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TEAS V > Science > Flashcards

Science Flashcards

1
Q

Identify two reasons for conducting scientific investigations

A

Establishing procedures,

Improving quality of life,

Identify potential problems

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2
Q

Give an example of an investigation that has led to radically new designs that improve the quality of life

A

Prosthetics,

Artificial organs,

Body armor

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3
Q

Testing a hypothesis involves:

A

Systematically identifying the variables involved,

followed by creating a plan of action that involves observation and experimentation.

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4
Q

Communication and defense of Scientific Method involves

A 
Problem identification,
Question asking,
Hypothesis development,
Data collection and experimentation,
Analysis,
Conclusion
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5
Q

Data collection is important to the scientific process because

A

It aids in attempting to answer original question

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6
Q

Data Collections includes:

A

Observation - can be direct or indirect methods to obtain data;

Measurement - allows for collection of quantitative data;

Samples - obtaining data from a population or subset of a population;

Organization - organizing data into charts or readable tables.

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7
Q

Experimentation involves

A

Comparing a controlled group to an experimental group; and where the groups represent the population.

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8
Q

Analysis

A

Determination if collected data is relevant, reliable, and usable to support or null the hypothesis.

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9
Q

Conclusion

A

States the conclusion of the experiment to solidify the hypothesis of null it.

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10
Q

How does a hypothesis change over time?

A

A bias may be revealed,

Results are not repeatable

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11
Q

Give two reasons why scientific research is dependent on technology.

A

Data is recorded in numbers,

Relationships are established by graphs and formulas,

Numerical models are used to describe mathematical relationships.

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12
Q

Without mathematics, scientific research would not be possible. Explain why this is true.

A

If mathematics were not used, scientific descriptions would be purely qualitative in nature.

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13
Q

Quantitative investigations using numerical information begin with

A

Careful record keeping

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14
Q

Describe how mathematics and science have increased communication in the corporate world.

A

The internet and intranet have provided capability to transmit information across the world;

Fiber optics have increased data transfer speeds.

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15
Q

List two industries that benefit from the advancement of mathematical and technological skills.

A

Medical field,
Criminal forensics,
Emergency management,
Military operations

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16
Q

Scientific explanations are offered as direct results of what?

A

Evidence that currently supports them.

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17
Q

How does improved technology lead to better scientific explanation?

A

New technology allows for new explanation, such as smaller incremental measurement giving way to more precise data collection.

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18
Q

Apply the advancement of technology to our understanding of the solar system through history.

A

Technology has allowed us to conclude that Earth revolves around the Sun, and it has given way to the knowledge that there are millions of stars and not just within our solar system.

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19
Q

Deductive reasoning…

A

…is a method whereby conclusions follow from general principle.

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20
Q

Inductive reasoning…

A

…is a method of arriving at general principles from specific facts.

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21
Q

Anatomy

A

The study of the structure of organs and body systems.

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22
Q

Physiology

A

The study of the function of the organs and the body.

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23
Q

Hierarchy of the human structure (from smallest to largest)

A 
Atoms,
Molecules,
Cells,
Tissues,
Organs,
Organ systems,
Organism
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24
Q

Atoms (A&P)

A

Smallest parts of elements that still retain all the original properties of the element;

Forms molecules when combined.

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25
Q

Molecule

A

Chemical bonding of atoms that possesses its own characteristics independent of the atoms themselves;

Specific molecules form cells.

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26
Q

Cells

A

Basic unit of all life.

Combines in terms of function and type to form tissues.

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27
Q

Tissue

A

A combination of cells with similar function and type.

Two or more tissues combine to form and organ.

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28
Q

Organs

A

Tissues at this level are capable of complex function.

Multiple organs working together to perform a specific function/task form an organ system.

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29
Q

Human Organism contains how many organ systems?

A

11 organ systems in the human body.

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30
Q

Organism

A

Highest level of organization in the human body and a result of all organ systems working together.

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31
Q

Four basic human tissue types:

A

Epithelial,
Connective,
Muscle,
Nervous

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32
Q

Epithelial Tissue

A

Serves 2 functions: covering (skin), or secretion production (glandular tissue).

Commonly exists in sheets and does not have its own blood supply.

Can regenerate if well nourished.

Classified according to two criteria: cell shape and number of cell layers; Simple and stratified.

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33
Q

Stratified Epithelial cells

A

Multiple layers of cells and serves as protection.

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34
Q

Simple Epithelial cells

A

Single layer of cells located where secretion, absorption, and filtration occur.

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35
Q

Epithelial cell shapes:

A

Squamous,

Cuboidal,

Columnar

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36
Q

Connective Tissue

A

Found throughout the body and serves to connect different structures.

Commonly has its own blood supply.

Types include: bone, cartilage, fat (adipose), and blood vessels.

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37
Q

Types connective tissue

A

Bone,

Cartilage,

Adipose,

Blood vessels

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38
Q

Muscle Tissue

A

Dedicated to produce movement.

Three types: Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth

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39
Q

Skeletal Muscle Tissue

A

Supports voluntary movement which are consciously controlled by the brain.

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40
Q

Smooth Muscle Tissue

A

Involuntary control; found in the heart, intestines, hollow organs, uterus, bladder.

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41
Q

Cardiac Muscle Tissue

A

Involuntary control and located in the heart only.

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42
Q

Nervous Tissue

A

Provides structure for the brain, spinal cord, and nerves.

Protected by support cells like myelin.

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43
Q

Nerves

A

Made up from specialized cells called neurons that send electrical impulses throughout the body.

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44
Q

Circulatory System

cardiovascular system

A

Heart,
Blood vessels,
Blood

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45
Q

Digestive system

A 
Mouth,
Esophagus,
Stomach,
Small and Large intestine,
Rectum,
Anus
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46
Q

Pepsin

A

Enzyme released by the chief cells into the stomach that catalyze the breakdown of protein to peptides.

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47
Q

Absorption of nutrients generally occurs where?

