SCI Flashcards
- 40 year old with hypertension on Clonidine and diabetes on insulin has erectile dysfunction. What is the best treatment?
A) discontinue HTN meds
B) papaverine injection
C) sexual counseling
Answer: A Antihypertensive medications can decrease libido and cause erectile dysfunction. Clonidine can be changed to another class of medications to see if side effects lessen. Diabetes can cause erectile dysfunction secondary to neuropathy. Papaverine is a non-specific smooth muscle relaxant which decreases resistance to arterial inflow and increases resistance to venous outflow. It is an intercavernous injection used in neurogenic erectile dysfunction. The use of papaverine as monotherapy has decreased due to it adverse effects (corporal fibrosis).
- Which muscle is tested for ASIA C5?
A) deltoid
B) biceps
C) brachioradialis
D) triceps
Answer: B
See chart below (question 10)
ASIA Motor Exam (for questions 9 & 10)
Level Muscle Level Muscle
C5: elbow flexors biceps/brachialis L2: hip flexors iliopsoas
C6: wrist extensors ECRL/ECRB L3: knee extensor quadriceps
C7: elbow extensor Triceps L4: ankle DF anterior tibialis
C8: 3rd DIP flexor FDP L5: 1st toe extensor EHL
T1: 5th digit abductor ADM S1: ankle PF gastroc/soleus
- Which muscle is tested for ASIA C6?
A) biceps
B) brachioradialis
C) triceps
D) extensor carpi radialis longus
Answer: D
ASIA Motor Exam (for questions 9 & 10)
Level Muscle Level Muscle
C5: elbow flexors biceps/brachialis L2: hip flexors iliopsoas
C6: wrist extensors ECRL/ECRB L3: knee extensor quadriceps
C7: elbow extensor Triceps L4: ankle DF anterior tibialis
C8: 3rd DIP flexor FDP L5: 1st toe extensor EHL
T1: 5th digit abductor ADM S1: ankle PF gastroc/soleus
Ref: Archives of PM&R 2002 Study Guide 83(3): S51
- What change is seen in muscle after 2 weeks of bed rest?
A) decreased number of myofibrils
B) atrophy of type II fibers
C) transformation of type I fiber into type II fibers
D) increase in number of sarcomeres
Muscle Fiber Types
Type I: slow twitch oxidative
low intensity, high endurance (i.e. postural muscles)
• low activity myosin ATPase
• slow speed of contraction
• less glycolytic capacity
• abundant mitochondrial enzymes for aerobic metabolism
• fatigue-resistant; suited for prolonged aerobic exercise
Type II: fast twitch oxidative/glycolytic
high intensity
• high activity myosin ATPase
• fast action potential transmission
• rapid calcium release and uptake by sarcoplasmic reticulum
• high rate cross-bridge turnover
Type IIa: fast twitch oxidative glycolytic
• fast contraction speed
• both aerobic and anaerobic capacity
Type IIb: fast twitch glycolytic
• greatest anaerobic potential
Ref: Braddom 2nd Edition: p 704-706; PT Secrets: p 8; PM&R Secrets: p 487
- A cognitively intact man with C2 ASIA A SCI states that he wants to die. What do you do?
A) tell him it is early and his full recovery potential is not yet known
B) have a family meeting
C) start anti-depressant medication
Answer: A (?)
There doesn’t seem to be enough information in this question but assuming that this scenario is referring to a patient soon after his injury, choice A would seem the most appropriate. As time elapses after the injury, choices B and C would be appropriate.
Ref: none
- What is seen in a wheelchair athlete who clamps his foley before a race?
