Prosthetic Orthotics Flashcards

1
Q

A child with a congenital transverse radial limb deficiency should have an initial prosthesis fit at what developmental stage?

(a) At the time of starting kindergarten
(b) As soon as possible after birth
(c) At the time of first sitting independently
(d) At the time of initially walking

A

Answer: c

Children with unilateral transverse radial limb deficiency should be “fit to sit,” meaning fitted by 6 months of age with an initial prosthesis that has a passive terminal device.

Reference: (a) Gaebler-Spira D, Uellendahl J. Pediatric limb deficiencies. In: Molnar GE, Alexander MA, editors. Pediatric rehabilitation. Philadelphia: Hanley & Belfus; 1999. p 333-50 ; (b) Fisk JR, Smith DG. The limb-deficient child. In: Smith DG, Michael JW, Bowker JH, editors. Atlas of amputations and limb deficiencies: surgical, prosthetic and rehabilitation principles. 3rd Edition. Rosemont: American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons; 2004. p 773-7.

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2
Q

The primary advantage of a 4-point crutch gait over a 2-point crutch gait is

(a) stability.
(b) speed.
(c) weight-bearing relief.
(d) efficiency of gait.

A

Answer: a

The 4-point crutch gait has stability as its primary advantage. At least 3 points are always in contact with the ground. It is more difficult to learn than the other gait patterns and is a relatively slow form of ambulation. The 3-point crutch gait is used by patients with lower limb fractures, amputations, or toe-touch weight-bearing. The 4-point gait pattern enables the crutch user to eliminate all the weight-bearing on the affected lower limb. The 2-point crutch gait is much faster than the 4-point gait and yet still provides some weight-bearing relief to both lower limbs.

Reference: Ogle AA. Canes, crutches, walkers, and other ambulation aids. Phys Med Rehabil State Art Rev 2000;14(3):485-92.

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3
Q

he individual with a transfemoral amputation for whom a weight-activated stance-control knee would be most indicated is one who

(a) has cognitive deficits.
(b) has a contralateral weak limb.
(c) is an unlimited ambulator.
(d) requires a preparatory prosthesis.

A

Answer: d

Weight-activated stance-controlled knees are often used for individuals with a transfemoral amputation. They are especially useful as a preparatory prosthesis, because their simplicity and safety help new amputees learn to walk with a prosthesis. To flex the knee, the amputee must shift weight onto the opposite leg, which requires the opposite limb to accept increased weight. Additionally, the amputee must have the cognitive ability to learn to weight shift. The requirement to shift weight off of the prosthesis to allow knee flexion presents few problems at slow cadences, but if the amputee attempts to walk at a more normal speed, the gait pattern is disrupted by the premature weight shift. Because it is impossible to voluntarily bend the knees and control the direction of a fall when using bilateral friction knees, for a bilateral amputee, a stance-phase knee is best used only on one side, if at all.

Reference: Michael JW. Prosthetic suspensions and components. In: Smith DG, Michael JW, Bowker JH, editors. Atlas amputations and limb deficiencies. 3rd ed. Rosemont: AAOS ;2004. p 420.

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4
Q

What is the primary disadvantage of moving the rear axle of a wheelchair forward?

(a) Ascending curbs becomes more difficult.
(b) It takes more muscle effort to propel the wheelchair.
(c) More strokes are required to push the wheelchair.
(d) Ascending a ramp becomes more difficult.

A

Answer: d

Moving a wheelchair’s rear axle forward enables the user to propel the chair with less muscle effort and fewer strokes. Because the modification causes more weight to be centered over the rear wheels, it is easier to pop a wheelie, negotiate obstacles and ascend or descend curbs. However, moving the axle forward can also make the wheelchair more “tippy” (likely to tip backwards) and that tendency to tip backwards makes it more difficult to push the chair up a ramp.

Reference: Koontz AM, Spaeth DM, Sichmeler MR, Cooper RA. Prescription of wheelchairs and seating systems. In: Braddom RL. Physical medicine and rehabilitation. Philidelphia: Elsevier; 2007. P 381-411.

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5
Q

Which factor promotes knee stability during the gait cycle of a person with transfemoral amputation?

(a) Knee component placed anterior to the socket
(b) Hard heel in the prosthetic foot
(c) Polycentric 4-bar linkage prosthetic knee
(d) Anterior position of the shank on the prosthetic foot

A

Answer: c

Flexion moment at the hip, a rigid heel in the solid ankle, cushion heel foot and the anterior position of the shank all shift the ground reaction force behind the knee joint to produce a knee flexion moment. The 4-bar linkage with instantaneous center of rotation and the posterior location of instant center in extension creates knee stability, especially at heel strike.

Reference:(a) Michael JW. Prosthetic suspensions and components. In: Smith DG, Michael JW, Bowker JH, editors. Atlas of amputations and limb deficiencies. 3rd ed. Rosemont. AAOS; 2004. p 421. (b) Schuch CM, Pritham CH. Transfemoral amputation: prosthetic management. In: Smith GD, Michael JW, Bowker JH, editors. Atlas of amputations and limb deficiencies. 3rd ed Rosemont: AAOS; 2004. p 541-2.

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6
Q

What is the function of the anterior pin in an ankle-foot orthosis (AFO) with a dual-channel ankle joint?

(a) It limits dorsiflexion.
(b) It assists plantarflexion.
(c) It corrects eversion.
(d) It promotes inversion.

A

Answer: a

An anterior stop is used to substitute for the function of the gastrocnemius-soleus complex. It limits dorsiflexion based on the size of the pin (a longer pin permits LESS movement). Because of its effect on the knee, it is used in conditions of weak calf muscles or weak quadriceps. The anterior stop assists with push-off and assists the knee joint into extension.

Reference: Shurr D, Michael JW. Prosthetics and orthotics. 2nd ed. Harrisonburg. Pearson Education; 2002. p 176.

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7
Q

The primary advantage of a soft insert fitted into the socket of a transtibial prosthesis is that it is

(a) perspiration resistant.
(b) easy to keep clean.
(c) easily modified.
(d) very durable.

A

Answer: c

Soft inserts are fabricated to fit inside the socket. They are recommended for patients with thin, sensitive, or scarred skin, or peripheral vascular disease (PVD). They are easily modified. Hard sockets also have their advantages. They are perspiration resistant, less bulky than sockets fitted with a soft insert, easy to keep clean, and durable. Further, reliefs or modifications can be located with precision in the hard socket.

Reference: Kapp SL, Fergason JR. Transtibial amputation: prosthetic management. In: Smith GD, Michael JW, Bowker JH, editors. Atlas amputation and limb deficiency. 3rd ed. Rosemont: AAOS; 2004. p 508.

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8
Q

How are mobility devices paid for through Medicare?

(a) The patient must make a 50% down payment, with the rest covered by Medicare upon delivery of the device.
(b) Medicare part A pays 80% of the allowed purchase price and Medicare part B pays the remaining 20%.
(c) Medicare will pay for purchase but not rental of mobility devices.
(d) Medicare part B pays 80% of the allowed purchase price in one lump sum.

A

Answer: d

Medicare Part B pays 80% of the allowed purchase price in one lump sum payment if the patient chooses to purchase the device. The patient is required to pay 20% of the allowed purchase price. If the patient chooses to rent a wheelchair, Medicare part B will pay 80% of the allowed rental price for months 1 through 10 and the patient will pay 20% of the allowed rental charge.

Reference: www.cms.hhs.gov/apps/media/press/release.asp Accessed May 15, 2008.

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9
Q

At mid stance, where is the ground reaction force vector located?

(a) Anterior to ankle, posterior to knee
(b) Anterior to ankle, anterior to knee
(c) Anterior to knee, anterior to hip
(d) Posterior to knee, posterior to hip

A

Answer: (b)
Commentary: In mid stance, the ground reaction vector lies anterior to the ankle, anterior to or through the knee axis, and posterior to the hip center. The passive torques created by this vector alignment are ankle dorsiflexion, knee extension and hip extension.
Ref: Rab GT. Muscle. In: Rose J, Gamble JG. editors. Human walking. 2nd Ed.Baltimore :Williams & Wilkins; 1994. p 114.

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10
Q

The patellar tendon bearing (PTB) socket for a transtibial amputee is designed

(a) to bear weight on the lateral tibial flare.
(b) with alignment in 5 deg – 8 deg of flexion.
(c) for distal weight bearing.
(d) with the posterior wall enclosing the hamstring tendons.

