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TEAS > Science V2023 > Flashcards

Science V2023 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence when tracing the path of air from the upper respiratory tract?

A. Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles

B Nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles

C. Nasal cavity, bronchi, bronchioles, trachea, pharynx, larynx

D. Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi

A

A. Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles

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2
Q

Surface tension of the alveolar fluid is reduced by the secretion of ___by lung cells.

A. Sodium
B. Adrenaline
C. Surfactant
D. Histamine

A

C. Surfactant

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3
Q

Oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange occur across alveolar membrane by
A. Active transport
B. pinocytosis
C. diffusion
D. osmosis

A

C. diffusion

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4
Q

Contraction of the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles results in

A. decrease in volume of the thoracic cavity

B. decrease in alveolar pressure

C. increase in alveolar pressure

D. Forced expiration

A

B. decrease in alveolar pressure

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5
Q

Which has highest compliance?

A. Asthma
B. Bronchitis
C. Emphysema
D. Lung cancer

A

C. Emphysema

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6
Q

Sodium reduces surface tension of the alveolar fluid

True or False?

A

False

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7
Q

Adrenaline is a hormone of the endocrine system

True or False?

A

True

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8
Q

Histamine is secreted by white blood cell

True or False?

A

True

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9
Q

Active transport uses ATP

True or False?

A

True

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10
Q

Uptake by cells of fluids and solutes from the extracellular environment

A. Active transport
B. Pinocytosis
C. Diffusion
D. Osmosis

A

B. Pinocytosis

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11
Q

Movement of water down its concentration gradient. It is passive movement, but it requires transportation that specifically carry water

A. Active transport
B. Pinocytosis
C. Diffusion
D. Osmosis

A

D. Osmosis

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12
Q

A decrease in thoracic cavity volume is caused by

A. Forced expiraton
B. Increase in alveolar pressure
C. Decrease in alveolar pressure
D. relaxation of the diaphragm

A

D. relaxation of the diaphragm

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13
Q

Contraction of the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles results in

A. Forced expiraton
B. increased volume of the lung cavity & therefore decreased alveolar pressure due to Boyles law.
C. Increase in alveolar pressure
D. None of the above.

A

B. increased volume of the lung cavity & therefore decreased alveolar pressure due to Boyles law.

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14
Q

An increase in alveolar pressure results when the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles ___which decreases the lung volume and by Boyles law, __the alveolar pressure

A. contract and decrease
B. contact and increase
C. relax and increase
D. relax and decrease

A

C. relax and increase

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15
Q

Caused by contraction of the abdominal muscles

A. Active transport
B. Pinocytosis
C. Diffusion
D. Forced expiration

A

D. Forced expiration

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16
Q

Interferes with the ability of the lungs to expand, which is considered low compliance

A. Asthma and Bronchitis
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung Cancer
D. Asthma, Bronchitis and Lung Cancer

A

D. Asthma, Bronchitis and Lung Cancer

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17
Q

Erythrocyte function
A. Initiate blood clotting
B. Transport Oxygen and some carbon dioxide
C. Initiate conduction system of the heart
D. Defend the body against pathogens

A

B. Transport Oxygen and some carbon

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18
Q

Initiate blood clotting
A. Erythrocytes
B. Platelets
C. SA node
D. Leukocytes

A

B. Platelets

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19
Q

Initiate heart conduction system

A. Erythrocytes
B. Platelets
C. SA node
D. Leukocytes

A

C. SA node

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20
Q

Defend the body against pathogens
A. Erythrocytes
B. Platelets
C. SA node
D. Leukocytes

A

D. Leukocytes

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21
Q

Carry oxygenated blood
A. Superior Vena Cava
B. Inferior Vena Cava
C. Superior and Inferior Vena Cava
D. Pulmonary veins, and Aorta

A

D. Pulmonary Veins, Aorta

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22
Q

Carry deoxygenated blood
A. Superior Vena Cava only
B. Inferior Vena Cava only
C. Pulmonary arteries, Vena Cava
D. Pulmonary veins and Aorta

A

C. Pulmonary arteries, Vena Cava

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23
Q

Veins are farther away from the heart, so they experience __ pressure
A. Less
B. Greater

A

A. Less

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24
Q

Veins and Veins have the same amount of blood volume.

True or False

A

True

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25
Q

__ prevent backflow of blood

A

valves

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26
Q

__ Signifies contraction of the heart muscle
A. Systole
B. Diastole

A

A. Systole

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27
Q

__Signifies relaxation of the heart muscle

A. Systole
B. Diastole

A

B. Diastole

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28
Q

Proliferate in the bone marrow
A. Erythrocytes
B. Platelets
C. SA node
D. Leukocytes

A

A. Erythrocytes

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29
Q

Excess fluid is collected via

A. Erythrocytes
B. Platelets
C. Lymph capillaries
D. Leukocytes

A

C. Lymph capillaries

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30
Q

The __ system is responsible for proliferation of leukocytes

A. Cardiac
B. Skeletal
C. Nervous
D. Lymphatic

A

D. Lymphatic

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31
Q

Lymph fluid is filtered through
A. Erythrocytes
B. Platelets
C. White blood cells
D. Lymph nodes

A

D. Lymph nodes

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32
Q

__impulses are sent from the CNS to a muscle
A. Involunary
B. Afferent
C. Motor
D. Efferent
E. Sensory

A

C. Motor

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33
Q

__ impulses travel toward the CNS
A. Involunary
B. Afferent
C. Motor
D. Efferent
E. Sensory and Afferent

A

E. Sensory and afferent

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34
Q

__impulses travel away from the CNS
A. Involunary
B. Afferent
C. Efferent and motor
D. Sensory

A

C. Efferent and motor

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35
Q

__ neurons carry stimulus toward the CNS
A. Involunary
B. Afferent
C. Efferent and motor
D. Sensory

A

D. Sensory

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36
Q

__neurons carry impules away from CNS toward the musce.

A. Involunary
B. Afferent
C. Motor
D. Efferent
E. Sensory and Afferent

A

C. Motor

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37
Q

Which of the following make up CNS

A. Spinal cord
B. Peripheral Nervous System
C. Brain and spinal cord
D. Autonomic Division

A

C. Brain and spinal cord

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38
Q

The Spinal Cord is part of the CNS

True or False?