A) increased BP
B) increased SV
C) increased CO
D) increased A-V O2 difference
Answer: A
Autonomic dysreflexia is an acute hypertensive syndrome with compensatory reduction in heart rate and contractility. Pounding headaches and sweating are often seen. Symptoms are due to a hyperactive reflex sympathetic discharge and is seen in patients with spinal cord lesions above T5-T6. Autonomic dysreflexia is caused by viscus distention or noxious stimuli below the level of the lesion (i.e. urologic obstruction, bowel impaction, infection, intra-abdominal process). Treatment includes identification and elimination of the cause (i.e. catherization, disempaction, treatment of infection). Immediate blood pressure reduction can also be treated with nitropaste or nifedipine.
Ref: PM&R Secrets, p 208, 475
- Which shoulder motions are not involved in wheelchair propulsion?
A) Adduction
B) Abduction
C) internal rotation
D) external rotation
Answer: A
Shoulders are abducted during wheelchair propulsion. Internal rotation and external rotation at the shoulder occur with forward and backward propulsion of the wheels, respectively.
Ref: none
- Long term use of Didronel can cause which of the following?
A) pathologic fracture
B) decrease mineralization following surgery
C) osteopenia
D) dissolve bone formed by HO
Answer: B Etidronate disodium (Didronel) is a bisphosphonate which inhibits growth of hydroxyapatite crystals by preventing the precipitation of calcium phosphate. It also slows the rate of osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity. It cannot dissolve any bone already formed by HO; however, may prevent recurrence of HO after resection (no good studies; radiation and NSAIDs more effective?). Didronel carries a potential risk of bone fracture secondary to osteomalacia when used for prolonged periods. It can also inhibit mineralization of bone after surgery.
Ref: PDR 2002: p 2888; Essentials of PM&R: p 574; PM&R Clinics of North America 1992: 3(2) p 411-413; Pocketpaedia: p 88
- A patient has absent sensation below T6 on th left and no motor function below T6 on the right. Where is the lesion?
A) left cord
B) right cord
C) cortex
Answer: B
Brown-Sequard syndrome is caused by a hemisection of the cord, resulting in ipsilateral mono/hemiparesis with contralateral pain and temperature sensation deficits. It is often caused by knife or gun shot wounds to the back or asymmetrically oriented spinal tumors. Prognosis for motor recovery is good.
Central cord syndrome results in weakness in the UE>>LE with preserved sacral sensation. There is LE hyperreflexia with UE mixed UMN/LMN changes. Causes include spinal stenosis secondary to extension injury, intramedullary hematoma / mass, or syrinx.
Anterior cord syndrome results in hyporeflexia, atrophy, variable motor loss, preservation of proprioception, but impaired pin prick and temperature sensation. Common causes include thoracolumbar burst fracture, AAA, and aortic clamping surgey with compromise to the artery of Adamkiewicz.
Posterior cord (dorsal column) syndrome results in bilateral deficits in proprioception. Potential causes include vitamin B12 deficiency often from pernicious anemia (subacute combined deficiency) and syphilis (tabes dorsalis).
Ref: PM&R Secrets: p 205-206
- What is the FIM score of a tetraplegic patient who can self-administer a suppository without help?
A) 6
B) 7
C) 4
D) 5
Answer: A
The bowel FIM score for the patient is a 6 (modified independent); although the suppository is administered independently, bowel evacuation requires the use of the suppository.
Functional Independence Measure (FIM)
Level of Function Score Definition
Independent 7 Complete independence. Task performed safely, without modifications, AD, and aids, and within a reasonable amount of time.
Independent 6 Modified independence. One of more of the following may be true: task requires AD, takes ↑ time, or there are safety issues.
Dependent 5 Supervision / setup. Requires more help than standby or cueing without physical contact, or setup.
Dependent 4 Minimal assistance. Patient expends more than 75% of effort.
Dependent 3 Moderate assistance. Patient expends 50-75% of effort.
Dependent 2 Maximal assistance. Patient expends 25-50% of effort.
Dependent 1 Total assistance. Patient expends less than 25% of effort.
Ref: Braddom 2nd Edition: p 5
?103. Prophylactic ABX use in SCI has been shown to decrease the incidence of which of the following?