A

Answer: (b)
Commentary: The socket is aligned in approximately 5° - 8° of flexion to increase initial tension on the quadriceps tendon (discouraging knee hyperextension) and enhance weight bearing to the anterior aspect of the residual limb. The PTB socket is designed to accept weight at the patellar tendon, medial flare of the anterior tibia, lateral aspect of residual limb, pretibial muscle mass between the tibial crest and fibula and popliteal fossa. The posterior wall should provide relief for the hamstring tendons.
Ref: Schurr D, Michael JW. Prosthetics and orthotics. 2nd ed. Harrisonburg: Prentice-Hall; 2002. p 75.

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11
Q

What is the primary advantage of a body powered upper limb prosthesis compared to a myoelectric prosthesis?

(a) Greater sensory feedback
(b) Moderate or no harnessing
(c) Less body movement to operate
(d) Enhanced cosmesis

A

Answer: (a)
Commentary: The advantages of body powered upper limb prostheses include the following factors: moderate cost, most durability, highest sensory feedback, and a variety of prehensors available for various activities. Their disadvantages are that they require the most body movement to operate, have the most harnessing and require increased energy expenditure to use. Myoelectric and/or switch controlled upper limb prostheses have the following advantages: they require moderate to no harnessing, require fewer body movements to operate, have moderate cosmesis, provide more function in proximal areas and, in some cases, provide a stronger grasp. Battery powered prostheses are the heaviest and most expensive prostheses. They also require the most maintenance, provide limited sensory feedback and require extended therapy time.

Ref: Gitter A, Bosker G. Upper and lower extremity prosthetics. In: DeLisa JA, Gans BM, Walsh NE, editors. . Physical medicine and rehabilitation. 4th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams and Wilkins; 2005. p 1342.

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12
Q

What is the minimal number of points of contact that an orthosis must have in order to exert rotational control?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

A

Answer: (c)
Commentary: Rotational control forces or moments across a joint are not effective unless there are at least 3 points of contact between the device and the limb segment.

Ref: Shurr DJ, Michael JW. Prosthetics and orthotics. 2nd ed. Harrisonburg: Pearson Education; 2002. p 34.

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13
Q
  1. The primary stabilizing effect of the flexible lumbosacral orthosis is its ability to

(a) restrict spinal extension.
(b) prevent atrophy of trunk muscles.
(c) elevate intra-abdominal pressure.
(d) enhance kinesthetic feedback.
Answer: (

A

Answer: (c)
Commentary: Although they do not effectively restrict motion to a significant degree, flexible lumbosacral orthoses elevate intra-abdominal pressure, thereby unloading the spine and supporting structures. This action also provides inhibitory kinesthetic feedback and warmth. Long-term use of binders and other flexible lumbosacral orthoses may, unfortunately, result in atrophy of trunk muscles.

Ref: Pomerantz F, Durand E. Spinal orthotics. In: DeLisa JA, Gans BM, Walsh NE, editors. Rehabilitation medicine: principles and practice. 4th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams and Wilkins; 2005. p 1362 -3.

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14
Q

Which of the following measures of the extremity arterial blood supply is predictive of a favorable outcome in the healing of a foot sore?

(a) Toe blood pressure of 20mmHg
(b) Absent dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses
(c) Ankle-brachial index less than .45
(d) Transcutaneous oxygen tension greater than 35mmHg

A

Answer: (d)
Commentary:Various methods for the vascular assessment of the lower extremity are available for predicting healing of foot sores. The ankle-brachial index > 0.45 is the cornerstone of non-invasive vascular testing; however the transcutaneous oxygen saturation greater than 35mmHg is a more specific indicator of tissue perfusion and viability. Absolute toe blood pressures and distal foot pulses are also used for screening. Absent distal pulses and low absolute toe blood pressures are poor prognostic indicators.

Ref: Lazarides MK, Giannoukas AD. The role of hemodynamic measurements in the management of venous and ischemic ulcers. Int J Low Extrem Wounds. 2007 Dec;6(4):254-61

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15
Q

Which of the following would be an important consideration in the use of total-contact casting for a diabetic patient with a nonhealing foot ulcer?

(a) Active soft tissue infection is a contraindication to casting.
(b) The initial cast is typically left in place for approximately 14 days.
(c) Casting is designed to distribute pressures over the heel pad and metatarsal heads.
(d) Casting is only effective for ulcers that have been present for 3 weeks or less.

A

Answer: (a)

Commentary: Total-contact casting is an effective method to facilitate wound healing in persons with neuropathic foot ulcers, especially those located on the plantar surface of the foot. It accomplishes this by off-loading the sore and distributing pressures over the entire surface of the foot. Osteomyelitis and active soft tissue infection are contraindications to casting. The initial cast is changed within 2 to 7 days, and then approximately every 7 days if no complications develop. Casting can be effective even for chronic foot ulcers if the vascular supply is adequate.

Ref: Bus SA, Valk GD, san Deursen RW, Armstrong DG, Caravaggi C, Hlavacek P, Bakker K, Cavanagh PR. The effectiveness of footwear and offloading interventions to prevent and heal foot ulcers and reduce plantar pressure in diabetes: a systematic review. Diabets Metab Res Rev. 2008 May-Jun;24 Suppl 1:S162-80.

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16
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the design of a lower extremity prosthesis?

(a) Exoskeletal is less durable.
(b) Endoskeletal tends to require less maintenance.
(c) Exoskeletal is easily adjusted after fabrication.
(d) Endoskeletal tends to weigh less.

A

Answer: (d)
Commentary: Exoskeletal prostheses are more rugged, require less maintenance, cannot be adjusted for alignment after fabrication, and can accommodate only a restricted number of foot and knee units. Furthermore, these prostheses tend to weigh more than the equivalent endoskeletal prostheses. For these reasons, exoskeletal prostheses are prescribed less often than endoskeletal prostheses. Endoskeletal prostheses are modular in design, allowing relative ease of adjustment of alignment and replacement of parts. They are also easier to suspend by virtue of their relatively lighter weight.

Ref: Kuiken TA, Miller L, Lipschutz R, Huang ME. Rehabilitation of People with Lower Limb Amputation. In: Braddom RL, Buschbacher RM, Chan L, Kowlaske K., Laskowski ER, Matthews DJ, Ragnarrson KT, editors. Physical Medicine & Rehabilitation Third Edition. Saunders-Elsevier; 2007. pp. 296-7.

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17
Q

Which of the following prosthetic knees provides good stability in early stance phase and facilitates flexion while weight bearing during the pre-swing phase (terminal stance) of the gait cycle?

(a) Single axis
(b) Stance-phase control
(c) Polycentric
(d) Manual locking

A

Answer: (c)

Commentary: Many polycentric knees are designed so that the center of rotation moves anteriorly very rapidly during the first few degrees of knee flexion, quickly passing in front of the floor reaction line and facilitating the swing phase. Because the polycentric knee can be flexed under weight bearing during the terminal stance, when properly dynamically aligned it can offer both excellent stance stability and ease of swing-phase flexion. All polycentric knees shorten mechanically to a slight degree during flexion, adding additional toe clearance during midswing.

Ref: Kuiken TA, Miller L, Lipschutz R, Huang ME. Rehabilitation of People with Lower Limb Amputation. In: Braddom RL, Buschbacher RM, Chan L, Kowlaske K., Laskowski ER, Matthews DJ, Ragnarrson KT, editors. Physical Medicine & Rehabilitation Third Edition. Saunders-Elsevier; 2007. pp. 310-12.

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18
Q

A 28-year-old patient with a transradial amputation due to trauma presents 2 days after initial fitting of his prosthesis with complaints of discomfort. Your exam reveals that the discomfort arises over a bony prominence of the distal radius. Your initial recommendation is to

(a) add padding to the inner wall.
(b) line the inner wall with silicone.
(c) reshape the socket’s inner wall.
(d) replace the socket.

A

Answer: c

Commentary: A poorly fitting upper limb prosthetic socket can cause local irritation or discomfort. Bony prominences such as the radial and ulnar styloid processes and the humeral condyles are particularly vulnerable. Skillful reshaping of the socket’s inner wall usually provides relief. Socket modification must redistribute pressure while maintaining a secure fit that can resist slippage and rotary forces. Adding padding or other materials in the area of irritation is not usually indicated, because the padding creates additional pressure. Lining the socket with silicone can reduce friction if shear is the culprit. If the prosthetist cannot relieve these areas by grinding or reshaping the socket, socket replacement is indicated.