A

True

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39
Q

The autonomic division is part of the peripheral nervous system

True or False?

A

True

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40
Q

Chewing is controlled by
A. Involuntary system
B. Voluntary system
C. Sensory System
D. Motor system
E. Somatic System

A

B. Voluntary system

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41
Q

Voluntary and somatic are synonymous

True or False

A

True

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42
Q

Both chewing and digestion have sensory and motor components.

True or False?

A

True

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43
Q

Chewing is volunatary while digestion is involuntary

True or False?

A

True

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44
Q

Muscle contraction is stimulated by neurotransmitters at the __ synapse

A. Neuromuscular
B. Myosin
C. Actin
D. ATP

A

A. Neuromuscular

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45
Q

Actin and Mysosin change length during contraction.

True or False?

A

False

The do not change length when filaments slide past one another.

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46
Q

ATP is necessary for contraction and __for release of muscle.

A. Is
B. Is not

A

A. Is

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47
Q

The spinal cord carries signals to and from the peripheral nervous system, which includes __ and __ divisions

A. Autonomic and Peripheral
B. Autonomic only
C. Peripheral only
D. Autonomic and somatic
E. None of the above.

A

D. Autonomic and somatic

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48
Q

The __ is the tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder
A. Distal tubule
B. Collecting duct
C. Ureter
D. Urethra
E. All of the above.

A

C. Ureter

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49
Q

The __carries urine from the urinary bladder to outside of the body

A. Distal tubule
B. Collecting duct
C. Ureter
D. Urethra
E. All of the above.

A

D. Urethra

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50
Q

Rental cortex surrounds the

A. Distal tubule
B. Collecting duct
C. Ureter
D. Urethra
E. Rental medulla

A

E. Rental medulla

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51
Q

Antidiuretic hormone increases the amount of water reabsorbed from the collecting ducts. It results in __ concentrated urine.

A. Less
B. More

A

B. More

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52
Q

In the DNA double helix, the bases face __and form the rungs.

A. outward
B. Inward

A

B. Inward

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53
Q

The __ form the side of the ladder in the DNA double helix

A. Sugars
B. Phosphates
C. Carbons
D. Sugars and Phosphates
E. Carbons and Sugars

A

D. Sugars and Phosphates

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54
Q

The double helix is like a twisted ladder with its ___ backbone forming the sides of the ladder and the __bases forming the rungs.

A. Sugar and Phosphate
B. Sugar phosphate and Carbon
C. Sugar-phosphate and nitrogenous
D. Nitrogen and Sugar- phosphate

A

C. Sugar-phosphate and nitrogenous

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55
Q

The DNA double helix looks like a ladder twisted around it’s central axis, not a long straight ladder

True or False?

A

True

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56
Q

Chromosomes contain __ genes

A. few
B. One
C. many
D. Two

A

C. many

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57
Q

A __ encodes a functional molecule

A. Chromosome
B. Sugar phosphate
C. Ribosomes
D. Gene
E. Rough ER

A

D. Gene

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58
Q

What is wrong with this statement?

The complementary strand of bases in a gene is used to make a template strand called mRNA, which is read by a Ribosome to make a chain of amino acids that folds into a protein.

A

The words complementary and template have been switched.

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59
Q

DNA»RNA»Protein
is a symbolic way to describe the process of reading a __ sequence, making an MRNA copy which ribosomes use to make a protein

A. Chromosome
B. Sugar phosphate
C. Ribosomes
D. Gene
E. Rough ER

A

D. Gene

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60
Q

What is wrong with this statement?

The sequence of amino acids in a gene is used to make a mRNA copy which is read by a ribosome to make a chain of bases that told into a protein.

A. Chromosome
B. Sugar phosphate
C. Ribosomes
D. Gene
E. Rough ER

A

The words amino acids and bases have been switched

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61
Q

The genetic code is related to protein synthesis and __ involved in chromosome replication

A. is
B. is not

A

B. is not

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62
Q

__is a phase of the cell cycle when replicated chromosomes are separated into opposite ends of a cell just before the cell divides in two.

A. Meiosis
B. Osmosis
C. Mitosis
D. Diffusion

A

C. Mitosis

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63
Q

Unless the molecule is in a substance undergoing a phase change, there is a positive relationship between the amount of energy it gains and the amount of its temperature elevation.

True or False?

A

True

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64
Q

Constant volume but not a constant shape
A. Solid
B. Gas
C. Liquid
D. All of the above.

A

B. Gas

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65
Q

State of matter has a constant volume but not a constant shape

A. Solid
B. Gas
C. Liquid
D. All of the above.

A

C. Liquid

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66
Q

Both temperature and the amount of pressure the substance is subjected to are necessary variables for determining substance state by way of a phase diagram

True or False?

A

True

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67
Q

Transition of a solid to liquid
A. Melting
B. Sublimation
C. Condensation
D. Freezing
E. Critical point

A

A. Melting

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68
Q

__ happens when pressure and temperature on the phase diagram border between solid and gas. This is below the triple point.

A. Melting
B. Sublimation
C. Condensation
D. Freezing
E. Critical point

A

B. Sublimation

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69
Q

Transition of gas to liquid
A. Melting
B. Sublimation
C. Condensation
D. Freezing
E. Critical point

A

C. Condensation

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70
Q

Transition of a liquid to a solid

A. Melting
B. Sublimation
C. Condensation
D. Freezing
E. Critical point

A

D. Freezing

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71
Q

The __ is the temperature and pressure at which liquid and gas (but not solid) phases of a pure substance coexist.