A

Small intestine

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48
Q

Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum are located where?

A

Small intestine

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49
Q

Colon removes what from waste?

A

Water

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50
Q

What is the livers roll in food digestion?

A

It produces bile which helps to breakdown fats.

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51
Q

Enzymes that are delivered to the small intestine to aid in digestion comes from where?

A

The pancreas

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52
Q

Endocrine System

A

Controls body function through the production and release of hormones that circulate through the blood.

Glands include: hypothalamus, pineal, pituitary, thalamus, thyroid, thymus, and adrenal.

Pancreas, testes, and ovaries also have endocrine functions.

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53
Q

Hypothalamus

A

Considered the “master gland”

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54
Q

Integumentary System Components

A

Skin,
Mucous membranes,
Hair,
Nails

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55
Q

Integumentary System purpose

A

Serves to protect internal tissues and organs from injury, waterproofs the body, and helps regulate temperature.

Serves as a barrier to pathogens.

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56
Q

Lymphatic System components

A

Lymph nodes, lymph vessels that carry lymph, spleen, thymus, and tonsils.

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57
Q

Tonsils are made of…

A

…lymphoid tissue.

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58
Q

Lymphatic System function

A

Supports the immune system by housing and transporting WBC to and from lymph nodes.

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59
Q

Muscular System

A

Skeletal muscles,
tendons,
ligaments.

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60
Q

Nervous System Components

A

Brain,
spinal cord,
nerves.

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61
Q

Nervous System function

A

Serves to control the body.

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62
Q

Reproductive System

A

Ovaries, Testes, penis, vagina, breasts.

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63
Q

Ovum

A

Female reproductive cell

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64
Q

Respiratory System function & components

A

Oxygenates the body and removes CO2 from the system as it is released from cells.

Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs.

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65
Q

Alveoli

A

Air sacs in the lungs that contain arterioles that oxygen and CO2 move in and out of.

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66
Q

Skeletal System purpose

A

Provides support and structure, and protection of internal organs.

Serves as a storage for calcium and phosphorus.

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67
Q

Urinary System purpose

A

Helps maintain water and electrolyte balance; regulates pH; removes nitrogenous waste.

Nitrogen waste is the by-product of broken down proteins and nucleic acids.

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68
Q

Anatomical position

A

Body facing forward; feet parallel and arms at side palms facing forward.

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69
Q

Superior

A

Toward upper end of the body or structure.

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70
Q

Inferior

A

Toward lower end of the body or structure

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71
Q

Anterior

A

Toward the front of the body or structure

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72
Q

Posterior

A

Toward the back of the body or the structure

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73
Q

Medial

A

Toward the middle of the body or body structure

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74
Q

Lateral

A

Toward the outer sides of the body or body structure

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75
Q

Intermediate

A

between medial and lateral

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76
Q

Proximal

A

Close to the origin of the body part or point of attachment

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77
Q

Distal

A

Away from the origin of the body part or point of attachment

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78
Q

Superficial

A

Toward or at the body surface

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79
Q

Deep

A

Opposite of superficial

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80
Q

Sagittal section

A

Cut made along a longitudinal plane dividing the body into right and left parts.

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81
Q

Midsagittal section

A

Sagittal section cut made down to the median of the body

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82
Q

Transverse section

cross section

A

Cut made along a horizontal plane to divide the body into upper and lower regions

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83
Q

Frontal section

coronal section

A

Cut made along a longitudinal plane that divides the body into front and back regions

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84
Q

Dorsal body cavity

A

Contains the cranial and spinal column

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85
Q

Ventral body cavity

A

Contains all the structures within the chest and abdomen; diaphragm divides the ventral cavity into the thoracic cavity; below the diaphragm are the abdominal and pelvic cavities.

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86
Q

Adaptation

A

Receive, interpret, and respond to internal and external stimuli via the nervous system

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87
Q

Circulation

A

Transport oxygen and other nutrients to tissues via the circulatory system

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88
Q

Elimination

A

Remove metabolic wastes from the body via the renal system

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89
Q

Locomotion

A

Allow voluntary and involuntary movement of the body via the musculoskeletal and neurological systems

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90
Q

Nutrition

A

Take in and breakdown nutrients to be used for metabolism via the digestive system

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91
Q

Oxygenation

A

Take in oxygen and expel CO2 via the respiratory system

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92
Q

Regulation

A

Hormonal control of body functions via the endocrine system

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93
Q

Self-duplication

A

Production of off-spring via the reproductive system

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94
Q

Eukaryotic cells

A

Surrounded by membrane as are the organelles inside the cell.

Semipermeable

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95
Q

Capillaries

A

Vessels that transport blood from arteries to veins.

Serves as location for oxygen / CO2 exchange.

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96
Q

Blood Flow through the Heart

A

Deoxygenated blood enters from the superior and inferior vena cava into the right atrium; at contraction, blood passes the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. Blood is pushed through the pulmonary artery to the lungs when the right ventricle contracts. Oxygenation occurs in the lungs then re-enters the heart through the pulmonary veins into the left atrium, through the mitral valve, and into the left ventricle. Contraction of the left ventricle forces the blood through the aortic valve, through the aorta, and out to the body.

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97
Q

If the mitral valve is damaged, what could possibly occur?

A

Mitral valve regurgitation; where blood flows backward into the left atrium.

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98
Q

The pulmonary valve ensures the blood stays in the…

A

Pulmonary artery

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99
Q

The diaphragm contracts during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

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100
Q

The nervous system contains the CNS and PNS. The brain and spinal cord are part of which one?

A

CNS

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101
Q

PNS is divided into…

A

Autonomic nervous system - which controls body functions like heart beat and digestion.

Sensory-somatic nervous system - consists of 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves and associated ganglia; these all control voluntary actions like talking and walking.

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102
Q

Autonomic nervous system consists of…

A

…sympathetic nerves (action) and parasympathetic nerves (resting).

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103
Q

Dendrites

A

Located in the nerves, receive stimuli from internal and external environment and brings them to the neurons for interpretation.