Ref: Spires MC, Miner L, Colwell M. Upper extremity amputation and prosthetic rehabilitation. In: Grabois M, Garrison SJ, Hart KA, Lehmkuhl LD, editors. Physical Medicine and rehabilitation, the complete approach. Malden (MA): Blackwell Science; 2000. p 549-82

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19
Q

1.A 16-year-old male with a right above-knee amputation presents to your clinic to get your opinion on operating a motor vehicle. You advise him that he would be required to

(a) strengthen his hip extensors.
(b) change the position of the car’s accelerator and brake.
(c) obtain a special driving prosthesis.
(d) install a handbrake on the vehicle’s left floor.

A
  1. (b)The only situation that applies in this scenario is changing the position of the pedals in order to operate the vehicle with the left lower limb. Installing a handbrake is reserved for persons with right upper limb amputations. Other acceptable recommendations could include automatic transmission and/or hand controls.
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20
Q
  1. In which circumstance is supracondylar suspension on a transtibial prosthetic socket most indicated?

(a) A 4-centimeter residual limb length below the tibial tubercule
(b) A residual limb with mildly adherent distal scar tissue
(c) A cylindrical-shaped residual limb
(d) A residual limb with poor definition above the femoral condyles

A
  1. (a)Supracondylar suspension would be most indicated for an individual with a short transtibial residual limb to provide additional mediolateral support and to increase the weight-bearing surface area for more even pressure distribution. A cylindrical-shaped transtibial limb is ideal for allowing total contact between the residual limb and the socket and is not an indication for supracondylar suspension. Supracondylar suspension is also not specifically indicated for mildly adherent scar tissue. Supracondylar suspension would be difficult to utilize in a residual limb that has poor definition above the femoral condyles.
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21
Q
  1. What is the shortest functional level for a transtibial amputation?

(a) Just proximal to the tibial tuberosity
(b) Just distal to the tibial tuberosity
(c) Six centimeters distal to the tibial tuberosity
(d) Ten centimeters distal to the tibial tuberosity

A

b)The shortest functional amputation level for a transtibial amputation is just distal to the tibial tuberosity. Knee flexion and extension can occur with this level of amputation because the patella tendon and hamstring tendon attachments are still present. Control of knee flexion and extension of the knee is lost with amputations proximal to the tibial tuberosity.

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22
Q

4.What is the best-established benefit of a microprocessor-controlled knee unit, compared to a conventional pneumatic knee unit?

(a) It provides both swing and stance phase control.
(b) It allows greater knee flexion to perform bending and lifting activities.
(c) It allows running at faster speeds.
(d) It provides a more natural and symmetric gait pattern.

A
  1. (d)Microprocessor controlled knee units use a computerized system to automatically adjust the knee unit’s resistance over a wide range of gait speeds. With this automatic control, there is greater consistency and reliability in the knee movement during the gait cycle. These benefits give the amputee greater confidence and improve swing phase responsiveness and gait symmetry, as well. Negative aspects of the microprocessor controlled knee units are heavier weight and greater expense. These units have not been shown to improve running speed.
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23
Q
  1. Regarding energy expenditure during prosthetic ambulation,

(a) at self selected walking speeds, someone ambulating with a transtibial prosthesis has a higher rate of metabolic energy expenditure [mlO2/(kg•meter)] compared with normal human locomotion.
(b) whether a person has a transtibial or transfemoral prosthesis, the metabolic cost [mlO2/(kg•meter)] of ambulation is the same.
(c) at self selected walking speeds, cardiac work load during transtibial prosthetic ambulation is comparable to that in normal human locomotion.
(d) gait velocity [meters/min] during transtibial prosthetic ambulation is comparable to that in transfemoral prosthetic ambulation.

A
  1. (c)The rate of metabolic energy expenditure–mlO2/(kg•minute)–represents energy expenditure per unit of time in comparison to metabolic cost–mlO2/(kg•minute)–which is a measure of energy expenditure per unit distance, a meter. The metabolic cost of prosthetic ambulation is greater than that used in normal human locomotion and the metabolic cost of transfemoral prosthetic ambulation is greater than that in transtibial prosthetic ambulation. Because individuals who ambulate witha prosthesis slow their gait velocity, their rate of metabolic energy expenditure is relatively unchanged compared to normal ambulation at self-selected walking speeds. Because the rate of metabolic energy expenditure is maintained at a level comparable to ambulation without a prosthesis, cardiac work load is also unchanged during ambulation with either a transtibial or transfemoral prosthesis, if subjects are allowed to walk at their self-selected walking speed.
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24
Q
  1. Which circumstance is most likely to result in left knee hyperextension at initial contact (heel strike) in a patient with spastic left hemiparesis?

(a) Solid ankle, double-metal, upright ankle-foot orthosis set in 5° of plantar flexion
(b) Addition of a solid one-quarter inch heel to the left shoe
(c) Addition of ankle dorsiflexion spring assistance to a dual-channel, double-metal, ankle-foot orthosis
(d) Addition of a T-bar strap to a double-metal upright ankle-foot orthosis to reduce foot inversion.

A

a)Placing a solid ankle, double-metal, upright ankle-foot orthosis in 5° of plantarflexion will increase the extension moment (forces) at the knee and this can result in knee hyperextension, especially at the time of initial contact (heel strike). Addition of a T-bar strap should not effect the knee and the addition of dorsiflexion spring assistance or a one-quarter inch heel will reduce the tendency to have knee hyperextension.

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25
Q
  1. Which spinal orthosis is used to prevent thoracic spinal flexion by providing 3-point pressure over the sternum and pubis anteriorly and the upper lumbar spine posteriorly?

(a) Custom molded, plastic thoracolumbosacral orthosis
(b) Lumbosacral corset with posterior metal stays
(c) Jewett orthosis
(d) Taylor orthosis

A
  1. (c)Several different types of thoracolumbosacral (TLSO) orthoses are available to control segmental spine motion in this region. A custom molded plastic TLSO provides almost total contact support for uniform pressure distribution and control of motion in all plains. A lumbosacral corset with metal stays provides support circumferentially and helps reduce spine motion primarily in the lumbosacral region. A Taylor orthosis also provides circumferential support with the addition of axillary straps. The Taylor orthosis is primarily designed to resist flexion and extension. A Jewett brace is designed to limit thoracic spine flexion by providing 3-point pressure over the sterum and pubis anteriorally and the upper lumbar spine posteriorally. This type of brace is used most commonly for individuals with thoracic spine anterior compression fractures.
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26
Q
  1. For which individual would a high-profile, dynamic elastic response (energy-storing) prosthetic foot and ankle mechanism be most indicated?

(a) 75-year-old man with a transtibial amputation who lives in a nursing home
(b) 53-year-old woman with a transfemoral amputation who is a recreational swimmer
(c) 60-year-old man with a transtibial amputation who enjoys jogging
(d) 43-year-old man with a transfemoral amputation who farms

A

c)High-profile, dynamic elastic response prosthetic feet and ankle components such as the Flex-Foot and Springlite are primarily indicated for individuals who are expected to be community ambulators and are able to ambulate at variable cadences. This class of prosthetic components is also used for individuals participating in running and sports activities. Therefore, this class of components would be most indicated for the individual with a transtibial amputation interested in returning to running. An individual who farms would likely benefit from a prosthetic foot and ankle system which is more accommodative over uneven surfaces.

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27
Q
  1. At which location is a Syme amputation performed?
    (a) A
    (b) B
    (c) C
    (d) D
A
  1. (a)A Syme amputation (A) is ankle disarticulation with tapering of the medial and lateral malleoli and preservation of the heel pad for soft tissue coverage and distal weight bearing. A Boyd hindfoot (B) amputation is a talectomy and calcaneal-tibial arthrodesis after forward translation of the calcaneus. A Chopart level (C) amputation is performed at the mid-tarsal level with sparing of the talus and calcaneus. A tarsal-metatarsal disarticulation (D) is also referred to as a Lisfranc amputation.
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28
Q
  1. In an upper-extremity prosthesis, an advantage of a voluntary-closing hook terminal device that a voluntary-opening device does not have is

(a) the ability to carry objects with less fatigue.
(b) improved ability to manipulate fragile objects.
(c) an adjustable pinch force effected by changing the number of elastic bands.
(d) a better ability to visualize the object being manipulated.

A
  1. (b)One advantage of a voluntary-closing hook terminal device is the ability to adjust the amount of pinch force by adjusting pressure on the cable control. This improves the ability to manipulate fragile objects. A voluntary opening terminal device uses elastic bands to determine the pinch force and the number of bands would have to be reduced to decrease the pinch force. When carrying objects, voluntary-closing terminal devices require constant cable tension and this can result in quicker fatigue. The ability to visualize the object being manipulated would not be dependent upon whether the terminal device is voluntary closing or voluntary opening.
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29
Q

11.What is the primary motion used to open a voluntary-opening terminal device in a body-powered transradial prosthesis?

(a) Glenohumeral flexion
(b) Glenohumeral extension
(c) Biscapular elevation
(d) Biscapular adduction

A
  1. (a)The control cable for opening the terminal device of a standard transradial prosthesis using a voluntary-opening terminal device passes posterior to the elbow joint, along the posterior arm, and attaches to the posterior support strap of a figure-of-8 harness. This arrangement allows glenohumoral flexion to produce tension in the cable and open the terminal device. Glenohumoral extension and biscapular adduction decrease tension on the control cable. Biscapular elevation would not produce cable tension required for terminal device operation.
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30
Q
  1. Regarding acquired upper extremity amputation in adults,

(a) the most common level is transhumeral.
(b) they account for approximately 50% of all acquired major limb amputations.
(c) they are most common in the 20- to 40-year-old age group.
(d) their most common cause is malignancy.

A
  1. (c)Trauma is the most common cause of upper extremity amputation in adults. Malignancy is a more common cause of amputation in the pediatric population. Upper extremity amputations occur most commonly in the 20- to 40-year-old age group, as a result of trauma and work related accidents. The dominant extremity is affected more commonly and amputations at the transradial level are the most common level of upper extremity amputation. Upper extremity amputations occur much less frequently than lower extremity amputations. Upper extremity amputations account for approximately 20% of all major limb amputations.
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31
Q
  1. One advantage of a small diameter caster (front wheelchair wheel) is

(a) greater ability to traverse rough terrain.
(b) better stability on steep inclines.
(c) less frequent maintenance.
(d) greater maneuverability.

A
  1. (d)Small diameter casters on a wheelchair reduce the chair’s turning radius, which gives it greater maneuverability. These casters frequently are mounted on wheelchairs used for sports such as basketball. Smaller diameter casters are less well suited for outdoor activities over rough terrain. The size of the caster does not affect the maintenance required and does not improve wheelchair stability on inclines. Hard, narrow casters are typically recommended for mobility over smooth, level surfaces whereas wider, larger casters are better for mobility over uneven, rough surfaces.
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32
Q
  1. Which shoe modification would NOT be appropriate for an individual with loss of protective sensation on the foot secondary to diabetes?

(a) Wide toe box
(b) Rocker bottom
(c) Soft inner shoe liner
(d) Solid steel shank

A
  1. (d)All of the shoe modifications listed would be appropriate for an individual with loss of protective sensation except for the use of a solid steel shank built into the sole of the shoe. This modification would decrease the accommodative properties of the shoe and may increase the potential for skin breakdown.
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33
Q
  1. In which case would a wrist-hand-finger orthosis utilizing dynamic metacarpophalangeal extension assistance be most indicated?

(a) Complete radial nerve injury at the level of the mid-humerus
(b) Partial ulnar nerve injury at the level of the elbow
(c) Complete median nerve injury in the forearm
(d) C5 level ASIA class A spinal cord injury

A
  1. (a)With a radial nerve injury at the level described, there is loss of wrist and metacarpal extension because of denervation of the forearm extensor muscles. A dorsal wrist-hand-finger orthosis that holds the wrist, fingers, and thumb in extension and permits flexion of the digits with a low-profile outrigger is used to substitute for this loss of function. This type of orthosis would be inappropriate for the other conditions described.
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34
Q
  1. Which knee component is preferred in the prosthetic prescription for an 80-year-old debilitated, dysvascular, diabetic transfemoral amputee?
  2. (a) Single axis
  3. (b) Polycentric
  4. (c) Pneumatic
  5. (d) Manual locking
A
  1. (d)A manual-locking knee is indicated for new unstable amputees and those who need utmost stability because of muscular weakness or poor coordination. The other components are generally used in persons with less risk of falling.
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35
Q

What acquired upper extremity amputation is most common in adults?

(a) Dominant extremity at the transradial level
(b) Dominant extremity at the transhumeral level
(c) Non-dominant extremity at the transradial level
(d) Non-dominant extremity at the transhumeral level

A
  1. (a)Acquired upper limb amputations in adults occur most commonly in males between the ages of 21 and 64 years. These amputations result frequently from work-related accidents or trauma and are most common in the dominant limb at the transradial level. In contrast, congenital upper limb deficiencies occur most commonly on the left side at the transradial level.
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36
Q
  1. When applying a static resting hand splint to a person who had a stroke with upper limb paralysis, what is the appropriate joint position to maintain the hand in a functional position?
  2. (a) 20° of wrist flexion
  3. (b) 90° of metacarpophalangeal flexion
  4. (c) Neutral position or slight flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints
  5. (d) 30° of thumb opposition across the palm
A
  1. (c)A resting hand splint is designed to maintain a position of function in a hand that is weak or paralyzed. It is applied on the volar surface and extends from the fingertips to the proximal third of the forearm. The wrist is typically placed in slight extension. The metacarpophalangeal joints are placed in slight flexion and the interphalangeal joints are placed in a neutral position or in slight flexion. The thumb is supported in a position between palmar and radial abduction.
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37
Q
  1. A person with diabetes presents with an area of nonblanching erythema on the plantar surface of the foot at the first metatarsal head. Recommendations for footwear would include
    a. custom-molded shoe insert.
    b. narrow toe box shoe.
    c. heel lift on the affected side.
    d. calcaneal bar added to the sole of the shoe.
A
  1. (a)Footwear for the person with diabetes and grade 1 skin changes on the plantar aspect of the foot should be designed to relieve pressure over the affected site while evenly distributing pressure over the remaining foot surface to prevent other skin breakdown. A typical prescription would include an extra-depth shoe with a wide toebox and a total-contact, custom-molded insert with pressure relief at the area of skin irritation. Further shoe modifications with a metatarsal bar and rocker bottom sole could also be considered, especially if the patient had grade 2 skin changes or more severe foot deformities. A calcaneal bar or heel lift would not be appropriate considerations in this case.
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38
Q
  1. What type of prehension is provided by a wrist-driven tenodesis orthosis?
  2. (a) Lateral
  3. (b) 3-jaw chuck
  4. (c) Cylindrical
  5. (d) Tip-to-tip
A
  1. (b)The wrist-driven tenodesis hinge orthosis creates a 3-jaw chuck prehension by stabilizing the interphalangeal joints of digits 2 and 3 and the interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints of the thumb. The extensor carpi radialis muscle activates the wrist extension, which through tenodesis action creates a 3-jaw chuck prehension.
39
Q
  1. In adult patients, what advantage does a knee disarticulation amputation have over a transfemoral amputation?

(a) Better cosmetic appearance with prosthetic fitting
(b) Reduced risk of phantom pain
(c) Increased ability to bear weight on the distal residual limb
(d) Improved surgical wound healing

A
  1. (c)Compared with a transfemoral level amputation, a knee disarticulation provides increased ability to bear weight on the distal residual limb. There is no evidence that knee disarticulation amputations have a reduced risk of phantom pain or have improved surgical wound healing. Amputations at the transfemoral level typically have a better cosmetic appearance with prosthetic fittings because the distal prosthetic socket can be tapered to be more symmetric with the opposite side. Knee disarticulation amputations also have a prosthetic knee axis of rotation that is distal compared to the intact knee.
40
Q
  1. The proper static alignment of the socket in a transtibial prosthesis will place the socket in slight

(a) flexion.
(b) extension.
(c) external rotation.
(d) abduction.

A
  1. (a)The socket of a transtibial prosthesis is typically slightly flexed during the static prosthesis alignment process. Proper flexion of the socket improves weight-bearing characteristics and also reduces knee extension forces during mid-stance and the terminal stance phases of gait. The static alignment also places the socket in 5° of adduction with the foot slightly inset relative to the socket.
41
Q
  1. A 30-year-old man who is otherwise healthy presents following traumatic bilateral transfemoral amputations. Based on your understanding of the increased metabolic demands associated with prosthetic ambulation, you conclude that
    (a) he should not be considered a prosthetic candidate.
    (b) he will have reduced ability to ambulate for long distances
    (c) cardiac stress testing is recommended prior to consideration for prosthetic fitting.
    (d) he will be able to use prosthetic devices for transfers and standing activities only.
A
  1. (b)The metabolic cost of ambulation (mL oxygen consumed per body weight per meter) is a measure of energy consumption per distance. The metabolic cost of ambulation increases following a lower limb amputation and the amount of increase is related to the level of the amputation as well as the amputation’s etiology. Because of this increased metabolic cost, persons will have reduced endurance for ambulation following an amputation. This would be especially true for an individual with bilateral transfemoral amputation(s). The person described, however, should be considered a candidate for prosthetic ambulation and, since he has no prior cardiac history or significant risk factors, cardiac stress testing would not be indicated.
42
Q
  1. A 60-year-old woman is being discharged to home from your rehabilitation unit following a right middle cerebral artery ischemic stroke with resultant left hemiparesis. She is ambulatory for short household distances with the use of a hemiwalker on the right. Recommendations for a manual wheelchair for this patient would include
  2. (a) hemi-height, with removable swing-away leg rests.
  3. (b) hemi-height, with nonremovable swing-away leg rests.
  4. (c) standard-height, with removable swing-away leg rests.
    (d) standard-height, with nonremovable swing-away leg rests.
A
  1. (a)Wheelchair recommendations for a person with hemiparesis and limited ambulatory abilities would include a hemi-height chair which is lower to the ground than to a standard height wheelchair. This configuration provides the patient greater advantage to propel the wheelchair with the unaffected lower extremity. It is also important for the leg rests to be removable so that they do not interfere with the patient’s ability to propel the wheelchair.
43
Q
  1. What is the average range of motion at the ankle during normal human ambulation over a level surface?

(a) 0° dorsiflexion, 10° plantarflexion
(b) 30° dorsiflexion, 20° plantarflexion
(c) 5° dorsiflexion, 20° plantarflexion
(d) 10° dorsiflexion, 10° plantarflexion

A
  1. (c)The average range of motion at the ankle during normal human ambulation over level surfaces is from 5° of dorsiflexion to 20° of plantarflexion. This range of motion varies with ambulation over uneven surfaces and with activities such as stair climbing.
44
Q

2.Which muscle is primarily responsible for clearance of the leg during swing phase?

(a) Iliopsoas
(b) Hamstrings
(c) Quadriceps
(d) Tibialis anterior

A
  1. (d)Midswing is the continuation of the passive pendulum action of the leg. Foot clearance is maintained by activity of the tibialis anterior.
45
Q
  1. What does the acronym SACH stand for?

(a) Simple amputation, cadence heel
(b) Single axis, carbon heel
(c) Standard adult, control heel
(d) Solid ankle, cushion heel

A
  1. (d)SACH is an acronym for solid ankle, cushion heel. The SACH foot has a cushioned heel that compresses during heel strike, stimulating plantar flexion, and has a rigid anterior keel to roll over during late stance. It is light, durable, and inexpensive, and is the orthosis most often prescribed for juvenile and geriatric amputees.
46
Q
  1. What is the arrow pointing to in this upper extremity prosthesis?
    (a) An excursion cable
    (b) An anterior split cable

(c) The elbow-lock control cable
(d) The elbow flexion cable

A
  1. (c)This is an elbow-lock control cable. Its proximal end originates at the anterior suspension strap and its distal end engages the elbow-locking mechanism. The principal of the elbow-lock mechanism is pull-and-release to lock, pull-and-release to unlock.
47
Q
  1. The primary advantage of a 4-point crutch gait over a 2-point crutch gait is

(a) stability.
(b) speed.
(c) weight-bearing relief.
(d) efficiency of gait.

A
  1. (a)The 4-point crutch gait has stability as its primary advantage. At least 3 points are always in contact with the ground. It is more difficult to learn than the other gait patterns and is a relatively slow form of ambulation. The 3-point crutch gait is used by patients with lower limb fractures, amputations, or toe-touch weight-bearing. The 4-point gait pattern enables the crutch user to eliminate all the weight-bearing on the affected lower limb. The 2-point crutch gait is much faster than the 4-point gait and yet still provides some weight-bearing relief to both lower limbs.
48
Q
  1. In order to obtain a semi-electric hospital bed for a patient who requires frequent changes in body position, which Medicare guideline must be met?

(a) The patient requires a bed with side rails for positioning the body in ways not feasible with an ordinary bed.
(b) The patient requires a heavy-duty bed due to morbid obesity, with body weight over 500 lbs.
(c) The caregiver requires a bed to be raised up to 48 inches to facilitate wound care.
(d) The patient requires traction equipment that can be attached only to a hospital bed.

A
  1. (d)By Medicare guidelines, to obtain a semi-electric hospital bed for a patient the physician must complete a certificate of medical necessity. Although a full electric bed used in most hospitals may be beneficial for many patients, Medicare guidelines consider the electric powered, variable height feature a convenience and, therefore, Medicare will not cover a full electric bed. A semi-electric hospital bed will be covered if the patient requires frequent changes in body position or has an immediate need for change in body position along with at least 1 of the following conditions: (1) The patient requires positioning of the body in ways not feasible with an ordinary bed. (2) For pain relief, the patient requires positioning of the body in ways not feasible in an ordinary bed. (3) Because of congestive heart failure, pulmonary disease, or aspiration, the patient requires the head of the bed to be elevated more than 30° most of the time. (4) The patient requires traction equipment that can only be attached to a hospital bed.
49
Q
  1. One disadvantage to adding camber to a wheelchair is that it
  2. (a) decreases side to side stability.
  3. (b) exposes the hands to injury.
  4. (c) results in poor ergonomic positioning of push rims.
  5. (d) makes maneuvering in narrow spaces difficult.
A
  1. (d)Camber has several advantages. The footprint of the chair is widened creating greater side to side stability; camber allows quicker turning; camber helps to protect the hands by having the bottom of the wheels scruff edges; and camber positions push rims more ergonomically for propulsion. A disadvantage is that the increased width of the wheelchair may make it difficult to maneuver in an environment made for walking (ie, narrow spaces).
50
Q
  1. In a patient with a transfemoral amputation, what is the most likely cause of excessive knee flexion during ambulation?

(a) Hip flexion contracture
(b) Prosthetic knee alignment in an excessively posterior position
(c) Excessive socket extension
Too soft a plantar flexion bumper in the heel

A
  1. (a) One of the most common gait deviations in patients with transfemoral amputations is abrupt or excessive knee flexion during ambulation. The prosthetic knee joint should normally be stable in extension in stance phase from heel contact to foot flat. This stability is accomplished by aligning the prosthetic knee axis posterior to the trochanteric knee ankle line. Adequate strength and range of motion in hip extension are critical to maintaining this alignment. Thus, weak hip extensors and hip flexion contractures can cause knee instability. Two prosthetic causes of knee instability are (1) knee malalignment in an excessively anterior position relative to the hip and ankle joints, and (2) excessive socket flexion. A plantar flexion bumper that is too stiff, extensive foot dorsiflexion, or a change in shoe heel height from low to high may all promote knee flexion.
51
Q
  1. During which phase of the gait cycle are the ankle plantarflexor muscles (gastrocnemius and soleus) most active?
  2. (a) Initial contact
  3. (b) Loading response
  4. (c) Midstance
  5. (d) Terminal stance
A
  1. (d) During the gait cycle, the ankle plantarflexors become active during the midstance phase when they contract eccentrically to control forward progression of the tibia and ankle dorsiflexion. These muscles become most active during the terminal stance phase when they contract concentrically to produce ankle plantarflexion and accelerate the trunk forward. The ankle plantarflexors are minimally active during the initial contact and loading response phases of the gait cycle.
52
Q
  1. A circumducted gait in a man with an above knee amputation is most likely due to

(a) a rigid heel in his solid ankle, cushioned heel (SACH) foot.
(b) inadequate friction in his prosthetic knee unit.
(c) his prosthetic foot being set in dorsiflexion.
(d) inadequate socket suspension.