A. Melting
B. Sublimation
C. Condensation
D. Freezing
E. Critical point

A

E. Critical point

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72
Q

Which of the following is a part of the adaptive immune system?
A. Antimicrobials
B. Mucus
C. Commensal micro-organisms
D. B-cells

A

D. B-cells

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73
Q

Unlike the adaptive immune system’s production of antibodies to specific pathogens, ___ are a generalized defense of the innate immune system

A. Antimicrobials
B. Mucus
C. Commensal micro-organisms
D. B-cells

A

A. Antimicrobials

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74
Q

An external barrier to pathogens and is part of the innate immune system
A. Antimicrobials
B. Mucus
C. Commensal micro-organisms
D. B-cells

A

B. Mucus

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75
Q

Microscopic organisms that live in or on the human body without causing it harm. The are part of the innate immune system.

A. Antimicrobials
B. Mucus
C. Commensal micro-organisms
D. B-cells

A

C. Commensal micro-organisms

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76
Q

Produce antibodies in response to specific pathogens and are part of the adaptive immune system

A. Antimicrobials
B. Mucus
C. Commensal micro-organisms
D. B-cells

A

D. B-cells

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77
Q

Which of the following is a white blood cell that has the primary job of ingesting foreign material?

A. B-cell
B. Helper T-cell
C. Macrophage
D. Basophil

A

C. Macrophage

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78
Q

Lymphoctyes that mature in bone marrow and make anti-bodies in response to antigens

A. B-cell
B. Helper T-cell
C. Macrophage
D. Basophil

A

A. B-cell

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79
Q

Lymphocytes that secrete interleukins, a protein that triggers the action of other cells, including the attack of foreign cells by the cytotoxic T-cell

A. B-cell
B. Helper T-cell
C. Macrophage
D. Basophil

A

B. Helper T-cell

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80
Q

Large white blood cell that ingests foreign material

A. B-cell
B. Helper T-cell
C. Macrophage
D. Basophil

A

C. Macrophage

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81
Q

Releases histamine that is involved in the flammatory response.

A. B-cell
B. Helper T-cell
C. Macrophage
D. Basophil

A

D. Basophil

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82
Q

Which of the following stimulates the production of antibodies?

A. Immunoglobulin
B. Interferon
C. Vaccine
D. Cytokines

A

C. Vaccine

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83
Q

Synonym for antibody
A. Immunoglobulin
B. Interferon
C. Vaccine
D. Cytokines

A

A. Immunoglobulin

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84
Q

Protein secreted by leukocytes when they are infected with viruses

A. Immunoglobulin
B. Interferon
C. Vaccine
D. Cytokines

A

B. Interferon

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85
Q

Cell signaling molecules released primarily by helper T-cells and macrophages. Certain cytokines activate cytotoxic T-cells

A. Immunoglobulin
B. Interferon
C. Vaccine
D. Cytokines

A

D. Cytokines

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86
Q

Which of the following types of defense can be gained through the placenta, breast milk, or by receiving a serum containing antibodies?
A. Cell-mediated immunity
B. Innate immunity
C. Passive immunity
D. Nonspecific response immunity

A

C. Passive immunity

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87
Q

Type of adaptive immunity in which T-cells attack parasitic worms, cancer cells, transplanted tissues or cells that contain pathogens

A. Cell-mediated immunity
B. Innate immunity
C. Passive immunity
D. Nonspecific response immunity

A

A. Cell-mediated immunity

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88
Q

Collection of nonspecific barriers and cellular responses that serve as an inborn 1st and 2nd line of defense against pathogens

A. Cell-mediated immunity
B. Innate immunity
C. Passive immunity
D. Nonspecific response immunity

A

B. Innate immunity

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89
Q

Temporarily can be gained naturally

A. Cell-mediated immunity
B. Innate immunity
C. Passive immunity
D. Nonspecific response immunity

A

C. Passive immunity

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90
Q

Regardless of how particular antibodies became present in a body, is a response to a specific antigen rather than being a nonspecific response

A

D. Nonspecific response immunity

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91
Q

Which of the following processes occurs during tubular reabsorption?

A. Urine from filtrate moves back into the bloodstream
B. Renin from urine moves back into the bloodstream
C. Useful material moves from filtrate back into the bloodstream
D. Filtrate from the bloodstream moves back into urine

A

C. Useful material moves from filtrate back into the bloodstream

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92
Q

Urine is the liquid waste excreted by the __. it is not reabsorbed into the bloodstream.

A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Filtrate
D. Baroreceptors
E. Renin

A

A. Kidney

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93
Q

An enzyme released by the kidneys when reduced blood pressure is detected by __ in the aorta and carotid arteries.

A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Filtrate
D. Baroreceptors
E. Renin

A

D. Baroreceptors

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94
Q

Composed of materials, including water, that leave the blood through the walls of the glomerular capillaries to enter the Bowman’s capsule.

A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Filtrate
D. Baroreceptors
E. Renin

A

C. Filtrate

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95
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the function of a structure in the circulatory system?

A. The aorta contains oxygen-poor blood
B. The pulmonary vein takes blood away from the heart
C. The pulmonary artery takes blood away from the lungs
D. The pulmonary artery contains oxygen-poor blood.

A

D. The pulmonary artery contains oxygen-poor blood.

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96
Q

Contains oxygen-rich blood
A. Pulmonary veins
B. Pulmonary arteries
C. Aorta

A

C. Aorta

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97
Q

Takes blood to the heart. Contains oxygen-rich blood

A. Pulmonary vein
B. Pulmonary artery
C. Aorta

A

A. Pulmonary vein

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98
Q

Takes blood away from the heart. Contains oxygen-poor blood

A. Pulmonary vein
B. Pulmonary artery
C. Aorta

A

B. Pulmonary arteries

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99
Q

Carries blood away from the heart to lungs. Contains oxygen-poor blood.