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104
Q

Axon

A

Connects one neuron to another with a synapse (fluid filled gap) between.

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105
Q

Three functions of the nervous system

A

Sensory function - provides sensory function; feeling pain, heat, stimuli.

Motor function - carries electrical impulses from the CNS to effectors.

Integrative function - uses sensory information o make decisions by joining together sensory input with memories stored in the brain; develops thoughts and feelings upon which decisions may be based in the future

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106
Q

Effectors

A

Glands,

Muscles

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107
Q

Peristalsis

A

Radially symmetrical contraction and relaxation of muscles which propels food contents through the digestive tract.

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108
Q

Enzymes

A

Chemicals that are responsible for chemical breakdown.

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109
Q

Salivary amylase

A

Enzyme released from the parotid salivary gland that begins the chemical digestion of carbohydrates.

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110
Q

Bolus

A

Chewed food stuffs that pass from the mouth to through the esophagus to the stomach.

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111
Q

Protease

A

Enzyme that conducts proteolysis, that begins protein catabolism by hydrolysis of peptide bonds.

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112
Q

Chyme moves from the stomach into the small intestine (duodenum) via the…

A

Pyloric sphincter

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113
Q

Duodenum

A

First stretch of the small intestine that releases secretion and cholecystokinin (CCK).

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114
Q

The surface area for absorption in the small intestine is increased as a result of

A

Villi and microvilli

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115
Q

Immune system is composed of…

A

…nonspecific and adaptive defenses.

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116
Q

Pathogens are

A

Infectious agents

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117
Q

Innate immune functions

A

Physical and chemical barrier (skin, mucous membranes, and digestive system)

1st and 2nd line of defense

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118
Q

Adaptive response

A

3rd line of defense (specific defenses)

Antibody-mediated and cell-mediated responses

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119
Q

Innate Immune response

Nonspecific responses

A

Fever, inflammation, phagocytosis (engulfing of pathogens by WBC), natural killer cells (NK cells), interferons, chemotaxis, and release of cytokines.

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120
Q

Interferons

A

Proteins made and released by host cells.

Body’s response to viral infection.

Belongs to a class of glycoproteins known as cytokines.

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121
Q

Chemotaxis are:

A

Somatic cells, bacteria and single-cell / multicellular organisms direct their movements according to certain chemicals in their environments.

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122
Q

Lyse

A

Rupture

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123
Q

Leukocytes

A

White blood cells (WBC)

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124
Q

Diapedesis

A

Process where WBC squeeze through capillary slits in response to cytokines; followed by cellular adhesion molecules (CAMs) guiding WBC to the site of damage or infection.

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125
Q

Cytokines

A

Chemical messengers that are released by damaged tissue to “notify” body of damage location.

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126
Q

T-Cell

A

Lymphocyte that triggers the action of other lymphocytes.

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127
Q

Macrophage

A

WBC “big eaters” of the immune system

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128
Q

What kind of immunity is produced by a vaccine?

A

Artificially acquired active immunity

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129
Q

What is released by damaged cells in an effort to draw WBC to the areas od damage?

A

Cytokines

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130
Q

What is the physiological benefit of a mild to moderate fever?

A

Enhances non-specific destruction of pathogens

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131
Q

Fertility rates are higher in which types of countries?

A

Less developed countries

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132
Q

What are factors that may affect birth rates?

A 
Religion
Culture
Economy
Government
Literacy
Infant mortality rates
Abortions
Accessibility of family planning
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133
Q

Fertility rates are significant because they coincide with the ________ , which is the number needed to maintain the ________ at its current number.

A

replacement rate, population

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134
Q

Crude birth rate

A

Births per 1,000 people per year

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135
Q

Crude death rate

A

Deaths per 1,000 people per year

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136
Q

Taxonomy

8 levels

A 
Domain
Kingdom
Phylum
Class
Order
Family
Genus
Species
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137
Q

When Classifying individual species, on taxonomy, the Latin name of the genus and the species is written in italics with the genus capitalized and the species not capitalized.

A

Humans = [I] Homo sapiens

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138
Q

Natural Killer cells

A

Large Granular Lymphocyte (LGL) belong to innate immune system.

Cytotoxic lymphocyte that provides rapid response to virally infected cells and responds to tumor formation.

Matures in bone marrow, spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils and thymus.

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139
Q

Natural Selection

A

When some individuals of a species are better able to survive in their environment and reproduce than others.

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140
Q

Author of “On the Origin of Species”

A

Charles Darwin

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141
Q

Genes

A

Stetches of DNA on a chromosome that provide information for an organsims characteristics.

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142
Q

Genes exist in different forms called

A

Alleles

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143
Q

Changes in one or more alleles, to DNA

A

Mutation

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144
Q

Ability to survive and adapt to an environment

A

Adaptation

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145
Q

T/F

The action of natural selection is due to the presence of mutations in DNA that are passed on from generation to generation.

A

True

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146
Q

DNA

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid

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147
Q

RNA

A

Ribonucleic acid

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148
Q

Nucleic acids purpose is to…

A

…store and transmit hereditary information.

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149
Q

Nucleotides are, & consist of…

structurally

A

Chain of nucleic acids.

…a pentose, a phosphate group, and a nitrogeneous base.

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150
Q

Pentose

A

Five carbon monosaccharide (sugar)

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151
Q

Phosphate group

A

Molecule in the backbone of DNA and RNA that links adjoining bases together.

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152
Q

Nitrogeneous base

A

Molecule that encodes genetic information in DNA and RNA.