A
  1. (d) Inadequate socket suspension causes the prosthesis to be functionally too long. A rigid heel and foot set in dorsiflexion would increase knee flexion movement. Inadequate friction would cause the leg to “snap” into terminal extension.
53
Q
  1. Which modification will make a rocker bottom sole most effective?

(a) Increase sole thickness with apex at the metatarsal heads.
(b) Provide a rigid sole with no shock absorption.
(c) Extend the length of the shoe to 1⁄2 inch beyond the longest toe.
(d) Ensure that arch length is measured 2cm proximal to metatarsal heads

A
  1. (c) The sole of a shoe for an individual with a neuropathic foot should be shock absorbing. The rocker sole allows ambulation with reduced pressures on the forefoot. This requires an addition to the sole thickness with an apex 1cm proximal to the metatarsal heads for the sole to roll over the forefoot. The length of the shoe must be 1⁄2 to 3⁄4 inches beyond the longest toe to accommodate the natural elongation of the foot in ambulation. The arch length is measured at the metatarsal heads.
54
Q
  1. A prescription for side joints and corset in a below knee prosthesis would be indicated in a patient with
  2. (a) a short residual limb.
  3. (b) a slight degree of knee joint laxity.
  4. (c) fluctuating limb volume.
  5. (d) fragile skin.
A
  1. (a) Side joints and corset are indicated for persons with short or damaged residual limbs, or those with a high degree of limb laxity. Long-term users may also prefer to continue side joints and a corset even without the aforementioned indications.
55
Q

The primary advantage of a sterno-occipital-mandibular immobilizer orthosis is its

  1. (a) excellent limitation of cervical extension.
  2. (b) ease of donning while the patient is supine.
  3. (c) high level of patient comfort.
  4. (d) excellent limitation of atlantoaxial motion.
A
  1. (b) The sternal-occipital mandibular immobilizer (SOMI) is effective at limiting flexion, whereas the 4- post orthosis restrains extension better. The SOMI can be applied to the supine patient without having to rotate the individual. The SOMI is not comfortable. Overall, control of atlantoaxial subluxation is difficult to achieve with orthoses.
56
Q
  1. When should upper extremity prosthesis fitting be initiated in the adult?
  2. (a) Within the first month after amputation
  3. (b) When residual limb strength is full.
  4. (c) When the patient requests a prosthesis
  5. (d) When residual limb volume has stabilized
A
  1. (a) The first month after upper limb amputation is the optimal period for prosthesis fitting. Fitting should be initiated during this time to maximize the level of acceptance and use of the prosthesis.
57
Q
  1. Double limb stance is what percent of the entire gait cycle?

(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 30%

A
  1. (c) The average double limb support is 20% and single limb support is 40% of the entire gait cycle. Stance phase accounts for 60% of the gait cycle and swing phase accounts for 40%.
58
Q

What is a possible cause for circumduction during mid swing in the transfemoral amputee?

(A)Insufficient knee friction
(B)Prosthesis too short
(C)Excessive medial brim pressures
(D)Inadequate hip extension

A
  1. (C) Possible causes for circumduction in the gait of a transfemoral amputee include excessive mechanical resistance to knee flexion, prosthesis aligned with too much stability, prosthesis too long, increased medial brim pressures, inadequate suspension, patient lacks confidence or has inadequate hip flexion.
59
Q
  1. In a transtibial amputee, ambulation with a prosthesis, instead of unilateral non-weight bearing (with crutches) results in

(a) higher rate of energy expenditure.
(b) lower heart rate.
(c) higher respiratory exchange rate.
(d) equivalent amounts of energy to walk the same distance.

A
  1. (b) Transtibial amputees have a lower rate of energy expenditure, heart rate and oxygen consumption when using a prosthesis (vs. non-weight bearing crutch gait). The cardiovascular demand of crutch walking is high, with increased rate of oxygen consumption, increased heart rate, increased energy costs, and respiratory exchange rate in the anaerobic range.
60
Q

The primary goal of a knee orthosis is to

  1. (a) prevent knee injury in athletes.
  2. (b) control knee instability in the anterior direction.
  3. (c) prevent recurvatum.
  4. (d) decrease the quadriceps force across the knee.
A
  1. (c) Knee orthoses are prescribed to prevent genu recurvatum and provide mediolateral stability. They may be used during sports and other activities to provide functional support for an unstable knee or during the rehabilitation phase following injury or surgery on the knee. The use of knee orthoses for the prevention of knee injury in athletes is controversial. The Swedish knee cage prevents recurvatum but permits flexion. The three way knee stabilizer gives good control of structural knee instability in the lateral, medial, and posterior directions.
61
Q
  1. The primary advantage of mag wheels over spoked wheels in the performance of a wheelchair is

(a) lighter weight.
(b) reduced maintenance.
(c) more maneuverability.
(d) general preference by active wheelchair users.

A
  1. (b) Although MAG wheels require minimum maintenance and wear well, spoked wheels are substantially lighter, more responsive, and are generally preferred by active wheelchair users.
62
Q

Which statement describes an advantage of a single-subject research design (that is, A-B-A or multiple baseline design)?

  1. (a) It can account for variability between subjects.
  2. (b) It permits medication trials with no washout period.
  3. (c) It can establish cause and effect relationships.
  4. (d) It is useful for interventions with prolonged or extended effects.
A
  1. (c) An advantage of a single-subject research design (A-B-A design) is that this design can establish cause and effect relationships similar to other true experimental designs. Single subject research designs involve systematic, repeated measurement of a dependent variable over time through 1 or more baseline and intervention phases. The primary limitation with a single-subject research design is that it only establishes the cause and effect relationship for the subject involved in the study. Therefore, these results cannot be assumed to occur in others, because of the variability between subjects. Typically, a single subject research design requires a washout period between medication trials to ensure that the effects of the medication are no longer active. Single subject research designs are especially useful for interventions that do not have extended or prolonged effects. If the intervention has only short-term effects, then a difference in the outcome measured can be clearly demonstrated by comparing results when the intervention is in use against results obtained when it has been removed.
63
Q
  1. Your co-resident presents an article in journal club on a new medication and its impact on outcomes following traumatic brain injury. On which point would you NOT need assurance before you decide to use this medication in your clinical practice?

(a) That the research study results are clinically significant
(b) That bias was eliminated from the study
(c) That the research study results are statistically significant
(d) That research investigators used valid outcome measures

A
  1. (b) When critically evaluating the medical literature, it is important to consider if the results of the study are both clinically and statistically significant. It is also important to consider whether the outcome assessment tools have been validated for both accuracy and reliability. While biases that may impact the outcome of the study also must be considered, it is often impossible to completely eliminate bias from the study.
64
Q
  1. Practice-based learning and improvement is considered by the Accreditation Council of Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) to be an aspect of medical practice in which all physicians need to achieve and maintain competency. Which characteristic is NOT a key aspect of practice-based learning and improvement?

(a) The ability to locate, appraise, and assimilate evidence from scientific studies related to their clinical practice
(b) The ability to access and use information technology to support their own education
(c) The ability to apply knowledge of study designs and statistical methods to the appraisal of medical literature
(d) The ability to advocate for quality patient care and assist patients in dealing with system complexities

A
  1. (d) All of the options listed are key aspects of practice-based learning and improvement, with the exception of the ability to advocate for quality patient care and assist patients in dealing with system complexities. This statement is a key aspect of systems-based practice as defined by the Accreditation Council of Graduate Medical Education.
65
Q
  1. In instances where a researcher has financial investments in a company and is researching the effectiveness of one of the company’s products, the researcher is obligated to

(a) terminate the investigation if the investigational agent is found to be not effective.
(b) disclose this involvement in writing to subjects that are being enrolled in the study.
(c) end financial involvement in the company before the results of the research are revealed to the public.
(d) disclose this involvement to the investigator’s medical center, to funding organizations, and to journals publishing the results.