Abx. Are generally reserved for persons symptomatic with fever and leukocytosis and for those demonstrating catheter blockage, increased spasticity, or very foul urine. Reference: Braddom, 2nd ed, pg 1256.
For those who have had indwelling Foley catheters for an extended period and require catheter removal oe exchange, ABX should be administered prophylactically before, during and afterremoval of the existing catheter. Gentamcin 80mg IM once just prior to removal of the catheter is appropriate for most pts. With stable renal function. Patients who demonstrate recurrent infections should be considered for suppressive treatment. Nitrofurantoin 50-100mg po BID is sufficient. Methanamine hippurate 1g TID and Ascorbic acid 500mg qd acidify the urine and are good for UTI prophylaxis.
Reference: PM&R Essentials, pg 634.
- What is the best type of anesthesia to give a pregnant C6 complete tetraplegia?
Answer- Spinal anesthesia is recommended during delivery for pts. with SCI at T6 or above.
- Vibroejaculatory stimulation and electrostimulation in the SCI male- know side effect?
Answer- Autonomic Dysreflexia
Vibratory stimulation of the glans penis has been used successfully by various groups to collect semen via antegrade and retrograde ejaculation (successful in about 50% SCI pts) as it requires an intact reflex arc. Ejaculatory success is better with high amplitude vibration. The advantages are noninvasiveness, home use, possibility of “natural fertilization, and that retrograde emission is less likely than with transrectal electrical stimulation. Improvement in quantity and quality of sperm with weekly use of vibratory ejaculatory technique may occur. The disadvantages are unpredictable response in many pts and the risk of autonomic dysreflexia.
Transrectal electrical stimulation or electroejaculation involves stimulation of the myelinated preganglionic efferent sympathetic fibers of the hypogastric plexus to obtain seminal emission into the posterior urethra. The semen is obtained from the posterior urethra by milking the urethral bulb and by catherization. Electroejaculation is an office or hospital based procedure b/c of the need to monitor for autonomic dyreflexia and the anoscopy performed to evaluate the rectal mucosa.
Reference: Braddom,2nd ed., pg 630.
- Which GI complication is most responsible for SCI pt 1 week post injury who develops nauseau and vomiting?
Answer- Gastroparesis- from high Ca
?107. Drugs of choice for radicular pain in SCI pts.?
Answer- Anticonvulsants
Could not find reference
?108. What is the first choice of to treat radicular pain in SCI pt.?
Answer- Neurontin
Could not find reference
- Paraplegic pt. recently given TLSO with n/v of meals. What do you do?
Answer- Turn pt. on right side
Superior mesenteric syndrome- syndrome in which the SMA compresses the third portion of the duodenum producing postprandial nausea, emesis, abdominal pain, distention and dehydration. It is exacerbated by being supine and spinal orthotics. Treatment includes small frequent meals, side lying and Reglan.
Reference: Kessler Notes 2003, Lecture 19, Tx of Acute SCI Pt. & Medical Complications.
- Which antibiotic class is indicated for a pregnant female with SCI and symptomatic UTI?
Answer- Cephalosporins
- Where is the most common location of osteoporosis in a young male T1 complete para who is wheelchair bound?
Answer- Proximal femur
The most measurable complication of osteoporosis following SCI is pathologic fracture. The historical incidence of fractures in the SCI population has been 1.45-6%; however, this historically low incidence may be deceptive since most SCI patients who sustain subsequent traumas and fractures are not treated in SCI centers. In addition, these studies on fractures have come from inpatient charts. Recently, the Model Spinal Cord Injury System has produced figures on fracture rates based on time following SCI, with incidences of 14% at 5 years, 28% at 10 years, and 39% at 15 years postinjury. These incidence rates are based on outpatient studies and have been confirmed.
The sites of fractures mimic the sites of greatest osteoporosis, with the supracondylar region and tibia being the most common. A bone mineral density fracture threshold of 50% appears to exist for the knee, and this most likely is the bone mineral density fracture threshold for most regions in the body.