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153
Q

List 5 types of nitrogeous bases

A

Adenine (A),

Thymine (T),

Cytosine (C),

Guanine (G),

Uracil (U)

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154
Q

Adenine (A) always pairs with

A

Thymine (T)

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155
Q

Guanine (G) always pairs with

A

Cytosine (C)

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156
Q

DNA is most often seen as a

A

Double helix structure

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157
Q

Thymine is unique to…

A

DNA

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158
Q

Uracil is unique to…

A

RNA

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159
Q

In DNA, adenine and guanine

A

Purines

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160
Q

In DNA, thymine and cytosine

A

Pyrimidines

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161
Q

RNA is most often seen as a

A

Single-stranded string of nucleotides

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162
Q

DNA is considered the

A

Blueprint of the cell

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163
Q

RNA can be thought of as the

A

messenger within the cell

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164
Q

T/F

RNA is the messenger between DNA and protein production

A

True

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165
Q

Prokaryotic cell components

A

Cell wall (seperates inside from outside),

Cytoplasm (rich protein fluid with gel-like consistancy),

Organelles (tiny organs),

Nucleoid (condensed DNA of cell),

Plasmids (small, circular portions of DNA not associated with nucleoid),

Ribosomes (manufactures proteins for the cell from RNA messages),

Flagella (for movement; in some cells)

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166
Q

Eukaryotic cell are

A

Larger and more complex than prokaryotic cells

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167
Q

Eukaryotic cell components

A

Plasma membrane (semi-permiable),

Cytoplasm (similar to eukaryotic cells),

Ribosomes (similar to eukaryotic cells),

Endoplasmic reticulum (tubular network within cell). Classified as smooth and rough. Responsible for moving proteins from one part of the cell to another,

Golgi apparatus,

Vesicles,

Mitochondria,

Microtubules,

Nucleus,

Nucleolus,

Chloroplast (plant cells only)

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168
Q

What coats the rough endoplasmic reticulum to give it a rough appearance

A

Ribosomes

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169
Q

Golgi apparatus

A

Involved in packaging and transport of proteins in the cell.

Composed of layers of membranes & multiple functions: refine proteins from ribosomes; sorts proteins and preps for transport

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170
Q

Vesicles

A

Small membrane-bounded sac within cytoplasm.

Transports proteins and other substances in or out of the cell

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171
Q

Name 3 types of vesicles

A

Lysosome (contains digestive enzymes capable of disposing of cellular waste and debris);

Vacuole (basic storage unit of the cell that holds various conpounds);

Peroxisome (functions to rid the body of toxic substances such as H2O2)

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172
Q

Mitochondria

A

Powerhouse of the cell because they are the location where cellular fuel is produced.

Large kidney-bean shaped organelle inside of cell

173
Q

Cristae

singular = crista

A

Located in mitochondria and contains enzymes that help convert sugar into ATP

174
Q

ATP

adenosine triphosphate

A

Cellular fuel

175
Q

Microtubules

A

Cellular track that form mitotic spindle during mitosis.

Spindle helps to organize and segregate chromosomes during cell division

176
Q

What cell organelle assists to organize chromosomes during mitosis?

A

Microtubules via spindles and assisted by centrosomes

177
Q

Centrosomes

A

Microtubule-organizing center that assist form and organize mitotic spindle during mitosis

178
Q

Nucleus

A

Control center of entire cell that contains cell’s genetic material.

Directs cell function

179
Q

Nucleolus

A

Small body located inside of nucleus that functions to produce ribosomes that get moved to the cytoplasm to make proteins

180
Q

Flagella

Plural = Flagellum

A

Allow cell movement / propulsion

181
Q

Chloroplast

A

In plant cells only;

Contains chlorophyll to capture sunlight to manufacture ATP

182
Q

T/F

Vacuoles in plant cells are larger larger than in animal cells?

A

True

183
Q

T/F

The nucleus is the site of ATP production in cells

A

False

184
Q

Ribosomes

A

Manufactures proteins for the cell from RNA messages

185
Q

In prokyrotic (bacterial) cells, the DNA is located in the ______ , and in eukaryotic (animal/plant) cells, the DNA is found in the _____ .

A

nucleoid, nucleus

186
Q

A chain of amino acids results in a…

A

…protein

187
Q

_____ are large structure of DNA that contain the _____, the blueprints for making an individual.

A

Chromosome, genes

188
Q

Why does DNA require RNA for protein production?

A

mRNA is needed to carry the code from the nucleus to the ribosomes for complete protein production

189
Q

Cell protein production flow

A

DNA –> mRNA –> protein

190
Q

Differentiation

A

Produces a more specialized cell from a less specialized cell

191
Q

Gastrulation

A

When individual tissue layers begin to form

192
Q

What regulates differentiation?

A

Genes

193
Q

T/F

Cellular differentiation can occur in developing embyro or in an adult?

A

True

194
Q

Embryo

A

Animal or plant in the early stages of development after fertilization.

195
Q

Mitosis

A

Process of cell duplication in which two daughter cells receive identical nuclear matieral as the original

196
Q

S Phase

A

Synthesis of new DNA during interphase

197
Q

S, G1, and G2 phase are classified as…

A

Interphase

198
Q

G1 Phase

A

DNA double helix unwinds to expose bases;

RNA bases pair with complimentary DNA partners to form messenger RNA strand;

DNA double helix closes and the mRNA exits the nucleus toward the ribosome

199
Q

T/F

There are three steps of the cell cycle during interphase.

A

True

They are G1, S, and G2

200
Q

Describe how the DNA double helix can be released to allow replication

A

Enzymes initiate the process of unwinding DNA and releasing the two complimentary strands of that DNA so DNA polymerase enzymes can duplicate them.

201
Q

Purpose of mitosis

A

To replace old and dying cells with genetically identical ones.

202
Q

Gamete

A

Cell that forms a new organism via sexual reproduction (from mother and father contribution)

203
Q

Purpose of Meiosis

A

To halve the number of chromosomes; as in sexual reproducation; half from father and half from mother

204
Q

Diploid cell

A

Cell that contain two sets of chromosomes

205
Q

Haploid cell

A

Cell that contains a single set of chromosomes

206
Q

Phases of mitosis

A

Prophase,

Metaphase,

Anaphase,

Telophase

207
Q

Phases of meiosis

A

Prophase I,

Metaphase I,

Anaphase I,

Telophase I,

Prohase II,

Metaphase II,

Anaphase II,

Telophase II,

208
Q

Prophase

A

Spindle fibers form and the centrioles moves to opposite side of the cell.

Nuclear membrane disappears

209
Q

Metaphase

A

Chromosomes align midway along the spindle fibers.

210
Q

Anaphase

A

Chromosomes begin to seperate from their daughter.

Cytokinesis begins

211
Q

Cytokinesis

A

Separation of the two sets of chromosomes into different cells following telophase.

212
Q

Telophase

A

Identical sets of chromosomes are at opposite ends of the cell.

Spindle fibers disappear nuclear membranes reappear, and cytokinesis completes.

213
Q

Prophase I

A

Homologous chromosomes condense and link in the process-forming tetrads; allowing crossing over or recombination to occur.

214
Q

Metaphase I

A

Homologous chromosomes move to the metaphase plate

215
Q

Anaphase I

A

Homologous chromosomes seprate, but the sister chromatids stay together

216
Q

Telophase I

A

Cytokinesis has occured and two hapliod daughter cells are the result

217
Q

Prophase II

A

A brief stage in which spindle fibers begin to reappear and centrioles move to oppposite poles

218
Q

Metaphase II

A

Sister chromatids align at a new metaphase plate

219
Q

Anaphase II

A

Sister chromatids seperate again

220
Q

Telophase II

A

Four haploid cells result after cytokinesis

221
Q

During meiosis, a _____ cell will give rise to four _____ cells.

A

diploid, haploid

The original diploid cell will undergo two divisions to create four haploid cells.

222
Q

T/F

Mitosis and meiosis occur in all types of cells.

A

False

Mitosis occurs to replace old cells in all cell types; while meiosis occurs in gamates to bring about genetic variation amongst off-spring.

223
Q

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both result in…

A

…the formation of cellular energy for an organism

224
Q

Chloroplast

A

In plants only

Where CO2, water, and sunlight are used to produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

225
Q

Autotroph

A

Organism that is capable of producing its own food

226
Q

Chemical equation for photosynthesis

A

6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy –> C6H12O6 + 6O2

CO2 + H2O + sunlight –> glucose + O2

227
Q

Cellular respiration is used by

A

Heterotrophs

228
Q

Heterotroph

A

Organism that cannot produce its own food for survival

229
Q

Cellular respiration

A

Glucose is broken down by glycolysis, which transfers some glucose to ATP.

230
Q

Chemical equation for cellular respiration

A

C6H12O6 + 6O2 –> 6CO2 + 6H20 + energy

glucose + O2 –> CO2 + H2O + energy

231
Q

End-products of glycolysis are fed into _____, to produce even more ATP.

A

the Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle)

232
Q

Chromosomes are located in the _____ of a cell and contain stretches of DNA called _____ .

A

nucleus, genes

233
Q

Genes contains

A

Coded information that controls hereditary information of particular traits.

234
Q

Codon

A

Comprised of three bases of the A, T, C, G pairs.

Each codon matches to a specific amino acid.

235
Q

How many codons are possible?

A

64

Because 64 different 3-letter combinations can be formed from A, T, C, and G

236
Q

There are _____ different amino acids.

A

20

237
Q

What are the workhorses of the cell?

A

Proteins

238
Q

A chain of amino acids forms ______ .

A

a protein

239
Q

T/F

Genetic traits are expressed through the actions of proteins.

A

True

240
Q

Mutations in the genome occur primarily by two mechenisms:

A

Errors during DNA replication

Mutagen (a substance that induces mutations)

241
Q

DNA polymerase

A

Ezyme used by cells to speed up DNA synthesis

242
Q

Mismatch repair

A

During DNA sysnthesis, QA is conducted to identify any mismatches of bases and are corrected by replacing the wrong base with the right base.

Undetected mismatches not caught are permanent.

243
Q

Excision repair mechanisms

A

Inspect DNA for damage and repair if possible.

The excision repair will cut out the damaged stran and local bases and allow the DNA strand to polymerase to correct itself.

244
Q

Mutations will only pass on to future generations if they are present in the DNA of…

A

germ cells

reproductive cells that give rise to sperm or ovum

245
Q

Name the major enzyme responsible for DNA replication in cells.

A

DNA polymerase

246
Q

T/F

DNA in gametes is the DNA passed on to future generations

A

True

247
Q

Phenotypes

A

Physical expressions of genetic traits

248
Q

Genotype

A

An organisms underlying genetic makeup code.

Blueprint for building and maintaining structures within cells of the body.

249
Q

Interactions between the genotype and the _____ affect the phenotype of the organism.

A

environment

250
Q

_____ are the entire set of genes in organisms, while _____ are the characteristics and traits that are expressed by those types.

A

Genotype, phenotype

251
Q

The study of heredity or how traits are passed on from parent to offspring, is known as

A

Genetics

252
Q

Recessive trait

A

Trait that disappeared in the offspring

253
Q

When both parents give the offspring the same allele, the offspring is…

A

…homozygous

254
Q

Homozygous

A

Having the same alleles at a particular gene locu on homogenous chromosomes

255
Q

If each parent gives the offspring a different allele for a particular trait, the offspring is _____ for that trait.

A

heterozygous

256
Q

Punnett square

A

Graphical way to show all possible combinations of alleles given the parents genotypes

257
Q

Incomplete dominance

A

When a dominant and recessive genotype interact to produce an intermediate phenotype; a mix of two traits

258
Q

Light years =

A

Distance light will travel within 1 year of time

259
Q

Electromagnetic waves

A

Wave of radiation characterized by electric and magnetic fields

260
Q

Wavelength spectrum is dived by short to long

A

Gamma ray,

x-ray,

ultraviolet,

visible,

infrared,

microwave,

radiowaves

261
Q

Wavelength spectrum can be broken down visibly by color (ie. rainbow or prisms)

A

(from long to short)
Red,

orange,

yellow,

green,

blue,

indigo,

violet

262
Q

Joules (J) or calories

A

Energy and its ability to do work

263
Q

Kinetic energy (KE)

A

Energy in motion

Calculated using this equation
KE = 1/2 mv2
m = mass of an object
v = velocity

Example:
KE = 1/2 mv2 = 1/2 x 1 kg x (2 m/s)2 = 2J
when doubled =
KE = 1/2 mv2 = 1/2 x 1 kg x (4 m/s)2 = 8J

264
Q

Potential Energy (PE)

A

Amount of energy stored in an object

Calculated using this equation
PE = mgh
m = mass
g = gravity constant
h = height

Example:
PE = mgh = 1 kg x 10 m/s2 x 1 m = 10J
when doubled height
PE = mgh = 1 kg x 10 m/s2 x 2 m = 20J

265
Q

Law of Conservation of energy

A

Energy is not lost but rather transferred back and forth between KE and PE

266
Q

Suppose a 5 kg object is heldd ate a height of 6m. What is the objects PE at this height? (assume g = 10 m/s2)

A

300 J

267
Q

Matter

A

Anything that takes up space and has mass.

The quantity of matter an object has.

268
Q

Elements

A

Substances that cannot be broken into simpler types of matter

269
Q

Protons

A

Positively charged subatomic particles found in the nucleus of an atom

270
Q

Electrons

A

Negatively charged subatomic particles found in various energy levels around the nucleus

271
Q

Neutrons

A

Neutral subatomic particles grounded in the nucleus

272
Q

Atom Number

A

Number of protons located in the nucleus

273
Q

Atomic Mass

A

Average mass of all known isotopes of an element

274
Q

Isotope

A

Variants of a particular chemical element

275
Q

An electrically neutral atom will have the ____ of electrons and proton.

A

same number

276
Q

How many protons would a positively charged isotope ion of O-18 have?

A

8;

The number of protons depends only on the atomic number and is independent of the ionic charge and the isotope type. Since oxygen has an atomic number of 8, it has 8 protons.

277
Q

How many protons would a negatively charged isotope ion of C-14 have?

A

6;

The number of protons depends only on the atomic number and is independent of the ionic charge and the isotope type. Since carbon has an atomic number of 6, it has 6 protons.

278
Q

Catalysts

A

Control the rate of chemical reactions, or reactions in which atoms react to come to a stable state.

Increase reaction rates by lowering activiation energy

279
Q

Chemical reactions can be increased by _____, and reduced by _____ ?

A

promoters, inhibitors

280
Q

Given reactants (X and Y), a catalyst (C), and a product (Z), order the following stepps in the general catalytic reaction process.

XYC –> CZ;
CZ –> C + Z;
X + C –> XC;
Y + XC –> XYC

A

X + C –> XC;
Y + XC –> XYC;
XYC –> CZ;
CZ –> C + Z

281
Q

How does a catalyst increase the rate of a chemical reaction?

A

By lowering the activation energy.

Reaction rates are increased when activation energy decreases.

282
Q

Arrangement of the periodic table into columns and rows is credited to

A

Gregor Mendeleev

283
Q

Henry Moseley

A

Proposed the periodic table can be arranged by atomic number, NOT mass

284
Q

Orbital shells

A

This gives the following order for filling the orbitals:

1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p, 5s, 4d, 5p, 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p, 7s, 5f, 6d, 7p, (8s, 5g, 6f, 7d, 8p, and 9s);

Coeffiecients 1, 2, and 3 refer to the first three rows of the periodic table and are the primary shell of numbers for each row.

s and p refer to subshells of electrons within each shell.

The sum of all of the raised numbers equals the number of electrons found within the neutral atom for that element.

285
Q

Examples of electron configurations for certain noble gases include:

A 
Helium = 1s2;
Neon = 1s2 2s2 2p6;
Argon = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3s6
286
Q

Orbital shells

A

The sum of all of the raised numbers equals the number of electrons found within the neutral atom for that element.

Example:
Neon = 1s2 2s2 2p6 = 10

287
Q

Electronegativity

A

The measure of an atom’s attraction on electrons in a chemical bond

288
Q

Ionization energy (ionization potential)

A

Energy required to completely remove an electron from a gaseous atom or ion

289
Q

Chemical bonding

A

Chemical merging of atoms due to their electron arrangements.

290
Q

Metalloids

A

Located next to the stair-step on the periodic table

Transitional properties between metals and non-metals; possess mixture of metallic and nonmetallic properties

May accept or donate electrons readily

291
Q

Periodic table families

A 
1st - alkali family,
2nd - earth alkali,
3rd - Transition metals,
4th - Basic metal,
5th semi-metals,
6th - non-metals,
7th - halogens,
8th - noble gases,
9th - Lanthanides,
10th - Actinides
292
Q

Within a given family on the periodic table, atomic radii _____ while electronegativity _____ .

A

increase, decrease

293
Q

Which groups on the periodic table contain most metalloids?

A

13, 14, 15.

Metalloids are on the stair step before other non-metals

294
Q

Metals (characteristics)

A

Conduct electricity, and cool and heat fast

295
Q

Non-metals (characteristics)

A

Do not conduct electricity, and are slow to heat and cool

296
Q

Globular proteins

A

Built from amino acids that form chains ranging from a few dozen to thousands of members.

Proteins that are water soluble.

297
Q

External factors that affect enzymatic reactions:

A

Temperature,
pH,
Substrate concentration

298
Q

ph

A

Measure of hydrogen ion concentration within a solution

299
Q

Substrate

A

A molecular surface acted upon by an enzyme

300
Q

Metabolic pathways

A

Chemical reactions within a cell

301
Q

Chemical reaction involving enzyme (E), product (P), and substrate (S) [formula]

A

E + S –> ES –> E + P

302
Q

T/F

Enzymes participate in a limited number of chemical reactions throughout the human body.

A

False

303
Q

T/F

Enzymes act to lower the activation energy of chemical reactions.

A

True

304
Q

T/F

An enzyme can reshape itself when placed in contact with a substrate.

A

True

305
Q

T/F

The amino acid structure of an enzyme is important to its function

A

True

306
Q

pH scale

A

Used to measure the strength of acidic and base solutions

307
Q

Acid

A

<7

308
Q

Base

A

> 7

309
Q

What compound is recognized as the standard neutral between acids and base?

A

Pure H2O at 25 degrees C

310
Q

Logarithmic scale

A

pH = - log (ah)

Example:
pH = - log (ah)
pH = - log (1 x 10^-3)
pH = -(-3)
pH = 3
311
Q

Blue litmus paper turning red, indicates

A

acid

312
Q

Red litmus paper turning blue, indicates

A

base

313
Q

Find the pH value of a solution that is 1 part per 10,000

A

pH = 4, acid

pH = - log (ah)
pH = - log(1 x 10^-4)
pH = -(-4)
pH = 4
314
Q

H+

A

10^-1: pH = 1
10^-5: pH = 5
10^-14: pH = 14

315
Q

OH-

A

10^-13: pH = 1
10^-5: pH = 9
10^-1: pH = 13
10^-0: pH = 14

316
Q

Chemical bonding typically occurs through

A

Ionic and covalent methods

317
Q

Ionic bonding

A

Electrical attraction between ions of opposite charges

318
Q

Covalent bond

A

Sharing of electrons between atoms

319
Q

Hydrocarbon

A

Divided into subcategories: saturated and unsaturated

320
Q

Alkanes

A

Saturated hydrocarbons; are the most basic.

Consisting of single bonds, and are saturated w/hydrogen

321
Q

Unsaturated hydrocarbon

A

Alkenes

Has one or more double or triple bonds between carbon atoms

322
Q

Isomers

A

Containing two or more molecular structures

323
Q

Alkane variations by number of carbon atoms

A 
1 - methane,
2 - ethane,
3 - propane,
4 - butane isobutene,
5 - pentane isopentane,
6 - hexane,
7- heptane,
8 - octane,
9 - nonane,
10 - decane
324
Q

Alkene variations by number of carbon atoms

A 
1 - XXXXX,
2 - ethene,
3 - propene,
4 - butene,
5 - pentene,
6 - hexene,
7- heptene,
8 - octene,
9 - nonene,
10 - decene
325
Q

Alkyne variations by number of carbon atoms

A 
1 - XXXXX,
2 - ethyne,
3 - propyne,
4 - butyne,
5 - pentyne,
6 - hexyne,
7- heptyne,
8 - octyne,
9 - nonyne,
10 - decyne
326
Q

Cation

A

Metallic ion;

Positively charged

327
Q

Anion

A

Nonmetallic ion;

Negatively charged

328
Q 
Lewis structures
(Lewis dot diagrams)
A

Provide visual representation of covalent bonds between atoms of a molecule

329
Q

Product

A

Results of a chemical reaction

330
Q

Reactants

A

Substances being used to create a product in a chemical reaction

331
Q

Oxydation

A

Donation of an electron to produce a more positive ion

332
Q

Reduction

A

Involves electron acceptance to produce a more negative ion

333
Q

T/F

pH neutralization is an important oxidation-reduction reaction

A

False;

pH neutralization is an important acid-base reaction

334
Q

T/F

Metabolism is an important oxidation-reduction reaction

A

True

335
Q

T/F

Combustion is an important acid-base reaction

A

False

336
Q

T/F

Photosynthesis is an important acid-base reaction

A

False;

Oxydation-redux

337
Q

T/F

Water is a non-polar molecule

A

False;

Water is a polar molecule

338
Q

Polar molecule

A

A molecule that possess both positive and negative atomic structure

339
Q

Specific heat

A

Energy required to raise one unit of mass of a substance by 1 degree C

340
Q

Universal solvent

A

Water

341
Q

T/F

Water serves as the standard for pH and has a value of 6

A

False

342
Q

T/F

The maximum density of water is 4 C

A

True

343
Q

T/F

Water has the standard electronegative value on the periodic table

A

False

344
Q

T/F

The Kelvin temperature scale is based on water’s triple-point

A

True

345
Q

Heat

A

Flow of energy due to a difference in temperature

346
Q

Phase transition

A

Alteration of the physical state between a solid, liquid, and gas

347
Q

Decrease from base units

A 
deci,
centi,
milli,
micro,
nano
348
Q

Milli

A

mm,
mg,
ml

349
Q

Micro

A

um,
ug,
ul

350
Q

Nano

A

nm,
ng,
nl

351
Q

Deca

A

dam,
dag,
daL

352
Q

Hecto meter, gram, liter

A

hm,
hg,
hl

353
Q

Kilometer, gram, liter

A

km,
kg,
kl

354
Q

One mile

A

1.61 km

355
Q

Kilo

A

1000 x, or 10^3

356
Q

Hecto

A

100 x, or 10^2

357
Q

Deca

A

10x, or 10^1

358
Q

Deci

A

.1x, or 10^-1

359
Q

Centi

A

.01x, or 10^-2

360
Q

milli

A

.001x, or 10^-3

361
Q

micro

A

.000001x, or 10^-6

362
Q

nano

A

.000000001x, or 10^-9

363
Q

One inch

A

2.54 cm

364
Q

One yard

A

.91 m

365
Q

One pound

A

.45kg

366
Q

One foot

A

.305m

367
Q

One ounce

A

28.35 g

368
Q

One gallon

A

3.785L

369
Q

One square inch

A

645.2 sq millimeters (mm2)

370
Q

One square foot

A

.093 sq m (m2)

371
Q

One square mile

A

2.59 sq km (km2)

372
Q

One fluid ounce

A

29.57ml

373
Q

One cubic foot

A

.028 cubic meters (m3)

374
Q

One cubic yard

A

.765 cubic meters (m3)

375
Q

Formula for volume of cylinder

A

V = h x pi x r^2

376
Q

Volume of cube / prism

A

V = L x W x h

377
Q

Area of a square

A

A - S^2 (S being one side of the square)

378
Q

Area of a triangle

A

A = 1/2 b x h

379
Q

Perimeter of a rectangle

A

P = 2L x 2W

380
Q

Circumference of a circle

A

C = Pi x r 2

381
Q

Pi

A

3.14 or 22/7

382
Q

Yards to

A

Meters

383
Q

Miles to

A

Kilometers

384
Q

Inches to

A

Centimeters

385
Q

Gallons to

A

Liters

386
Q

Fluid ounce to

A

milliliters

387
Q

Feet to

A

meters

388
Q

How many feet in a mile

A

5280

389
Q

Fahrenheit

A

1.8 (C) + 32

390
Q

Celcius

A

F -32 / 1.8

391
Q

Metric base units

A

meter (m),
gram (g),
liter (L)

392
Q

Increase from base units

A

deca,
hector,
kilo

393
Q

Systolic Pressure

A

Top number in blood pressure reading.

Measures the amount of pressure that blood exerts on arteries and vessels while the heart is beating.

Blood vessels are contracted

394
Q

Diastolic Pressure

A

Bottom number in blood pressure reading.

Pressure that is exerted on the walls of the various arteries around the body in between heart beats when the heart is relaxed.

Blood vessels are relaxed

395
Q

The specific stage of meiosis during which a cells chromosome number is reduced by half is

A

Anaphase I;

During anaphase I, the homologous chromosome separate and thus the number of chromosomes (ploidy) is reduced by two

396
Q

Seaweed –> Snail –> Fish;

Using the food chain above, which of the following terms best represents the trophic level seaweed?

A

Photoautotrophic;

This implies that sunlight is used to perform photosynthesis, which is the basis of the energy cycle

397
Q

During vertebrate embryogenenesis, the CNS originates from which germ layer?

A

Ectoderm:

Both the skin and nervous systems originate from this layer

398
Q

Which of the following electrolytes controls water balance in the human body?

A

Sodium:

Sodium controls the osmosis of the water by increasing or decreasing osmolarity and therefore controls water balance

399
Q

Which of the following cellular organelles contains its own unique genetic material and carries out protein synthesis separate from cytoplasm?

A

Chloroplast;

Lysosome contains enzymes to break down waste molecule

400
Q

What is a chemical property of water?

A

Water can be decomposed into hydrogen and oxygen gas

401
Q

T/F

Photosynthesis only occurs in plants whereas oxidative respiration occurs in all life forms

A

False:

Photosynthesis occurs in many prokaryotes and eukaryotes whereas oxidative respiration occurs only in aerobic prokaryotes and eukaryotes

402
Q

Balance the chemical neutralization of:

Mg(OH)2 + HCl –>

A

MgCl2 + H2O

403
Q

Which of the halogens reacts most readily with the metal sodium?

A) Iodine
B) Bromine
C) Chlorine
D) Astatine

A

Chloride:

It is the smallest of the list of halogens

404
Q

The cause of cell differentiation is that different cells…

A

Express alternate genetic information (different subsets of genes)

405
Q

The concentration of hydrogen ions in water with a pH of 7 is

A

10^-7M

406
Q

Phenotype

A

Is the external manifestation of the alleles. Different eyes color in a person indicates variability in the genotypes of each eye

407
Q

In a liquid state, the arrangement and motion of molecules can be described as

A

Closely packed in a random pattern with constant rapid motion. The rapid motion is due to their thermal energy.

408
Q

The most inclusive taxonomic category smaller than class is…

A

Order

409
Q

In a chemical reaction, a metal will become a…

A

Cation by losing electrons

410
Q

T/F

Mutations that happen in body cells other than egg and sperm cells will not transmit to the child

A

True;

Only germline mutations are transmitted

411
Q

What type of chemical bond is bound in the molecule NH3 (amonia)?

A

Polar covalent bond;

Nitrogen is more electronegative than hydrogen leading to an unequal sharing of electrons

412
Q

T/F

Evaporation is an endothermic process

A

True;

Evaporation absorbs energy

413
Q

T/F

Sublimation is an exothermic process

A

False

It is an endothermic reaction

414
Q

T/F

Vaporization is an exothermic process

A

False

It is an endothermic reaction

415
Q

T/F

Condensation is an endothermic process

A

False

It is an exothermic reaction

416
Q

The use of an electron microscope would most benefit the study of…

A

…the structure of cellular organelles

417
Q

When an enzyme is degraded into its monomeric structural unit, the monomers will be

A

Amino acids;

Amino acids are protein constituents, and enzymes are proteins

418
Q

Intron

A

A certain region removed from a mature transcript of DNA to RNA in a eukaryotic cell

419
Q

What is the function of the spleen in a healthy adult?

A

Degrades red blood cells

420
Q

The function of RNA in eukaryotic cells is to…

A

Provide the template for protein synthesis

421
Q

CO2 levels decrease and the blood pH increases, causing constriction of blood vessels and hypoxia during

A

Hyperventilation;

Blood vessel constriction occurs due to increased alkalinity of blood

422
Q

Plasmids

A

Small, circular portions of DNA not associated with the nucleoid.

423
Q

Nucleoid

A

The condensed DNA of a cell

424
Q

Different coat colors between breeds of cats are examples of genotype, or phenotype?

A

Phenotype.

425
Q

Principle that describes the relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas. Pressure exerted by a gas held at a constant temperature varies inversely with the volume of gas.

A

Boyle’s Law

426
Q

V1 / V2 = P2 / P1

A

Boyle’s Law (at constant temperature)

427
Q

Mendel’s Laws of Genetics and the Punnett Square

A

Alignment of parent chromosomes in the Punnett Square to assist in determination of the offspring’s traits.

428
Q

ROY G BIV

A

Mnemonic for visible wavelengths from long to short:

Red,
Orange,
Yellow,
Green,
Blue,
Indigo,
Violet

TEAS V (4 decks)

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