delegate style” used at?

A

R4

196
Q

What is a “facilitator”?

A

a person who helps a group to free itself from internal obstacles or difficulties so the meeting’s desired outcomes can be
pursued more efficiently and effectively.

197
Q

What is the benefit of learning and using interpersonal relationship skills?

A

results in greater commitment to desired outcome

SEA (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions