Schowinsky MDS and MPN Flashcards
Define myelodysplastic syndrome
group of conditions where the marrow is replaced by malignant clone, derived from a tranformed stem or progenitor cell
What are the 2 big characteristic features of MDS
ineffective hematopoiesis and increased risk of tansformation to acute leukemia
Clinical scenario for Primary (idiopathic) MDS
median age of diagnosis 70; usually over 50; 3-5 cases/100k/year
Clinical scenario for Secondary MDS
usually therapy related, occurs as part of spectrum of t-AML, usually diagnosed 2-8 years following therapy with DNA-alkylating agents or ionizing radiation. Contains complex karyotype with whole of partial deletions of chromosomes 5 and/pr 7
T or F: diagnosis of MDS is usually considered when persisten peripheral cytopenia in one or more lineages is present and cannot otherwise be explained
TRUE
T or F: If isolated persistent cytopenia is present, it is usually neutropenia or thrombocytopenia, not anemia
FALSE, other way around
With persistent cytopenia, what 3 modalities can be used to establish MDS
1) morphologic evidence of dysplasia 2) increased myeloblasts, but less that 20% of blood of marrow 3) presence of a clonal cytogenetic abnormality
What percentage of the cells in one lineage (erythroid, granulocytes, megakaryocytes) need appear dysplastic to qualify as dyshematopoiesis
10%
What are some morphologic features to look for dyserythropoiesis (3)
1) Megaloblastoid chromatin patterns in RBC Precursors, 2) Nuclear Irregularities (shape, number, ect.), 3) Prominent ring sideroblasts
What are some morphologic features to look for dysgranulopoiesis (3)
1) hypogranular, 2) megaloblastoid chromatin, 3) Pelgeroid neutrophils (bilobed nuclei)
What are some morphologic features to look for dysmegakaryopoiesis (2)
1) small, 2) hypolobated or non-lobated nuclei
list some common MDS-related abnormalites (4)
1) deletion, whole or partial, of chr 5 and or 7, 2) isolated deletion 5q, 3) trisomy 8 ? and 4) others
Define low grade MDS
myeloblsts account for <2% of blood cells
Define high grade MDS
Myeloblasts account for 5-19% of marrow cells and/or 3-19% of blood cells
T or F: Refractory cytopenia with unilinage dysplasia (RCUD) is a low grade MDS with dysplasia in only one lineage
TRUE
T or F: RCUD mostly has cases of refractory anemia and has a good prognosis
TRUE, median survival is >5 yrs and only 2% of cases transform to AML by year 5
T or F: Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia (RCMD) is a low grade MDS with dysplasia in only one lineage
TRUE
T or F: RCMD has a better prognosis than RCUD
FALSE, median survival is 2.5 yrs and 10% of cases turn to AML
What are the 2 types of high grade MDS?
Refractory Anemia with Excess Blasts-1 (RAEB-1) and Refractory Anemia with Excess Blasts-2 (RAEB-2)
Give some features of RAEB-1
5-9% blasts in marrow, and/or 2-4% blasts in blood, dismal prognosis, median 16 mon survival, 25% of cases will transform to AML
Give some features of RAEB-2
10-19% blasts in marrow, and/or 5-19% blasts in blood, very dismal prognosis, median 9 mon survival, 33% of cases will transform to AML
list 4 secondary myelodysplasias that can mimic MDS
1) vitamin deficiency (B12, folate, etc), 2) Toxin exposure (heavy metals), 3) exposure to certain drugs 4) viral infections
Define Myeloproliferative neoplasms
MPN, clonal hematopoietic neoplasm arising from hematopoietic stem cell.
T or F: MPN is seen in children most often
FALSE
T or F: MPN has clones replacing normal marrow cells in multiple lineages and gives rise to increased numbers of normal blood cells in one or more linages
TRUE, and blood cells are usually not dysplastic