A
  1. (d) Conflicts of interest in biomedical research are becoming more apparent as private companies increasingly develop relationships with academic research scientists. Avoidance of real or perceived conflicts of interest in clinical research is necessary if the medical community is to ensure objectivity and maintain individual and institutional integrity. Financial investments should only transpire outside of the time that the investigator is involved in any research activity and the results of the research are known to the public. If conflicts of interest exist, the investigator is obligated to disclose this involvement in writing to the investigator’s medical center, organizations funding the research, and anytime that the research is presented or published.
66
Q
  1. Individuals with diabetes are at high risk of amputation despite ankle pressures greater than 55 mmHg because
  2. (a) the ankle brachial pressure index must be greater than or equal to 0.3 to prevent limb threatening ischemia.
  3. (b) ankle pressures seldom correlate with severity of symptoms and are unreliable.
  4. (c) calcification of the arterial media results in a spuriously high pressure.
  5. (d) transcutaneous oxygen partial pressures and not ankle pressures correlate with ischemia.
A

(c) In patients with diabetes, amputation is a strong possibility, even with ankle pressures higher than 55 mmHg because spuriously high pressures can be present in these patients as a result of calcification of the arterial media. The ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI) is the patient’s brachial pressure compared to the ankle pressure. A resting ABPI greater than 1.0 is considered normal. Patients with intermittent claudication have an ABPI in the range of 0.5 to 0.7, and patients with rest pain or other symptoms of severe ischemia have an ABPI of less than or equal to 0.3. A pressure less than 50 mmHg at the ankle is associated with limb threatening ischemia.

67
Q
  1. The most common reason for prescribing a plastic leaf-spring ankle-foot orthosis is to

(a) overcome ankle spasticity.
(b) reduce lower-extremity edema.
(c) prevent plantar flexion deformity.
(d) support weak ankle dorsiflexors.

A
  1. (d) A plastic leaf-spring orthosis (PLSO) is probably the most commonly prescribed type of ankle-foot orthosis (AFO). It substitutes for weak ankle dorsiflexors and provides some medial lateral stability. Severe spasticity of the ankle may require prescription of a solid AFO. A plastic spiral AFO may be prescribed for concomitant weakness of both the ankle dorsiflexors and plantar flexors when spasticity is absent.
68
Q
  1. The gluteus maximus is primarily active during which part of the gait cycle?
  2. (a) Pre swing
  3. (b) Loading response
  4. (c) Midstance
  5. (d) Terminal stance
A
  1. (b) The gluteus maximus is primarily active from terminal swing through initial contact and loading response. During midstance, terminal stance, and pre swing the gluteus maximus is actually silent.
69
Q
  1. Your patient demonstrates ipsilateral pelvic drop during gait. What is the most likely cause?
  2. (a) Scoliosis
  3. (b) Short contralateral limb
  4. (c) Hip adductor weakness
  5. (d) Weak hip extensors
A
  1. (a) Deformity in the spine presents with malalignment of in the pelvis as either contralateral or ipsilateral drop. Two other causes of ipsilateral pelvic drop are contralateral hip abductor weakness and short ipsilateral limb. Weak hip extensors are a cause of backward lean. In stance, a backward lean of the trunk substitutes for weak hip extensors.
70
Q
  1. What is the 5-year mortality rate for persons with diabetes after sustaining a major lower limb amputation?
  2. (a) 15%
  3. (b) 25%
  4. (c) 33%
  5. (d) 50%
A
  1. (d) At least 50% of persons with diabetes and peripheral arterial disease who undergo major limb amputation will die within 5 years of sustaining major lower limb amputation.
71
Q
  1. A potential benefit of osseointegration (the direct skeletal attachment of the prosthesis to bone) is
  2. (a) elimination of poor prosthetic socket fit.
  3. (b) ability to return to running activities.
  4. (c) early prosthetic fitting.
  5. (d) ability to perform heavy manual work.
A
  1. (a) The primary benefits of attaching a prosthesis directly to the skeleton are comfort, elimination of poor prosthetic socket fit, and elimination of skin problems. Recipients report improved sensory feedback from the skeletally attached limb. Limitations include a 2-stage procedure, which results in an extended time of non-weight bearing, and extended rehabilitation (up to 2 years). The procedure poses a significant risk of infection, and the recipient must limit running, jumping, and heavy manual work in order to minimize loosening of the prosthesis.
72
Q

An advantage of a knee disarticulation compared to a transfemoral amputation is that the knee disarticulation offers

  1. (a) more options for a prosthetic knee.
  2. (b) enhanced ability to create power during ambulation or running.
  3. (c) better soft tissue coverage within the zone of injury.
  4. (d) better prosthetic cosmesis.
A
  1. (b) Disarticulation results in a bulbus distal residual limb, which may complicate prosthetic fitting. Choice of prosthetic knee options for a person with a knee disarticulation, therefore, is limited and potentially excludes the newer, more advanced knee-joint designs. Benefits of a knee disarticulation over a transfemoral approach include greater tolerance to distal limb weight bearing, a longer lever arm to create power during ambulation and running, and improved sitting balance. Of note, functional outcome studies of trauma-related lower extremity amputees concluded that persons with through knee amputations had significantly poorer outcomes. These poorer outcomes are attributed to complications arising from soft tissue failure within the zone of injury.
73
Q
  1. In adults, the prevalence of phantom limb pain, phantom sensation or residual limb pain after amputation is

(a) approximately 70% at 6 months postamputation.
(b) dependent on age at the time of amputation.
(c) directly related to surgical technique.
(d) primarily dependent upon the level of amputation.

A
  1. (a) Phantom sensation, phantom pain, and residual limb pain have all been reported about equally in over 70% of amputees 6 months or more after lower limb amputation. This is typically not dependent upon the person’s age at the time of amputation, the level of amputation, or surgical technique.
74
Q
  1. A weight-activated stance-control knee unit would be indicated in a transfemoral amputee who

(a) has cognitive deficits.
(b) has a contralateral weak limb.
(c) is an unlimited ambulator.
(d) is a new amputee.

A

Commentary: Weight-activated stance-controlled knees are often used for individuals with a transfemoral amputation. They are especially useful as a preparatory prosthesis in a new amputee, because their simplicity and safety help new amputees learn to walk with a prosthesis. To flex the knee, the amputee must shift weight onto the opposite leg, which requires the opposite limb to accept increased weight. Additionally, the amputee must have the cognitive ability to learn to weight shift. The requirement to shift weight off of the prosthesis to allow knee flexion presents few problems at slow cadences, but if the amputee attempts to walk at a more normal speed, the gait pattern is disrupted by the premature weight shift.

75
Q
  1. What is the primary disadvantage of moving the rear axle of a wheelchair forward?

(a) Ascending curbs becomes more difficult.
(b) It takes more muscle effort to propel the wheelchair.
(c) More strokes are required to push the wheelchair.
(d) Ascending a ramp becomes more difficult.

A

d. Commentary: Moving a wheelchair’s rear axle forward enables the user to propel the chair with less muscle effort and fewer strokes. Because the modification causes more weight to be centered over the rear wheels, it is easier to pop a wheelie, negotiate obstacles and ascend or descend curbs. However, moving the axle forward can also make the wheelchair more “tippy” (likely to tip backwards) and that tendency to tip backwards makes it more difficult to push the chair up a ramp.

76
Q
  1. In prosthetics, K levels are used to describe or define
    (a) activity levels.
    (b) prosthetic feet.
    (c) funding levels for prosthesis.
A
  1. Answer: A Commentary: K levels are used to describe activity levels These K0-K4 designations are guidelines for prosthetic components covered by Medicare.
77
Q
  1. Which factor promotes knee stability during the gait cycle of a person with transfemoral amputation?

(a) Knee component placed anterior to the socket
(b) Hard heel in the prosthetic foot
(c) Polycentric 4-bar linkage prosthetic knee
(d) Anterior position of the shank on the prosthetic foot

A
  1. Answer: C Commentary: Flexion moment at the hip, a rigid heel in the solid ankle, cushion heel foot and the anterior position of the shank all shift the ground reaction force behind the knee joint to produce a knee flexion moment. The 4-bar linkage with instantaneous center of rotation and the posterior location of instant center in extension creates knee stability, especially at heel strike.
78
Q
  1. The primary advantage of a soft insert fitted into the socket of a transtibial prosthesis is that it is
  2. (a) perspiration resistant.
  3. (b) easy to keep clean.
  4. (c) easily modified.
  5. (d) verydurable.
A
  1. Answer: C Commentary: Soft inserts are fabricated to fit inside the socket. They are recommended for patients with thin, sensitive, or scarred skin, or peripheral vascular disease (PVD). They are easily modified. Hard sockets also have their advantages. They are perspiration resistant, less bulky than sockets fitted with a soft insert, easy to keep clean, and durable. Further, reliefs or modifications can be located with precision in the hard socket.
79
Q
  1. How are mobility devices paid for through Medicare?