A. Pulmonary vein
B. Pulmonary artery
C. Aorta

A

B. Pulmonary artery

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100
Q

Which of the following structures of the heart contains oxygen-rich blood?
A. Superior vena cava
B. Right ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Pulmonary veins

A

D. Pulmonary veins

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101
Q

Delivers oxygen-poor blood to the right atrium

A. Superior vena cava
B. Right ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Pulmonary veins

A

A. Superior vena cava

102
Q

Contains oxygen-poor blood from the right atrium

A. Superior vena cava
B. Right ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Pulmonary veins

A

B. Right ventricle

103
Q

Contains oxygen-poor blood delivered by the superior vena cava

A. Superior vena cava
B. Right ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Pulmonary veins

A

C. Right atrium

104
Q

Brings oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the left atrium

A. Superior vena cava
B. Right ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Pulmonary veins

A

D. Pulmonary veins

105
Q

Which of the following components of the blood carries oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body?

A. Plasma
B. Lymphocytes
C. Leukocytes
D. Hemoglobin

A

D. Hemoglobin

106
Q

Clear, pale yellow component of blood that carries blood cells and platelets throughout the body.

A. Plasma
B. Lymphocytes
C. Leukocytes
D. Hemoglobin

A

A. Plasma

107
Q

White blood cell found in lymph

A. Plasma
B. Lymphocytes
C. Leukocytes
D. Hemoglobin

A

B. Lymphocytes

108
Q

White blood cells that protect the body against disease

A. Plasma
B. Lymphocytes
C. Leukocytes
D. Hemoglobin

A

C. Leukocytes

109
Q

Protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body

A. Plasma
B. Lymphocytes
C. Leukocytes
D. Hemoglobin

A

D. Hemoglobin

110
Q

Which of the following liquids emulsifies lipids during digestion?

A. Chyme
B. Saliva
C. Bile
D. Amylase

A

C. Bile

111
Q

Partially digested liquid in the stomach that results from the combination of digestive juices and boluses of food

A. Chyme
B. Saliva
C. Bile
D. Amylase

A

A. Chyme

112
Q

Enzymes contained within are unable to emulsify lipids

A. Chyme
B. Saliva
C. Bile
D. Amylase

A

B. Saliva

113
Q

Product of the liver that is stored by the gallbladder and is able to emulsify lipids during digestion.

A. Chyme
B. Saliva
C. Bile
D. Amylase

A

C. Bile

114
Q

Both salivary __ and pancreatic __ are enzymes that break down starch.

A. Chyme
B. Saliva
C. Bile
D. Amylase

A

D. Amylase

115
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the involuntary waves of contractions in the digestive system that move food through the gastrointestinal tract?

A. Retroperistalsis
B. Gastric reflux
C. Segmentation
D. Peristalsis

A

D. Peristalsis

116
Q

Causes vomiting and does not move food through the gastrointestinal tract.

A. Retroperistalsis
B. Gastric reflux
C. Segmentation
D. Peristalsis

A

A. Retroperistalsis

117
Q

Is reverse peristalsis

A. Retroperistalsis
B. Gastric reflux
C. Segmentation
D. Peristalsis

A

A. Retroperistalsis

118
Q

Does not move food through the gastrointestinal tract. One cause is the failure of the sphincter between the esophogaus and stomach to maintain sufficient constriction.

A. Retroperistalsis
B. Gastric reflux
C. Segmentation
D. Peristalsis

A

B. Gastric reflux

119
Q

Contractions constrict the intestine into segments to allow the chyme to fully mix. They do not move food through the gastrointestinal tract.

A. Retroperistalsis
B. Gastric reflux
C. Segmentation
D. Peristalsis

A

C. Segmentation

120
Q

Involuntary contraction of the smooth muscle of the gastrointestinal tract. It squeezes food along within the digestive tract.

A. Retroperistalsis
B. Gastric reflux
C. Segmentation
D. Peristalsis

A

D. Peristalsis

121
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the part of the nervous system that causes skeletal muscle contractions?

A. Involuntary division
B. Somatic division
C. Autonomic division
D. Visceral division

A

B. Somatic division

122
Q

Controls involuntary actions in the body

A. Involuntary division
B. Somatic division
C. Autonomic division
D. Visceral division

A

C. Autonomic division

123
Q

Synonymous with the autonomic division

A. Involuntary division
B. Somatic division
C. Autonomic division
D. Visceral division

A

D. Visceral division

124
Q

Renal arteries are defined as which of the following?

A. Branches of the inferior vena cava that supply the kidneys
B. Branches of the abdominal aorta that supply the kidneys
C. Blood vessels that carry blood from the kidneys to the inferior vena cava
D. Blood vessels that carry blood from the kidneys to the abdominal aorta.

A

B. Branches of the abdominal aorta that supply the kidneys

125
Q

Two branches of the abdominal aorta that supply the kidneys
A. Renal arteries
B. Renal veins

A

A. Renal arteries

126
Q

Blood vessels that carries blood from a kidney to the inferior vena cava

A. Renal arteries
B. Renal veins

A

B. Renal veins

127
Q

Which of the following results from a deficit in the production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone?

A. There is an overproduction of thryroid-stimulating hormone
B. The thyroid gland becomes overactive
C. An overproduction of growth hormone will cause excessive growth
D. The thyroid gland does not produce a sufficient amount of its primary hormone.

A

D. The thyroid gland does not produce a sufficient amount of its primary hormone.

128
Q

A deficit in the production of Thyrotropin-releasing hormone causes a deficit in the production of
A. Thyroid hormone
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Gigantism

A

A. Thyroid hormone

129
Q

Caused by an overproduction of thyroid hormone. A deficit in the production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone causes a deficit in the production of thyroid hormone.

A. Thyroid hormone
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Gigantism

A

B. Hyperthyroidism

130
Q

Excessive growth resulting from overproduction of growth hormone.

A. Thyroid hormone
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Gigantism

A

C. Gigantism

131
Q

Thyrotroin-releasing hormone triggers the __ of thyroid hormone from the thyroid gland

A. Reduction
B. Production

A

B. Production

132
Q

Which of the following hormones is released and stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth?

A. Follicle-stimulating
B. Glucagon
C. Oxytocin
D. Thyroid

A

C. Oxytocin

133
Q

Hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary that stimulates development of eggs in the ovaries and sperm in the testes.

A. Follicle-stimulating
B. Glucagon
C. Oxytocin
D. Thyroid

A

A. Follicle-stimulating

134
Q

Hormone secreted by the pancreas that stimulates its target cells in the liver to convert hepatic glycogen stores into glucose and release that glucose into the blood.

A. Follicle-stimulating
B. Glucagon
C. Oxytocin
D. Thyroid

A

B. Glucagon

135
Q

Hormone made by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary.

A. Follicle-stimulating
B. Glucagon
C. Oxytocin
D. Thyroid

A

C. Oxytocin

136
Q

Secretes hormones that regulates growth, development and metabolic rate

A. Follicle-stimulating
B. Glucagon
C. Oxytocin
D. Thyroid

A

D. Thyroid

137
Q

Which of the following is a mechanism that stimulates glandular secretions to continue, temporarily pushing levels further out of homeostasis, until a particular biological effect is reached?

A. Thermoregulation
B. Negative feedback
C. Puberty
D. Positive feedback

A

D. Positive feedback

138
Q

Process that animals maintain consistent internal temperature

A. Thermoregulation
B. Negative feedback
C. Puberty
D. Positive feedback

A

A. Thermoregulation

139
Q

Mechanism that monitors for specific homeostatic levels and signals glands to stimulate or inhibit secretions in order to maintain homestasis or initiate compensatons.

A. Thermoregulation
B. Negative feedback
C. Puberty
D. Positive feedback

A

B. Negative feedback

140
Q

Physiological period in which changes in hormone levels cause a general “growth spurt” and development of secondary sex characteristics.

A. Thermoregulation
B. Negative feedback
C. Puberty
D. Positive feedback

A

C. Puberty

141
Q

Ie: Expulsion of the fetus during childbirth

A. Thermoregulation
B. Negative feedback
C. Puberty
D. Positive feedback

A

D. Positive feedback

142
Q

Inhibited function of the sweat glands could result in which of the following?

A. Loss of the ability to regulate body temperature
B. Absorption of metabolic waste through the skin
C. Increase production of protective oils
D. Decreased integumental vasodilation

A

A. Loss of the ability to regulate body temperature

143
Q

Major mechanism of thermoregulation. It is one way that the skin helps to lower body temperature into homeostatic ranges.

A. Sweating
B. Renal system
C. Sebum
D. Vasodilation only

A

A. Sweating

144
Q

The skin, __ and diffusion at the alveoli are three ways that metabolic waste can leave blood that has been carried in veins near the skin.

A. Sweating
B. Renal system
C. Sebum
D. Vasodilation only

A

B. Renal system

145
Q

Not produced by the sweat glands. Rather produced by sebaceous glands.

A. Sweating
B. Renal system
C. Sebum
D. Vasodilation only

A

C. Sebum

146
Q

Causes increased blood flow that allows for greater heat loss from the body. It typically works in tandem with sweating. However, it is not dependent upon sweating.

A. Sweating
B. Renal system
C. Sebum
D. Vasodilation

A

D. Vasodilation

147
Q

Which of the following provides a practical means of warming the body via integumental thermoregulation?

A. Cutaneous vasodilation
B. Sweating
C. Cutaneous vasoconstriction
D. Tensing of the arrector pili muscles

A

C. Cutaneous vasoconstriction

148
Q

Increases in the diameter of blood vessels in the dermis that increases blod flow through the skin, which allows the warm blood from the core of the body to release heat through the skin. It has the effect of lowering body temperature.

A. Cutaneous vasodilation
B. Sweating
C. Cutaneous vasoconstriction
D. Tensing of the arrector pili muscles
E. Evaporation

A

A. Cutaneous vasodilation

149
Q

__of sweat produced during perspiration has the effect of lowering body temperature

A. Cutaneous vasodilation
B. Sweating
C. Cutaneous vasoconstriction
D. Tensing of the arrector pili muscles
E. Evaporation

A

E. Evaporation

150
Q

Decrease in the diameter of blood vessels in the dermis that reduces blood flow through the skin. It minimizes heat loss from blood through the skin.

A. Cutaneous vasodilation
B. Sweating
C. Cutaneous vasoconstriction
D. Tensing of the arrector pili muscles
E. Evaporation

A

A. Cutaneous vasodilation

151
Q

Generates heat and causes hair to “stand on end”, trapping heat in the airspace near the skin. However, the practical effect ___on heat generation is minimal for humans compared to other mammals.

A. Cutaneous vasodilation
B. Sweating
C. Cutaneous vasoconstriction
D. Tensing of the arrector pili muscles
E. Evaporation

A

D. Tensing of the arrector pili muscles

152
Q

Which of the following is a result of inhibited osteoblast function at the epiphyseal plate?

A. Mineralization will not occur in this location
B. A pathological overabundance of collagen will be produced in this location
C. Hydroxyapatite will be deposited in this location
D. The periosteum will develop at a pathological rate.

A

A. Mineralization will not occur in this location

153
Q

Bone cells that produce secretions blocking the inhibition of mineralization that takes place elsewhere in the body.

A. Osteoblasts
B. Hydroxyapatite
C. Periosteum

A

A. Osteoblasts

154
Q

Produce a highly organized collagen matrix to which extracellular hydroxyapatite binds.

A. Osteoblasts
B. Hydroxyapatite
C. Periosteum

A

A. Osteoblasts

155
Q

Calcium phosphate salt that mineralizes bones

A. Osteoblasts
B. Hydroxyapatite
C. Periosteum

A

B. Hydroxyapatite

156
Q

Thin layer that surrounds bone and is the surface for attachment of tendons and ligaments.

A. Osteoblasts
B. Hydroxyapatite
C. Periosteum

A

C. Periosteum

157
Q

If mineral resportion is prevented, and calcium is not removed from bone, which of the following occurs?

A. The resulting pathology is called hypocalcemia.
B. The pathology of tetany can be prevented.
C. The resulting pathology is called achondroplastic dwarfism.
D. The resulting pathology is called hydroxyapatite.

