Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Drugs > SBA buzzwords > Flashcards

SBA buzzwords Flashcards

1
Q

SOB on exertion
Wheeze
Chronic productive cough

A

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

COPD investigation

A

Post-bronchodilator spirometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Fever
Chronic cough
Weight loss
Asian

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Red Ziehl-Nelson stain

Acid fast bacilli

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

TB treatment

A

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutamol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Rifampicin side effect

A

Orange tears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Isoniazid side effect

A

Peripheral neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pyrazinamide side effect

A

Hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ethambutamol

A

Colour blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
Steatorrhoea, DM
Clubbing
Recurrent infections
Bronchiectasis
Sodium >60 mmol
A

CF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Shipyard/power station worker
End-inspiratory crackles
Non productive cough

A

Mesothelioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Exposure to mouldy hay

A

Farmer’s lung (hypersensitivity pneumonitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Exposure to birds

A

Bird fancier’s lung (hypersensitivity pneumonitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Exposure to silica
Nodular shadowing
Egg shell nodules

A

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Horner’s syndrome

Arm pain

A

Pancoast tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hypercalcaemia
Ectopic PTH
Constipated, tired
Epithelial cells

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Lung cancer with:
Neuroendocrine symptoms
Paraneoplastic syndromes

A

Small cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Small cell producing ACTH

A

Cushings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Small cell producing ADH

A

SiADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Small cell producing Anti Ca abs

A

Lambert Eaton syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Lung cancer:
Of goblet cell origin
Non-smoker
Female

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q 
Fever
SOB
Productive cough
Bronchial breath sounds
Coarse creps
A

Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Assessed with CURB65

A

Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CURB 65 components

A 
CRP
Urea
RR
BP
Age >65 y/o
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pneumonia treatment

A

IV clarithromycin, oral amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Rusty sputum

Younger patient

A

S pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Small segmental infiltrates, sinusitis, pharyngitis, laryngitis

A

Chlamydia pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Adolescent (pneumonia)
Erythema nodosum
Pericarditis
Haemolytic anaemia

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Pneumonia with abscesses

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Purulent dark sputum (pneumonia)

A

Klebsiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Pneumonia in AIDS with widespread infiltrates and low O2 sats
Normal CXR
Dry cough and SOB

A

Pneumocystitis jiroveci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q 
Pneumonia with:
Low Na
Low albumin
SOB, muscle cramping
Air conditioning exposure
A

Legionella pneumophila

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q 
Pneumonia with:
Hepatosplenomegaly
Conjunctivitis
Arthralgia
Lower lobe consolidation
Bird exposure
A

Chlamydophila psittaci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Child coughing up blood

A

Inhaled foreign body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Night cough
Intermittent wheeze
Eczema/hayfever
Diurnal variation

A

Stable asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Severe exacerbation of asthma treatment

A

60% O2 via facemask
Back to back nebs
Systemic steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Life threatening exacerbation of asthma treatment

A

IV magnesium sulphate, intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Silent chest, apparent improving O2, fatigue, bradycardia

A

Life-threatening exacerbation of asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Anacrotic pulse
Breathlessness, syncope
Angina on exertion

A

Aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Narrow pulse pressure, ejection systolic murmur radiating to carotids

A

Aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Pink frothy sputum

Post MI

A

Mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Graham Steel murmur

A

Mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Displaced apex beat, pan systolic murmur radiating to axilla

A

Mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Late systolic murmur with mid-systolic click

A

Mitral prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Murmur with Barlow syndrome

A

Mitral prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Decrescendo diastolic murmur

A

Aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Displaced apex beat with early diastolic murmur heard in expiration over left sternal edge

A

Aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Pansystolic murmur at lower left sternal edge

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Murmur associated with large V waves in JVP

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Rumbling mid-diastolic murmur heard loudest at apex with tapping apex beat and loud first heart sound

A

Mitral stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Muffled heart sounds following lupus/malignancy

A

Pericardial effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Positive valsalva manoeuvre
Harsh ejection systolic murmur
Sudden unconsciousness in young person

A

Hypertrophic Obstructive CardioMyopathy (HOCM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Machine-line murmur with bounding pulse, wide pulse pressure and left supraclavicular thrill

A

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Dyspnoea, orthopnoea

Fine inspiratory crepitations

A

Heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Increased BNP

A

Heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Gold standard investigation for heart failure

A

Transoesophageal echo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Heart failure CXR signs

A 
Alveolar oedema
Kerley B lines
Cardiomegaly
Diversion of upper lobes
Effusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Petechiae, microvascular haematuria, Janeway lesion, splinter haemorrhages

A

Infective endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Scoring for infective endocarditis

A

Modified Duke Criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Irregularly irregular pulse

A

Atrial fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

ECG shows absent P waves

A

Atrial fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Palpitations, SOB, fatigue, syncope in elderly person

A

Atrial fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Narrow complex tachycardia with rate >150 bpm and 2:1 block

A

Atrial flutter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Saw-tooth appearance of ECG

A

Atrial flutter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Broad complex on ECG of individual with previous MI

A

Ventricular tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Pulseless patient needing cardioversion

A

Ventricular fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Delta wave (slurred upstroke on ST)

A

Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

ECG with:

Broad QRS, uniform P waves with random QRS, cannon waves on JVP

A

Complete heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Collapse when running
Tearing pain to back
Connective tissue disorder

A

Dissected aortic aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Friction rub on cardiac auscultation

A

Pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Male, post-MI

Chest pain worse on lying down

A

Pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Central crushing chest pain radiating to jaw/Left arm

A

Myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Initial MI intervention

A 
Morphine
Oxygen
Nitrates
Aspirin
Reperfusion (thrombolysis/PCI)
Clopidogrel
Heparin

Beta blocker
ACEi
Risk factors
Statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Sharp, pleuritic chest pain
Haemoptysis
OCP/long haul travel

A

Pulmonary embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

PE scoring system

A

Wells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Anxiety, paroxysmal hypertension

A

Phaeochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Interscapular murmur
Decreased femoral pulses
Turner’s syndrome
Radio-radial delay

A

Aortic coarctation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

HTN, polymyalgia, polyuria, polydipsia
Increased Na, reduced K
Normal renal function
Increased aldosterone, decreased renin

A

Conn’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

ANCA positive, micro aneurysms and MI

A

Polyarteritis MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

ST depression and T wave inversion on exertion

Normal resting ECG

A

Stable angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Exertion chest pain, radiating to jaw

A

Stable angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Episodic chest pain on rest

A

Unstable angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

ST elevation at rest in cycles

A

Prinzmetal angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

ST depression on ECG with normal angiogram

A

Syndrome X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Chest pain waking patient up at night, lying down

A

Decubitus angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Pleuritic chest pain, low grade fever and pericarditis a few weeks post-MI

A

Dressler’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Right heart failure, pulmonary hypertension

Large A waves in JVP

A

Cor pulmonale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Pulmonary hypertension, heart failure, shunt reversal

A

Ventricular septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Harsh pan systolic murmur at left sternal edge with a left parasternal heave

A

Ventricular septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Wide, fixed, split second heart sound

Ejection systolic murmur in ICS2/3

A

Atrial septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Anterior leads

A

V1-V4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Anterior artery on ECG

A

Left anterior descending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Inferior leads

A

II, III, aVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Inferior artery on ECG

A

Right coronary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Lateral leads

A

I, V5-V6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Lateral artery on ECG

A

Circumflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Raised and fixed JVP

A

SVC obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Increased JVP on inspiration

A

Cardiac tamponade

Constrictive pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Saddle shaped ST elevation on ECG

A

Acute constrictive pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

S1, QIII, TIII on ECG

A

Pulmonary embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Tall tented T waves on ECG with wide QRS

A

Hyperkalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Flattened T waves on ECG with prominent U waves

A

Hypokalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Long QT interval on ECG

A

Hypocalcaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Stroke with receptive aphasia

A

L temporoparietal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Receptive aphasia

A

Wernicke’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Stroke with expressive aphasia

A

L frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Expressive aphasia

A

Broca’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Stroke with face/arms involvement >legs

A

Middle cerebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Stoke with legs involvement> face/arms

A

Anterior cerebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Stroke with visual involvement

A

Posterior cerebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Acute vertigo, cerebellar signs, Horner’s

A

Lateral medullary syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Confusion
Dizziness
Anxiety
Loss of consciousness

A

Hypoglycaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Uni/bilateral headache, pulsating
Nausea and vomiting
Photophobia
Aura

A

Migraine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Headache like tight band around head

Stress

A

Tension headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Jaw claudication, severe headache
Fatigue, weight loss, sore throat
Red face, scalp tenderness

A

Temporal arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Multinucleated giant cells on artery biopsy

A

Temporal arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Shooting pains when touching face

A

Trigeminal neuralgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Head trauma followed by loss of consciousness, then lucid period

A

Extradural haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Progressively developing head pain and loss of consciousness

A

Subdural haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Severe orbital/temporal pain, occurring in clusters

A

Cluster headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Progressive worsening headache
Worse on coughing, sneezing, bending
Headaches in morning

A

Space occupying lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Stepwise deterioration in cognitive function

Cardiovascular risk factors

A

Vascular dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Gradual memory loss, impaired speech

A

Alzheimers dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Disinhibition, personality changes, inappropriate behaviour
Normal memory
<65 years

A

Pick’s disease (frontotemporal dementia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Myoclonus, memory loss, hallucinations

Rapid progression

A

CJD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Parkinsonism
Vivid visual hallucinations
Sleep disturbance

A

Lewy body dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Loss of consciousness precipitated by emotion/pain/fear/prolonged standing
Nausea
Pallor
Clonic jerking, no stiffness

A

Vaso-vagal syncope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Loss of consciousness after reduced cardiac output
Arrhythmia
Pale, slow/absent pulse
Flushing afterwards

A

Stokes-Adams attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Head turning –> dizziness and syncope

A

Carotid sinus syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Tonic-clonic sequence
Tongue biting
Incontinence
Post-ictal confusion

A

Epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

No loss of consciousness/amnesia/confusion

Pause

A

Simple partial seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

No loss of confusion
Aura
Automatisms

A

Complex partial seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Seizure lasting more than 30 mins

A

Status epileptius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Status epilepticus treatment

A

IV lorazepam + 50% glucose, IV phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

UMN lesion signs

A

Spasticity
Hyperreflexia
Babinski +ve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

LMN lesion signs

A

Floppy paralysis
Wasting
Fasciculations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Muscular weakness improving with exercise

A

Lambert-Eaton syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Lambert-Eaton syndrome antibodies

A

Pre-synaptic Ca channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Muscular weakness worse with exercise

A

Myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

MG antibodies

A

Anti-ACH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Transient loss of vision, paraesthesia, paralysis, worse in heat
Episodes separate in space and time

A

Multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Tremor after alcohol withdrawal

Confusion, crawling sensation

A

Delirium tremens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Cerebellar signs

A 
Dysdiadocokinesa
Ataxia
Nystagmus
Intention tremor
Slurred speech
Hyperreflexia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Peripheral neuropathy in alcoholics

A

B12/folate deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Peripheral neuropathy with glove and stocking distribution

A

Diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Confusion, ataxia and ophthalmoplegia in alcoholic patient

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy treatment

A

IV pabrinex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Anterograde amnesia, confabulation in alcoholic

A

Korsakoff’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Cafe au lait spots, axillary freckling, neurofibromas

A

Neurofibromatosis I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Bilateral acoustic neuroma

A

Neurofibromatosis II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Telangiectasia, epistaxis, vascular disorder

A

Osler-Weber-Rendu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Wasting of thenar eminence and weakness in abductor pollicis brevis

A

Median nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Loss of sensation in lateral palmar serve of 3 and a half digits

A

Median nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Median nerve distribution

A

C6-T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Wasting of hypothenar eminence and weakness in abductor digiti minimi, claw hand

A

Ulnar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Sensory loss over medial one and a half digits

A

Ulnar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Ulnar nerve distribution

A

C8-T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Weakness in wrist extension, wrist drop

A

Radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Anaesthesia over first dorsal interosseous muscle

A

Radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Radial nerve distribution

A

C5-T1

161
Q

Paralysis of intrinsic muscles of hand
Loss of sensation in ulnar distribution
Horner’s syndrome may be present

A

Klumpke’s palsy

162
Q

Loss of shoulder abduction and elbow flexion
Arm held internally rotated
Waiters tip sign

A

Erb’s palsy

163
Q

Weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion of foot
Sensory loss over dorm of foot
Hit inside of knee

A

Common peroneal nerve

164
Q

Common perineal nerve distribution

A

L4-S1

165
Q

Inability to invert foot or stand on tip toe

Sensory loss on sole of foot

A

Tibial nerve

166
Q

Tibial nerve distribution

A

L4-S3

167
Q

Shuffling gait

A

Parkinsons

168
Q

High stepping gait

A

Sensory ataxia

169
Q

Wide based gait

A

Cerebellar lesion

170
Q

Gastroenteritis with vomiting shortly after eating food

A

Staph aureus

171
Q

Gastroenteritis after eating reheated rice

A

Bacillus cereus

172
Q

Haematemesis after sepsis, organ failure

A

Cushing’s ulcer

173
Q

Haematemesis after burns

A

Curling’s ulcer

174
Q

Recurrent ulceration and high serum gastrin

A

Zollinger Ellison syndrome

175
Q

Massive haematemesis, microcytic anaemia and history of alcoholism

A

Oesophageal varices

176
Q

Short history of change in bowel habit

Tenesmus and mucus

A

Rectal carcinoma

177
Q

History of broad spectrum antibiotics

Green diarrhoea

A

Clostridium difficile

178
Q

Pale stool, burping, foul flatus, watery diarrhoea after visiting eastern europe

A

Giardia

179
Q

Bloody diarrhoea + intense abdo pain

A

Ischaemic colitis

180
Q

Loos stool associated with weight loss, hyperpigmentation and onycholysis

A

Thyrotixicosis

181
Q

Epigastric pain worse with meals/alcohol

A

Chronic pancreatitis

182
Q

Rapidly progressive dysphagia (solids, then liquids), weight loss, hypoproteinaemia

A

Oesophageal carcinoma

183
Q

Apple core lesion on barium swallow

A

Oesophageal carcinoma

184
Q

Progressive difficulty with speech and swallowing

Weak facial muscles, absent jaw jerk

A

Bulbar palsy

185
Q

Weight loss + anorexia + Iron deficiency

Signet ring cells

A

Adenocarcinoma

186
Q

Generalised ulceration of oesophagus on background of immunosuppression

A

Oesophageal candidiasis

187
Q

Purple, plaque like lesions of proliferating spindle cells

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

188
Q

Beading of intrahepatic ducts
Associated with ulcerative colitis
Cholestatic jaundice with raised ALP

A

Sclerosing cholangitis

189
Q

Deep necrotic ulceration of shin associated with IBD, vasculitis and haematological malignancy

A

Pyoderma gangrenosum

190
Q

Raised bilirubin - jaundice when stressed/acutely ill

A

Gilbert’s syndrome

191
Q

Jaundice, diarrhoea and fever after eating infectious food

A

Hepatitis A

192
Q

Thrombus in hepatic portal vein secondary to thrombogenic disorders

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome

193
Q

Chronic liver disease + jaundice related to antimitochondrial antibodies

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis

194
Q

Faecal oral RNA virus leading to jaundice, diarrhoea and fever

A

Hepatitis A

195
Q

Infectious dsDNA virus leading to infection and chronic carriage after fluid transmission

A

Hepatitis C

196
Q

Iron overload - haemosiderin within hepatocytes leading to bronzed skin and raised transaminase

A

Genetic haemochromatosis

197
Q

Copper accumulation leading to Kaiser-Fleischer rings, neuro and liver changes

A

Wilson’s disease

198
Q

Pre-hepatic causes of jaundice

A

Haemolysis

199
Q

Hepatic causes of jaundice

A

Autoimmunity, drugs, infection, malignancy

200
Q

Post-hepatic causes of jaundice

A

Obstruction via gallstone, tumour, infection, inflammation

201
Q

Fever, right upper quadrant pain, nausea, icteric sclera worse on fatty foods
Female, fat, forty, fertile

A

Biliary colic

202
Q

Charcot’s triad leading to fever, rigours and jaundice

A

Ascending cholangitis

203
Q

Unexplained dyspepsia, dysphasia, malaena, anaemia and anorexia
Acanthosis Nigricans
Virchow’s node

A

Gastric carcinoma

204
Q

Abdo pain after meals

CLO test positive

A

Peptic ulcer

205
Q

Metaplasia of distal oesophagus from squamous to columnar epithelium
Related to GORD

A

Barrett’s oesophagus

206
Q

Abdo pain improving with meals, worse with hunger and at night

A

Duodenal ulcer

207
Q

Proportion of GIT ulcers which are duodenal

A

80%

208
Q

Small haematemesis following repeated retching and vomiting

A

Mallory Weiss tear

209
Q

Fullness, epigastric pain, nausea
Radiates to back
Hypokalaemia + anaemia

A

Acute pancreatitis

210
Q

Acute pancreatitis score

A

Modified Glasgow score

211
Q

Hypoglycaemia upon fasting/exercise

Palpitations, dizziness, syncope, diplopia

A

Insulinoma

212
Q

Painless progressive jaundice with mass
Diabetes, smoking, alcohol
Dark urine, pale stools
ALP>AST