Fracture rates in the lower extremities are 10 times greater in patients with complete SCI compared to patients with incomplete injuries. Paraplegic patients are at higher risk than tetraplegic patients, due to the higher level of function that paraplegic individuals have with increased mobility and participation in physical activities. Reference- E-Medicine, Osteoporosis and SCI.
Q171. Who is not a candidate for a phrenic nerve stimulator?
A) COPD
A) C2 SCI
B) Pt who is vent dependent
A. (given correct answer: A)
Phrenic nerve stimulation is a valuable adjunct in the care of the patient with ventilatory insufficiency who has a normal phrenic nerve, diaphragm, and lungs. Specifically, this technique is useful in persons with high level quadreplegia accompanied by respiratory paralysis and central hypoventilation syndromes.
Ref Braddom 2nd ed. 2000 p 476
Q219 Complications of electroejaculation
A) Autonomic dysreflexia
B) Infertility
C) Pain
D) Penile strictures
A (Correct answer is A)
Electroejaculation is the rhythmic delivery of current using a rectal probe to sympathetic efferent fibers. These techniques carry the risk of autonomic dysreflexia.
http://www.emedicine.com/orthoped/topic425.htm
Q 269. Know about immobilization hypercalcemia in SCI patient and SMA syndrome(? Didn’t find anything on SMA in SCI)
: Any form of immobilization alters calcium metabolism, but the structural and physiological changes associated with SCI predispose these patients to a variety of complications. These include hypercalcemia, bone fractures, nephrolithiasis, and renal failure. As early as 10 days post injury, hypercalciuria develops, reaching a peak between 1 and 6 months post injury. This calcium is derived from bone resorption, as increased levels of urinary phosphate, hydroxyproline, and glycosaminoglycans are also observed. There is an initial suppression of parathyroid hormone(PTH) that reaches its nadir at 3 months and returns to the normal range at 6 months. Pathological studies demonstrate an increased number of osteoclasts in bone, reaching a peak at 16 weeks post-injury, with diminished bone formation and mineralization.
Hypercalcemia is seen in some patients. Risk factors for hypercalcemia include childhood/adolescent SCI, male sex, complete injuries, tetraplegia, dehydration, and prolonged immobilization. Signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, lethargy, apathy, fatigue, polydipsia, polyuria, muscle weakness, and anorexia. Mnemonic “stones, bones, and abdominal groans.” Treatment of hypercalcemia can include IV fluids, diuretics(ie furosemide), pamidronate, and calcitonin. Limitation of dietary calcium and Vitamin D intake is not recommended.
Ref: Braddom, PM&R, 2nd Edition, p 1249*, 709
PM&R Secrets, p.433
Q 281. Most common upper extremity injury in T-10 SCI from wheeling wheelchair(impingement, etc)?
A: Impingement Syndrome in shoulder…
Chronic shoulder impingement syndrome is a common injury in wheelchair users. It occurs when joint space between the humeral head (upper arm) and the acromioclavicular (A/C) shelf (top of the shoulder, at the end of the collarbone) decreases to the point where repeated contact occurs in the same spot on the supraspinatus tendon. This results in a pain, swelling, lesions and a reduction in the use of the shoulder joint. The most common factor of this condition is thought to be lack of joint stability. While joint stability is maintained by a combination of different bones and tissues, the most probable cause of the lack of stability is thought to be muscular imbalance (where some muscles are stronger or have greater endurance than others).
Ref: http://www.lerner.ccf.org/bme/bogert/lab/shoulder_stability.php Analysis of Shoulder Stability in Wheelchair User, J. Brems, M.D., Department of Orthopedic Surgery
440) What is the best type of anesthesia to give a pregnant C6 complete tetraplegia?
spinal anesthesia,
other answers:
pudendal block, stellate ganglion block, general anesthesia.