A

A. The resulting pathology is called hypocalcemia.

158
Q

Deficit in plasma calcium. Caused when calcium is not liberated from bone to be allowed to enter the blood.

A. Hypocalcemia
B. Tetany
C. Achondroplastic dwarfism
D. Hydroxyapatite.

A

A. Hypocalcemia

159
Q

Involuntary and continuous contraction of skeletal muscle. It can be caused by hypocalcemia of plasma.

A. Hypocalcemia
B. Tetany
C. Achondroplastic dwarfism
D. Hydroxyapatite.

A

B. Tetany

160
Q

Resulting in short stature of individuals when the epiphyseal plate stops growing at a premature age.

A. Hypocalcemia
B. Tetany
C. Achondroplastic dwarfism
D. Hydroxyapatite.

A

C. Achondroplastic dwarfism

161
Q

which of the following terms refers to a self contained part of an organism that performs a specific function?

A. Tissue
B. Organ
C. Organelle
D. Organ system

A

B. Organ

162
Q

Group of cells with similar structure that function together as a unit, but at a lower level than organs.

A. Tissue
B. Organ
C. Organelle
D. Organ system

A

A. Tissue

163
Q

Specialized part of a cell that has a specific function

A. Tissue
B. Organ
C. Organelle
D. Organ system

A

C. Organelle

164
Q

Functional groups of organs that work together within the body.

A. Tissue
B. Organ
C. Organelle
D. Organ system

A

D. Organ system

165
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the small passages of the respiratory system that terminate in air sacs?

A. Bronchioles
B. Pleura
C. Alveoli
D. Bronchi

A

A. Bronchioles

166
Q

Membranes around the lungs that also line the inside of the chest cavity.

A. Bronchioles
B. Pleura
C. Alveoli
D. Bronchi

A

B. Pleura

167
Q

Tiny air sacs in the lungs where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place.

A. Bronchioles
B. Pleura
C. Alveoli
D. Bronchi

A

C. Alveoli

168
Q

Two main passageways directly attached to the lungs. They connect the trachea and bronchioles.

A. Bronchioles
B. Pleura
C. Alveoli
D. Bronchi

A

D. Bronchi

169
Q

Which of the following scenarios would result in a human zygote containing 47 chromosomes instead of the typical 46 chromosomes?

A. The chromosomes do not separate properly during mitosis.
B. The chromosomes do not separate properly during meiosis.
C. A second sperm fertilizes the ovum
D. They zygote replicates the DNA of the one additional chromosome after fertilization.

A

B. The chromosomes do not separate properly during meiosis.

170
Q

Occurs during gamete production

A. Meiosis
B. Mitosis
C. Ovum
D. DNA

A

A. Meiosis

171
Q

Divides the number of chromosomes compared to body cells. If chromosomes do not separate properly, atypical numbers of chromosomes can result in gametes.

A. Meiosis
B. Mitosis
C. Ovum
D. DNA

A

A. Meiosis

172
Q

Once an __ is fertilized, it cannot be fertilized by a second sperm. If it was, there would be more than one additional chromosome added to the zygote.

A. Meiosis
B. Mitosis
C. Ovum
D. DNA

A

C. Ovum

173
Q

when replication occurs, the __ of the whole karyotype is duplicated.

A. Meiosis
B. Mitosis
C. Ovum
D. DNA

A

D. DNA

174
Q

Which of the following structures transports female gametes?

A. Urethra
B. Vas deferens
C. Fallopian Tube
D. Cervix

A

C. Fallopian Tube

175
Q

Carries urine in females and is not associated with a reproduction function.

A. Urethra
B. Vas deferens
C. Fallopian Tube
D. Cervix

A

A. Urethra

176
Q

Male structure that carries sperm from the testes

A. Urethra
B. Vas deferens
C. Fallopian Tube
D. Cervix

A

B. Vas deferens

177
Q

Passageway that forms the lower part of the uterus

A. Urethra
B. Vas deferens
C. Fallopian Tube
D. Cervix

A

D. Cervix

178
Q

Which of the following processes occurs within the cell nucleus?

A. Translation of mRNA into a protein
B. Charging of tRNA with amino acid
C. Production of rRNA for cell division
D. Transcription producing mRNA

A

D. Transcription producing mRNA

179
Q

Translation of mRNA into a protein occurs on

A. Ribosomes
B. Cytoplasm
C. Nucleolus
D. cell nucleus

A

A. Ribosomes

180
Q

Charging of tRNA with amino acid occurs in the

A. Ribosomes
B. Cytoplasm
C. Nucleolus
D. cell nucleus

A

B. Cytoplasm

181
Q

Production of rRNA for cell division occurs in the

A. Ribosomes
B. Cytoplasm
C. Nucleolus
D. cell nucleus

A

C. Nucleolus

182
Q

Transcription producing mRNA occurs within __. Transcription directly uses DNA as a template, which is located in the nucleus.

A. Ribosomes
B. Cytoplasm
C. Nucleolus
D. cell nucleus

A

D. cell nucleus

183
Q

Which of the following describes the function of acetylcholine in a neuromuscular junction?

A. Binds to receptor proteins on the sarcolemma, which results in the opening of sodium channels.
B. Slows the action potential along the sarcolemma
C. Opens calcium channels in the axon terminal, which results in the release of sodium into the neuromuscular junction
D. Results in repolarization of the sarcolemma

A

A. Binds to receptor proteins on the sarcolemma, which results in the opening of sodium channels.

184
Q

Triggers depolarization of the sarcolemma, which initiates action potential.

A. Acetylcholine
B. Action potential
C. Voltage-gated
D. Repolarization

A

A. Acetylcholine

185
Q

Acetylcholine initiates __, rather than slowing it down.

A. Acetylcholine
B. Action potential
C. Voltage-gated
D. Repolarization

A

B. Action potential

186
Q

The calcium channels are ___, not triggered by acetylcholine. The release of acetylcholine is triggered by calcium ions entering the axon terminal, not the other way around.