(a) The patient must make a 50% down payment, with the rest covered by Medicare upon delivery of the device.
(b) Medicare part A pays 80% of the allowed purchase price and Medicare part B pays the remaining 20%.
(c) Medicare will pay for purchase but not rental of mobility devices.
(d) Medicare part B pays 80% of the allowed purchase price in one lump sum.

A
  1. Answer: D Commentary: Medicare Part B pays 80% of the allowed purchase price in one lump sum payment if the patient chooses to purchase the device. The patient is required to pay 20% of the allowed purchase price. If the patient chooses to rent a wheelchair, Medicare part B will pay 80% of the allowed rental price for months 1 through 10 and the patient will pay 20% of the allowed rental charge.
80
Q
  1. At mid stance, where is the ground reaction force vector located?

(A) Anterior to ankle, posterior to knee

(b) Anterior to ankle, anterior to knee
(c) Anterior to knee, anterior to hip
(d) Posterior to knee, posterior to hip

A
  1. Answer: B Commentary: In mid stance, the ground reaction vector lies anterior to the ankle, anterior to or through the knee axis, and posterior to the hip center. The passive torques created by this vector alignment are ankle dorsiflexion, knee extension and hip extension.
81
Q
  1. The primary stabilizing effect of the flexible lumbosacral orthosis is its ability to

(a) restrict spinal extension.
(b) prevent atrophy of trunk muscles.
(c) elevate intra-abdominal pressure.
(d) enhance kinesthetic feedback.

A
  1. Answer: C Commentary: Although they do not effectively restrict motion to a significant degree, flexible lumbosacral orthoses elevate intra-abdominal pressure, thereby unloading the spine and supporting structures. This action also provides inhibitory kinesthetic feedback and warmth. Long-term use of binders and other flexible lumbosacral orthoses may, unfortunately, result in atrophy of trunk muscles.
82
Q
  1. A 60-year-old woman with right medial knee pain has a genu varum deformity that is observed while she is standing and walking. What shoe modification can help her pain?

A) Medial wedge
B) Lateral wedge
C) Rocker bottom
D) Arch support

A

Answer: (b) Commentary: Medial compartment osteoarthritis causes a genu varum deformity. Lateral heel wedges can be used for conservative treatment of medial compartment osteoarthritis. A medial wedge would exacerbate the genu varum. An arch support would help with pes planus (flatfoot) which may be helpful for genu valgum deformity. Rocker bottoms may be used to offload pressure from the metatarsal heads.

83
Q
  1. A 65-year-old woman has right-sided hip pain secondary to osteoarthritis. She denies upper limb arthritis symptoms. Which prescription is the most appropriate?

(a) Straight cane used in the left hand
(b) Four point cane used in the right hand
(c) Platform crutch used in the left arm
(d) Lofstrand crutch used in the right arm

A
  1. Answer: (a) Commentary: A straight cane should be used on the unaffected side to lessen the force exerted on the hip with pathology. A Lofstrand crutch is also known as a Lofstrand forearm orthosis. It includes a cuff placed along the lateral aspect of the forearm. Lofstrand crutches are often used bilaterally. Because it does not require the use of the hand or wrist, and does not apply pressure through them, a platform crutch is helpful for patients who need an assistive device and have wrist/ hand pain or weakness.
84
Q
  1. Which cervical orthosis is the most restrictive?
    (a) Four-poster brace
    (b) Philadelphia collar
    (c) Sterno-occipital mandibular immobilizer (SOMI)
    (d) Halo
A
  1. Answer: (d) Commentary: The halo device provides the greatest restriction of cervical motion for flexion/extension, lateral bending and rotation, as shown in the table below:
85
Q
  1. You are performing a consultation on a 58-year-old man with a history of diabetes and peripheral vascular disease who presents with a non-healing foot ulcer. You are concerned that he is at risk for amputation because his
    (a) ankle brachial index (ABI) is 0.8.
    (b) ABI is 0.4.
    (c) transcutaneous oxygen pressure (TcPO2) is 80mmHg.
    (d) TcPO2 is 40mmHg.
A
  1. Answer: (b) Commentary: ABI is a noninvasive technique that is used in the assessment of arterial occlusive disease. The ABI is the ratio between the ankle and the brachial systolic pressure. Normal ABI is defined as values greater than 0.9. An ABI below 0.4 tends to carry a poor prognosis. TcPO2 is defined as transcutaneous oxygen, which is in essence a “blood gas” of the skin. Normal TcPO2 is greater than 50mmHg. Values of more than 40mmHg are associated with healing. Ischemia is defined as periwound TcPO2 < 20mmHg.
86
Q
  1. Which phenomenon is an effect of functional electrical stimulation (FES) as it pertains to gait?

(a) Decrease in muscle spasticity
(b) Increase in physiologic cost of gait
(c) Decrease in voluntary muscle strength
(d) Decrease in stride length

A
  1. Answer: (a) Commentary: In addition to a decrease in muscle spasticity, FES decreases the physiologic cost of gait, increases voluntary muscle strength, and increases stride length.
87
Q
  1. A patient with a left transfemoral amputation demonstrates a lateral trunk lean towards his prosthetic side. What is the most likely cause?
    (a) Prosthesis too long
    (b) Long residual limb
    (c) Prosthesis aligned in adduction
    (d) Hip abduction contracture
A

Answer: (d) Commentary: Causes of lateral trunk lean towards the prosthetic side include: prosthesis too short, hip abduction contracture, prosthesis lined in abduction, and short residual limb.

88
Q
  1. What shoe modification can be used to treat medial compartment knee osteoarthritis?
  2. (a) Rocker bottom sole
  3. (b) Solid ankle cushioned heel
  4. (c) Medial wedge
  5. (d) Lateral wedge
A
  1. Answer: (d) Commentary: Medial compartment osteoarthritis results in genu varum. A lateral wedge can help relieve pain by placing a valgus force at the knee. A medial wedge would exacerbate the problem. Solid ankle cushioned heel is a type of prosthetic foot. A rocker bottom sole is helpful for other conditions such as forefoot fractures, hallux rigidus, foot arthritis, and insensitive feet.
89
Q
  1. A 33-year-old woman who is 6 months pregnant complains of right-sided, stabbing, low back pain that is worse with movement. Which orthosis is most appropriate for her?

(a) Sacroiliac belt
(b) Cruciform anterior spinal hyperextension orthosis
(c) Silesian belt
(d) Minerva brace

A
  1. Answer: (a) Commentary: Pregnant women frequently develop low back pain, and a sacroiliac belt can be helpful. A cruciform anterior spinal hyperextension (CASH) brace is generally used for osteoporotic compression fractures. A silesian belt is a type of suspension for transfemoral prostheses. The Minerva brace is a cervicothoracic orthosis.
90
Q
  1. Proper positioning for a transtibial amputee should include use of a

(a) pillow underneath thigh.
(b) pommel between legs.
(c) limb board underneath knee.
(d) wedge cushion underneath buttocks.

A
  1. Answer: (c) Commentary: A limb board placed underneath the knee will help to prevent knee flexion contractures. Placing a pillow underneath the thigh would encourage the development of a hip flexion and possibly a knee flexion contracture. A pommel between the legs may encourage a hip abduction contracture. A wedge cushion would promote hip flexion contractures.
91
Q
  1. Which wheelchair component is appropriate for a patient with T10 spinal cord injury?

(a) Quick release axle
(b) Projection rims
(c) Arm trough
(d) Tilt-in-space system

A
  1. Answer: (a) Commentary: Quick release axles allow persons with spinal cord injury who drive to load their wheelchairs into the car more easily. Projection rims assist with wheelchair propulsion in patients who have insufficient hand function. The tilt-in-space recline system offers independent pressure relief in patients with tetraparesis. Arm troughs support the arms and forearms of persons with limited upper limb strength. A patient with T10 spinal cord injury has sufficient upper limb and trunk control so that projection rims, arm trough, and tilt-in-space features are not necessary.
92
Q
A
93
Q
A