SBAs, SEs & interactions Flashcards

1
Q

A patient presents with severe stomach pain. He has a history of sweats and new onset diabetes. Evidence of prognathism and depression.

The past medical history is remarkable for OGD for peptic ulcer disease.

What is the most likely cause?

Addison's disease
Wermer's syndrome
Sipple's syndrome
Acromegaly
Gastrinoma
A

A = Wermer’s (MEN type 1)

High calcium - severe thirst, depression, general confusion
(Low -> neuromuscular spasms; Chvostek’s and Trousseau’s signs)

  • Addison’s disease
  • Wermer’s syndrome = MEN type 1. Most frequent tumours: parathyroid gland (so high calcium), pituitary gland (acromegaly; later sexual hormone dysfunction etc), and pancreas (hence diabetes). Can also cause gastrinomas - > hence peptic ulcer disease
  • Sipple’s syndrome = MEN2. Phaeochromocytomas only happen in type 2. Tumours generally occur in endocrine organs (e.g. medullary thyroid carcinoma, parathyroid, and adrenals). Medullary thyroid carcinomas drop calcium; can balance out effects of parathyroid tumour - so can be difficult to catch. Tachy cardic, massive sweat response, pounding heart rate. Tend to have dopamine as main catecholamine in urine. 24hr urinary catecholamine = gold standard test. Can do a spot test though.
  • Acromegaly
  • Gastrinoma - can increase gastrin in the stomach.

Type 2b or 3 = Marfanoid and mucosal neuromas

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2
Q

23 year old primary school teacher presents with central chest pain, feeling generally unwell. A&E requests a medical review. ECG is normal (always do on admission if chest pain). Many coryzal children in her class. Pain reproducible on pressing the sternum.

MI
Pericarditis
Tietze's syndrome
Aortic dissection
Pulmonary embolus
A

A: Tietze’s syndrome

MI - too young, no other suggestive symptoms

Pericarditis - shouldn’t be reproduced by pressing sternum. Produces *PR depression( on ECG. Widespread saddle shaped ST elevation

Tietze’s syndrome - benign inflammation of one or more of the costal cartilages, plus swelling. Used to be thought to be associated with viral infection, now not considered to be.

Aortic dissection - lost or decreased pulse in left arm. Radial-radial or radial-femoral delay. Described as a ‘tearing’ or ‘ripping’ sign. Mediastinal widening on CXR.

Pulmonary embolus - can cause chest wall tenderness (but rarely). No pleuritic chest pain which there would be with this.

Bornholm’s (epidemic myalgia) - muscle tenderness due to Coxsackie B (and echovirus)

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3
Q

Causes of pericarditis

A

viral/bacterial infection, high urea, above 25 (renal failure), TB, autoimmune conditions, RF, trauma, radiation, hydralazine.

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4
Q

A patient presents with bradycardia. ECG machine is unfortunately missing or broken. On examination there is a regularly regular pulse at a rate of 40bpm. There is a history of a recent inferior MI and the last ECG shows evidence of trifascicular block. Cannon waves are visible at the bedside.

Constrictive pericarditis
Mobitz type I HB
AF
Complete heart block
Sinus bradycardia
A

Not pericarditis - doesn’t cause bradycardia
AF - no, as pulse would be irregularly irregular
Mobitz type 1 - PR interval gets longer and longer until you drop a beat. Also no since pulse is regular.

So must be complete heart block or sinus bradycardia.

Inferior MI -> complete heart block.
If HR

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5
Q

Absent JVP (can’t see pulse wave form) is pathognomonic for

A

Some kind of superior vena caval obstruction (eg. SCC of lung)

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6
Q

Tapping apex beat is pathognomonic for

A

Mitral stenosis

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7
Q

Cannon A waves (on JVP) is pathognomonic for

A

complete heart block

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8
Q

Dominant V waves (or C-V waves) implies: huge JVP and is pathognomonic for:

A
Tricuspid regurgitation (Secondary venous upstroke due to filling of RA during systole)
Fluid overload
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9
Q

Dominant A wave is pathognomonic for:

A

tricuspid stenosis (or pulmonary HTN)

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10
Q

How to tell constrictive pericarditis apart from cardiac tamponnade from JVP?

A

cardiac tamponnade: prominent x descent and absent y descent - very worrying

constrictive pericarditis - prominent x descent and prominent y descent. Can happen in renal failure; repeated inflammation leads to fibrosis and the pericardial sac becomes tighter.

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11
Q

What is Beck’s triad (in cardiac tamponnade). Other signs apart from low ouse volume, pulsus paradoxus (weaker on inspiration

A

Raised neck veins (raised JVP)
Muffled heart sounds (as fluid around the heart, preventing sounds from transmitting)
Hypotension

-> seen only in 50% of people with cardiac tamponnade. Need an echo to make a diagnosis of cardiac tamponnade

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12
Q

How to treat cardiac tamponnade?

A

pericardiocentesis (emergency)

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13
Q

Kussmaul’s sign

A

JVP rises on inspiration. (in normal physiology it should disappear into the chest cavity sue to negative intrathoracic pressure). Can also be seen in severe asthma.

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14
Q

A patient with a hisotry of rheumatic heart disease presents unwell and feverish. Spots under her fingernails (splinter haemorrhages) and a low grade temperature. Her fingertips have a couple of black petechiae (embolic) and nailfold infarcts are seen in the feet. There is a new systolic murmur at the apex and the spleen is palpable. The urine dipstick is positive for blood. A blood culture may classically isolate which bacteria?

A

Strep viridans

Splinter haemorrhages and nailfold infarcts are particularly common.
Rheumatic heart disease typically affects the mitral valve, and typically stenosis.

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15
Q

75 y/o on warfarin. INR rises suddenly, presents with epistaxis Which drug is responsible?

Bendrofluazide
Doxazosin (scroll down!)
Erythromycin
Ramipril
Rifampicin
A

Erythromycin

Rifampicin induces P450 so INR drops

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16
Q

I70 year old woman w/ HF and renal impairment is taking enalapril, co-amilofruse (combination diuretic - amiloride increases K+) and aspirin. A new drug is started, and she presents with a high K+. Which drug is responsible?

Bisoprolol
Digoxin
Metolazone
Spironolactone
Verapamil (strongly negatively inotropic so would never give in CCF).
A

Spironolactone (K+ sparing so can cause K+ to rise)

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17
Q

80 y/o man with HTN and F. Normally on atenolol, digoxin, (cardiac glycoside) bendrofluazide and aspirin
New drug started and he develops complete heart block. Which drug most likely responsible?
Clopi
Enalapril
Simvastatin
Verapamil
Warfarin

A

Verapamil (enormously negatively inotropic since process is calcium antagonist - 1st generation). NEVER combine with a beta-blocker.

Can get away with 2 drugs slowing transmission through the AV node, 3 is too many.

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18
Q

Diet controlled T2DM develops uncontrolled hyperglycaemia.
Which drug is most likely to be responsible?

Atenolol
Bendrofluazide
Cholestyramine - bile salt sequestrant so not reabsorbed.
Prednisolone -
Ramipril - renoprotective, often used in DM

A

Prednisolone (by increased insulin resistance and mechanisms within the liver to promote gluconeogenesis
Can cause major increases -> 15-20mmol.

Bendrofluazide - impairs glucose tolerance but doesn’t cause uncontrolled hyperglycaemia.
Atenolol also upsets glucose tolerance
Both by ~1mmol/l

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19
Q

55 y/o woman taking inh. salbulamol for asthma and paracetamol for osteoarthritis is started on timolol eye drops for glaucoma

Most likely complication?
confusion
constipation
dyspnoea and wheeze
hyperkalaemia
hypocalcaemia
A

dyspnoea and wheeze

as salbutamol antagonised by timolol (even though topical -some gets swallowed)

Can also cause bradycardia and collapse, eg. in older patients.

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20
Q

50 y/o woman on oxybutynin (antimuscarinic, non-specific) for bladder overactivity and verapamil for HTN is started on dihydrocodeine for OA pain. What is the most likely complication?

Confusion
Constipation
Diarrhoea
Postural hypotension
Urinary obstruction
A

In a 90 year old could be confusion, constipation or postural hypotension

In a 50 year old, constipation is the most likely.

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21
Q

73 year old man on fluoxetine for depression and orlistat (lipase inhibitor - steatorrhea and fat malabsorption) for obesity is given misoprostol (PGE2 analogue; also used for termination and induction of labour, protects from stomach ulcers but diarrhoea is a common side effect) with diclofenac for pain from osteoarthritis. Most likely complication?

Confusion
Constipation
Diarrhoea
Dyspnoea and wheeze
 weight gain
A

diarrhoea - caused by fluoxetine, orlistat and misoprostol.

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22
Q
Drugs causes of gynaecomastia: which one doesn't?
DA agonists eg. methyldopa
Digoxin – similar structure to steroids
Spironolactone
Enalapril
Cyproterone
A

Enalapril

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23
Q

55 y/o man fails to recommence spontaneous ventilation after a GA. Ventilated overnight in ITU. Which of the following is responsible?

Amiodarone (anti-arrhythmic)
Dantrolene (muscle relaxant used to treat malignant hyperthermia and neuroleptic malignant syndrome)
Noradrenaline
Propafol
Suxamethonium - muscle relaxant, derived from curare. Used in electroconvulsant therapy

A

Suxamethonium apnoea - in a small proportion of patients lacking enzymes to break down.
Check family history before surgery; genetically linked.

Dantrolene - for malignant hyperthermia. Quickly out of the system once infusion stopped.

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24
Q

65 y/o with paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia develops a photosensitive rash 2m after being prescribed a new medication. Which of the following is responsible?\

Amiodarone
Atenolol
Digoxin
Diltiazem (Ca-channel blocker)
Verapamil (Ca-channel blocker)
A

Amiodarone - contains iodine

Only drug given for a ventricular tachycardia!
& also causes a photosensitive rash.

Think of iodine on photographic paper (!) tell patients on amiodarone to avoid excessive sunlight exposure. Affects all patients, very unpleasant

Unlikely to be diltiazem or verapamil since they are cousins.

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25
Q

Biopsy of a patient complaining of palpitations , sweats and weight loss. Current medications include digoxin, bendrofluazide, ramipril, amlodipine and amiodarane. What is the diagnosis?

A

From symptoms: thyrotoxicosis

Amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis

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26
Q

An 18 year old man develops a diffuse maculopapular rash following the treatment of a sore throat. Which drug is responsible?

Amoxicillin
Erythromycin
Ibuprofen
Paracetamol
Penicillin V
A

Amoxicillin

Likely to be due to EBV with a bacterial superinfection - streptococcal sore throat.
O/E: enlarged tonsils with exudate (bacterial)

GP prescribes amoxicillin for strep. throat. On amoxicillin or ampicillin, 50% or more with EBV/Strep co-infection will get a nasty pruritic rash.

Safe alternative choice: erythromycin, penicillin V - go for this unless the patient is allergic.

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27
Q

65 y/o man with arteriopathy (diffuse atherosclerosis in multiple arteries) develops rapidly worsening renal functin after starting antihypertensive medication

Which drugs is responsible?

Amolodipine
Atenolol
Bendrofluazide
Doxazosin
Enalapril
A

Enalapril (if pre-existing B/L renal artery atherosclerosis)

causes narrowing of the efferent arteriole more than the afferent

28
Q

55 year old mana develops pulmonary fibrosis. Which of the following is unlikely to be responsible?

Amiodarone
Bleomycin
Mesalazine
Methotrexate
Nitrofurantoin
A
  • Amiodarone - causes fibrosis
  • Bleomycin - cytotoxic, can cause fibrosis
  • Mesalazine – anti-inflammatory used for U/C
  • Methotrexate – folate antagonist, used in RA once weekly. Nasty toxic drug, causes fibrosis
  • Nitrofurantoin - antibiotic which causes pulmonary fibrosis. Now need to use because there is so much trimethoprim resistance.
29
Q

A 72-year old woman bein treated by her GP for AF becomes confused. Which is most likely to be responsible?

Amiodarone
Asirin
Digoxin
Oxybutynin
Trimethorprim
A

Digoxin

30
Q

76 year old becomes confused

Cranberry capsules
Cefalexin
Oxybutynin
Nitrofurantoin

A

Oxybutynin - because anticholinergic, these are common causes of confusion

31
Q

76 y/ with HTN. Reduced mobility sec to OA, develops constipation

Which unlikely to cause this?
Co-codamol
Bendrofluazide
Ferrous sulphate
Oxybutynin
Verapamil
A

Bendrofluazide

Fe can also cause diarrhoea
Oxybutynin - anti-muscarinic

32
Q

Woman with poorly controlled epilepsy started on carbamazepine. Workd well at first. Has deteriorated by next clinic visit?

Which is most likely to be responsible?

Carbamazepine
Clari
Grapefruit juice
Lamotrigine
Valproate
A

Carbamazepine - induces its own Cp450 (metabolising enzyme) - so can need to up-titrate the dose initially

Clari - raises levels, more likely to get toxicity. Same for grapefruit juice

33
Q

24 y/o man taking valproate takes an over the counter headache remedy. Next day feels nauseous and drowsy. Which drug responsible?

Aspirin
Co-dydramol
Paracetamol
Ibuprofen

A

Aspirin - affects protein binding so displaces valproate

PK interaction related to protien binding (affects valproate and phenytoin).

34
Q

Which of the following does not cause drug-induced lupus? (+ve antinuclear antibodies but no dsDNA, kidneys normal, anti-histones positive)

Hydralazine
Isoniazid
Mycophenelate mofetil
Miocycline
Procainamide
A

Mycophenelate mofetil - good treatment for SLE

35
Q

17 y/o girl prescribed oxytetracycline for treatment of acne. Gets abdo pain, vomiting and paranoia. What is the diagnosis?

Addisonian crisis
DKA
Porphyric crisis
Renal failure
TTP (thrombotic thrombocytopaenic purpura)
A

Porphyric crisis (enzyme defects affecting haem synthesis - so some drugs can accelerate the wrong byproducts of haem synthesis; found in the urine). ‘Madness of King George’

More common in women than men, esp young men.

Drugs causing this:
BOOST CHAP

Barbiturates
Oral hypoglycemic durgs
OCP
Sulphonamides
Tetracyclines

Chloramphenical
Halothane
Alcohol
Pentozocin

Lots of drugs dangerous in porphyria. Only Abx safe to use = penicillin, tetracyclines are a particularly important cause.
TTP can cause confusion

36
Q

Which 3 drugs cause chronic hepatitis?

A

Isoniazid, methyldopa, methotrexate

37
Q

Epilepsy drugs causing hepatocellular damage?

A

Valproate, phenytoin, CBZ

38
Q

Drugs causing cholestasis?

A

 Clavulanic acid (in co-amoxiclav): may be delayed
 Fluclox: may be delayed
 Erythromycin
 Sulfonylureas (glibenclamide)
 OCP
 Tricyclics
 Chlorpromazine, prochlorperazine (D2 antagonists)

(?fusidic acid, steroids)

39
Q

TB drugs causing hepatocellular damage

A

Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide

40
Q

Other drugs causing hepatocellular damage?

A

Halothane, methotrexate, statins

41
Q
Name anti-emetics in each category 
H1
D2
5HT3
Others
A

H1 - cyclizine, cinnarizine
D2 - metoclopramide and domperidone (doesn’t cross BBB - use in Parkinson’s), prochlorperazine, haloperidol
5HT3 - ondansetron (dead expensive never used - only if gastroparesis and intolerant to others)
Others - dexamethasone (anti-emetic effect but used eg. in cancer), hyoscine hydrobromide (antimuscaric, used for abdo cramps)

42
Q

3 drugs that cause drug-induced lupus?

A

hydralazine, isoniazid, penicillamine

43
Q

Drugs causes of gynaecomastia: (5)

A
 Spironolactone 
 Digoxin
 Verapamil
 Cimetidine
 Metronidazole
44
Q

Drugs which cause pulmonary fibrosis?

A
 Bleomycin
 Busulfan
 Sulfasalazine
 Amiodarone
 Nitrofurantoin
 Methotrexate
 Methysergide
45
Q

Drugs causing periph neuropathy

A
 Isoniazid
 Vincristine
 Amiodarone
 Nitrofurantoin
 Penicillamine
46
Q

drugs causing a photosensitive rash (most commonly):

A

amiodarone
thiazides
sulfonylureas

47
Q

3 drugs causing gum hypertrophy

A

Nifedipine
 Phenytoin
 Ciclosporin

48
Q

3 ‘C’s causing SIADH?

A

Carbamezapine
 Cyclophosphamide
 Chlorpropamide

49
Q

2 psych drugs causing SIADH?

A

 SSRIs

 TCAs

50
Q

Symptoms of SIADH? (dilutional hyponatremia)

A
Nausea or vomiting.
Cramps or tremors.
Depressed mood, memory impairment.
Irritability, Personality changes, such as combativeness, confusion, and hallucinations.
Seizures, stupor or coma.
51
Q

Drugs which potentiate warfarin (other than enzyme inhibitors)? (5)

A
EtOH
Simvastatin
NSAIDs
Dipyridamole
Amiodarone
52
Q

How do Abx potentiate warfarin?

A

Abx kill GI microflora that make vit K

53
Q

Which drugs lower K+ so increase risk of digoxin toxicity?

A

Diuretics and steroids

54
Q

Which drugs increases risk of GI bleed with warfarin?

A

NSAIDs

55
Q

Example of a pharmacokinetic interaction involving specific Abx?

A

Tetracyclines and quinolones ̄c Ca, Fe, Al

 Drugs chelate the metals and are not absorbed

56
Q

Side effects of statins?

A

Myositis, risk of rhabdo, muscle aches and pains, increased risk of bladder cancer, increased diabetes risk and blood glucose, GI disturbances (constipation/diarrhoea), hepatitis, pancreatitis

57
Q
What do these drugs all have in common? 
carbimazole
azathioprine
phenytoin
carbamazepine
methotrexate
thiazides
ganciclovir
interferon-alpha
chloramphenicol
ticlopidine
antipsychotics
A

Myelosuppression/agranulocytosis

58
Q

Complications of coeliac?

A

anaemia: iron, folate and vitamin B12 deficiency
hyposplenism
osteoporosis, osteomalacia
lactose intolerance
enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma
subfertility
rare: oesophageal cancer/other malignancies

59
Q

It is strongly associated with which genes?

A

HLA-DQ2 (95% of patients) and HLA-B8 (80%) as well as HLA-DR3 and HLA-DR7

60
Q

pyoderma gangrenosum is assoc’d with?

A

ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, polyarthritis, or gammopathy.

61
Q

erythema marginatum is assoc’d with?

A

carditis, arthritis, (rheumatic) fever and Sydenham’s chorea.

62
Q

dermiatitis herpetiformis is a cutaneous manifestation of …?

A

coeliac - IgA antibodies are deposited in the skin

63
Q

basophilic stippling is associated with?

A

Lead poisoning

Thalassaemia

64
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies associated with?

A

hyposplenism

basophilic nuclear remnants (clusters of DNA) in circulating erythrocytes. During maturation in the bone marrow erythrocytes normally expel their nuclei, but in some cases a small portion of DNA remains. Its presence usually signifies a damaged spleen.

65
Q

Heinz bodies associated with?

A

G6PD deficiency
Alpha-thalassaemia

Heinz bodies are formed by damage to the hemoglobin component molecules, usually through oxidant damage, or from an inherited mutation

66
Q

Presenting features of haemochromatosis?

A

fatigue, erectile dysfunction and arthralgia (often of the hands)
‘bronze’ skin pigmentation
T2DM
liver: stigmata of chronic liver disease, hepatomegaly, cirrhosis, hepatocellular deposition
cardiac failure (2nd to dilated cardiomyopathy)
hypogonadism (2nd to cirrhosis and pituitary dysfunction - hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism)
arthritis (especially of the hands)

67
Q

Irreversible complications of haemochromatosis?

A

Liver cirrhosis**
Diabetes mellitus
Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism
Arthropathy