A. Acetylcholine
B. Action potential
C. Voltage-gated
D. Repolarization

A

C. Voltage-gated

187
Q

Which of the following is the function of myelin in the nervous system?

A. To secrete neurotransmitters
B. To insulate axons
C. To produce melanin
D. To provide nutrition to cell bodies

A

B. To insulate axons

188
Q

Secreted by neurons

A. Myelin
B. Neurotransmitters
C. Axons
D. Melanin
E. Astrocytes

A

B. Neurotransmitters

189
Q

Protective sheath around some axons

A. Myelin
B. Neurotransmitters
C. Axons
D. Melanin
E. Astrocytes

A

A. Myelin

190
Q

__in the brain is produced in the cell body of the neuron

A. Myelin
B. Neurotransmitters
C. Axons
D. Melanin
E. Astrocytes

A

D. Melanin

191
Q

Nutrition is provided to cell bodies by

A. Myelin
B. Neurotransmitters
C. Axons
D. Melanin
E. Astrocytes

A

E. Astrocytes

192
Q

Which of the following is considered the fundamental contraction unit of striated muscle?

A. Sarcomere
B. Sarcolemma
C. Intercalated disk
D. I band

A

A. Sarcomere

193
Q

Contains actin and myosin, which slide past one another resulting in contractions

A. Sarcomere
B. Sarcolemma
C. Intercalated disk
D. I band

A

A. Sarcomere

194
Q

Muscle cell membrain which does not produce contractions.

A. Sarcomere
B. Sarcolemma
C. Intercalated disk
D. I band

A

B. Sarcolemma

195
Q

Connection which joins one cardiac muscle cell to another, but it does not produce contractions.

A. Sarcomere
B. Sarcolemma
C. Intercalated disk
D. I band

A

C. Intercalated disk

196
Q

An area of a sarcomere that becomes narrower during contractions, but it does not produce contractions.

A. Sarcomere
B. Sarcolemma
C. Intercalated disk
D. I band

A

D. I band

197
Q

Which of the following hormones inhibits osteoblasts and stimulates osteoclasts to increase blood calcium levels?

A. Insulin
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Oxytocin
D. Luteinizing hormone

A

B. Parathyroid hormone

198
Q

Increases blood glucose levels, but has no effect on blood calcium levels.

A. Insulin
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Oxytocin
D. Luteinizing hormone

A

A. Insulin

199
Q

Causes an increase in blood calcium levels by promoting release of calcium from the bone into the bloodstream

A. Insulin
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Oxytocin
D. Luteinizing hormone

A

B. Parathyroid hormone

200
Q

Stimulates uterine contractions and milk ejection, but has no effect on blood calcium levels.

A. Insulin
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Oxytocin
D. Luteinizing hormone

A

C. Oxytocin

201
Q

Affects the levels of estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone in the bloodstream, but has no effect on blood calcium levels.

A. Insulin
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Oxytocin
D. Luteinizing hormone

A

D. Luteinizing hormone

202
Q

According to the sliding filament theory, which ion binds with troponin on the actin myofilaments, causing myosin-binding sites to be exposed?

A. Calcium
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Magnesium
E. Sodium and potassium

A

A. Calcium

203
Q

Change the polarity of the sarcolemma, but they do not directly bind with troponin.

A. Calcium
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Magnesium
E. Sodium and potassium

A

E. Sodium and potassium

204
Q

Stimulates calcium reuptake, which prevents a constant state of muscle contraction.

A. Calcium
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Magnesium
E. Sodium and potassium

A

D. Magnesium

205
Q

Which of the following cell types can differentiate to become several other types of cells?

A. Stem cells
B. Gametocytes
C. Mast cells
D. Leukocytes

A

A. Stem cells

206
Q

Specialized cells in the reproduction system that divide to form the gametes.

A. Stem cells
B. Gametocytes
C. Mast cells
D. Leukocytes

A

B. Gametocytes

207
Q

Specialized cells in the immune system

A. Stem cells
B. Gametocytes
C. Mast cells
D. Leukocytes

A

C. Mast cells

208
Q

Specialized cells in the immune system

A. Stem cells
B. Gametocytes
C. Mast cells
D. Leukocytes

A

D. Leukocytes

209
Q

Viral DNA that has been inserted into the host DNA would be found in which of the following?

A. Mitochondria
B. Vacuoles
C. Nucleus
D. Ribosomes

A

C. Nucleus

210
Q

Contain mitochondria DNA but is not the target of viral DNA.

A. Mitochondria
B. Vacuoles
C. Nucleus
D. Ribosomes

A

A. Mitochondria

211
Q

Do not contain the host DNA

A. Mitochondria
B. Vacuoles
C. Nucleus
D. Ribosomes

A

B. Vacuoles

212
Q

Contains the host DNA

A. Mitochondria
B. Vacuoles
C. Nucleus
D. Ribosomes

A

C. Nucleus

213
Q

Creates proteins, but these proteins are not the target of viral DNA

A. Mitochondria
B. Vacuoles
C. Nucleus
D. Ribosomes

A

D. Ribosomes

214
Q

Which of the following is a unique feature of mitosis?

A. Generation of variation
B. Production of identical daughter cells
C. Formation of synaponemal complex
D. Reduction in number of chromosomes.

A

B. Production of identical daughter cells

215
Q

Genetic variation is the result of

A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis

A

B. Meiosis

216
Q

Production of identical daughter cells

A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis

A

A. Mitosis

217
Q

Only present during ___
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis

A

B. Meiosis

218
Q

The number of chromosomes in each daughter cell remains the same as in the parent cell

A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis

A

A. Mitosis

219
Q

Which of the following macromolecule groups contain enzymes?

A. Amino acids
B. Lipids
C. Proteins
D. Carbohydrate

A

C. Proteins

220
Q

Monomers of proteins and not a general macromolecule category

A. Amino acids
B. Lipids
C. Proteins
D. Carbohydrate

A

A. Amino acids

221
Q

Enzymes are a kind of

A. Amino acids
B. Lipids
C. Proteins
D. Carbohydrate

A

C. Proteins

222
Q

Include fats, oils, waxes and sterols.

A. Amino acids
B. Lipids
C. Proteins
D. Carbohydrate

A

B. Lipids

223
Q

How does genetic information result in linking a particular sequence of amino acids to make a protein?

A. DNA serves as a template for the production of messenger RNA, and transfer RNA molecules serve as “bridges” between that mRNA and amino acids.
B. DNA serves as a template for the production of transfer RNA, and messenger RNA molecules serve as “bridges” between transfer RNA and amino acids
C. DNA serves as a template for the production of messenger RNA, and transfer RNA molecules serve as “bridges” between that mRNA and DNA
D. DNA serves as a template for the production of messenger RNA, and amino acid molecule serve as “bridges” between that mRNA and transfer RNA.

A

A. DNA serves as a template for the production of messenger RNA, and transfer RNA molecules serve as “bridges” between that mRNA and amino acids.

224
Q

__is transcribed from a template of DNA
A. mRNA
B. Ribosomes
C. Amino acids
D. tRNA

A

A. mRNA

225
Q

One end of transfer RNA attaches to the __produced and the other end of that ___is attached to a predictable amino acid. In this way, __“bridges” mRNA and each amino acid

A. mRNA
B. Ribosomes
C. Amino acids
D. tRNA

A

D. tRNA

226
Q

In Mendelian inheritance, which of the following is a condition of an F1 monohybrid cross?

A. All of the offspring express the dominant trait
B. A cross is made between parents that are heterozygous at two specific genes
C. A cross is made between parents that are heterozygous at one specific gene.
D. All of the offspring express the recessive trait

A

C. A cross is made between parents that are heterozygous at one specific gene.

227
Q

A trait is __ if it is displayed when there is only one of those alleles present in the genotype.

A. recessive
B. dominant
C. Dihybrid cross
D. heterozygous

A

B. dominant

228
Q

A ___ is a cross between parents heterozygous at two specific genes.

A. recessive
B. dominant
C. Dihybrid cross
D. heterozygous

A

C. Dihybrid cross

229
Q

A __ trait is one that is masked if dominant alleles are also present.

A. recessive
B. dominant
C. Dihybrid cross
D. heterozygous

A

A. recessive

230
Q

Atomic mass has a decimal because it is the average __of all the isotopes for a particular element. The atomic number of an element is the number of __ in its nucleus.

A. Number of electrons; protons
B. mass; protons
C. Mass; neutrons
D. Protons; neutrons

A

B. mass; protons

231
Q

The __ is an integer value indicating the number of protons in one atom of an element.
A. neutrons
B. Protons
C. Electrons
D. Atomic Number
E. Atomic mass

A

D. Atomic Number

232
Q

The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. This molecule is made up of 24 __ and 3 __.
A. Atoms; elements
B. ions; elements
C. electrons; atoms
D. atoms; electrons

A

A. Atoms; elements

233
Q

smallest quantity of an element that is able to maintain the characteristics of said element.

A. Atom
B. neutron
C. Proton
D. Atomic mass
E. Atomic number

A

A. Atom

234
Q

Charged atom

A. Atom
B. neutron
C. Proton
D. Atomic mass
E. Atomic number
F. Ion

A

F. Ion

235
Q

Subatomic particle that orbits the nucleus of an atom

A. Atom
B. neutron
C. Proton
D. Atomic mass
E. Electron

A

E. Electron

236
Q

On the periodic table, the number of which of the following particles in each element increases as you move down in periods and toward the right of the periodic table?

A. Protons
B. Isotopes
C. Cations
D. Anions

A

A. Protons

237
Q

Versions of the same elements with different numbers of neutrons

A. Protons
B. Isotopes
C. Cations
D. Anions

A

B. Isotopes

238
Q

Positively charged atom

A. Protons
B. Isotopes
C. Cations
D. Anions

A

C. Cations

239
Q

Negatively charged atom

A. Protons
B. Isotopes
C. Cations
D. Anions

A

D. Anions

240
Q

The direct transition from a solid to a gas may occur through which of the following?

A. Condensation
B. Deposition
C. Sublimation
D. Melting

A

C. Sublimation

241
Q

In a redox reaction, the species in the reaction that loses the electron is __ and the species that gains the electron is __
A. Reduced; dissociated
B. Oxidized; reduced
C. Oxidized; denatured
D. Reduced; oxidized

A

B. Oxidized; reduced

242
Q

When the components of a salt are placed in a solvent that causes their constituent ions to separate, the salt has __

A. Reduced
B. Dissociated
C. Oxidized
D. Denatured

A

B. Dissociated

243
Q

When an enzyme’s structure has been altered to the point at which it loses its ability to function, that enzyme is said to be

A. Reduced
B. Dissociated
C. Oxidized
D. Denatured

A

D. Denatured

244
Q

The __ species loses an electron.

A. Reduced
B. Dissociated
C. Oxidized
D. Denatured

A

C. Oxidized

245
Q

The __ gains the electron
A. Reduced
B. Dissociated
C. Oxidized
D. Denatured

A

A. Reduced

246
Q

Formula to measure volume of rectangular box?

A

Volume= height x length x width

247
Q

Which of the following describes a conclusion?

A. A linked trend in data
B. A set of empirical data
C. A prejudiced determination in favor of an idea
D. An end judgment based on data.

A

D. An end judgment based on data.

248
Q

A __ is a linked trend in data
A. Conclusion
B. Prejudice
C. Empirical
D. Correlation

A

D. Correlation

249
Q

If something is __, it is based on observation.

A. Conclusion
B. Prejudice
C. Empirical
D. Correlation

A

C. Empirical

250
Q

A bias is a __in favor of an idea

A. Conclusion
B. Prejudice
C. Empirical
D. Correlation

A

B. Prejudice

251
Q

A __ is an end judgment based on data.

A. Conclusion
B. Prejudice
C. Empirical
D. Correlation

A

A. Conclusion

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