A

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

213
Q

Pancreatic cancer marker

A

Ca19-9

214
Q

Severe, acute onset abdominal pain

Expansile mass, tachycardia, hypotension

A

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

215
Q

Shock, epigastric pain
History of dyspepsia
Rigid abdomen, absent bowel sounds

A

Perforated peptic ulcer

216
Q

Pain, nausea, vomiting and bloody diarrhoea
Febrile, tachycardia, distension >6cm
Coffee bean sign

A

Toxic megacolon

217
Q

Umbilical to right iliac fossa pain
Nausea and vomiting
Tender over McBurney’s point
Rosving’s sign positive

A

Appendicitis

218
Q

Pain, vomiting, altered blood per rectum

Pale, tachycardia, shock

A

Mesenteric ischaemia

219
Q

Beak sign on barium swallow

Chest pain and regurgitation of solids and liquids

A

Achalasia

220
Q

Decreased calcium, decreased calcitriol, increased phosphate, increased bone resorption, increased ALP
Osteoporosis on DEXA
Due to chronic renal failure

A

Renal osteodystrophy

221
Q

Autonomous PTH secretion
Parahyroid adenoma/MEN 1
Increased PTH, increased Ca

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

222
Q

Physiological reaction to low calcium or high phosphate

High PTH

A

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

223
Q

Autonomous parathyroid function

After transplant

A

Tertiary hyperparathyroidism

224
Q

Hypertension, diabetes, glomerulonephritis
Fatigue, anorexia, pruritus, bone pain, oedema
Increased urea, increased creatinine, increased phosphate, decrease calcium, increase potassium
Normocytic, normochromic anaemia

A

Chronic renal failure

225
Q

Terminal haematuria
Following travel to Middle East/Africa
Fevers, malaise, eosinophilia
Squamous cell carcinoma

A

Schistosomiasis

226
Q

Acute renal failure

Granular/muddy brown cell casts

A

Acute tubular necrosis

227
Q

Multiple aneurysms, irregular constrictions

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

228
Q

Acute renal failure

White cell casts

A

Acute pyelonephritis

229
Q

Hypoalbuminaemia
Oedema
Lipid abs
Proteinuria

Thromboembolism, hyperlipidaemia, increased infection risk

A

Nephrotic syndrome

230
Q 
Proteinuria
Haematuria
Azotemia
Red cell casts
Oliguria
HTN

Inflammatory process, increased urea, increased creatinine

A

Nephritic syndrome

231
Q

Multiple large bilateral cysts in kidneys
UTIs, haematuria, hypertension
PKD 1/2 mutation
High risk of Berry aneurysm, mitral valve prolapse

A

Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

232
Q

Renal failure in childhood

Hypertension, portal hypertension, congenital hepatic fibrosis

A

Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease

233
Q

Middle aged patient
Haemoptysis
Haematuria and hypertension
Linear immunofluorescence on renal biopsy
T4 glomerular basement membrane antibodies

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome

234
Q

Wegener’s granulomatosis antibodies

A

cANCA

235
Q

Upper respiratory tract infection, lower respiratory tract infection, renal effects (haematuria, RBC casts)

A

Wegener’s granulomatosis

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

236
Q

Glomerulonephritis in children post-upper respiratory tract infection/immunisation/allergy

A

Minimal change disease

237
Q

Obstructive urinary symptoms
Back pain
Craggy, nodular prostate
Loss of midline sulcus

A

Prostate cancer

238
Q

Transitional zone hyperplasia of the prostate
Obstructive urinary symptoms
Smoothly enlarged prostate

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

239
Q

Male patients 60-70 years old
Painless haematuria lacking casts
Relating to azo dyes

A

Transitional Cell Carcinoma

240
Q

Diarrhoea, vomiting, increased urea/creatinine
Thrombocytopenia
E coli 0157

A

Haemolytic Uraemia Syndrome

241
Q

Post-renal failure
Confusion, abdominal pain
Large, palpable bladder

A

Urinary retention

242
Q

Loin to groin pain
Vomiting
Writhing in agony
Haematuria

A

Renal colic

243
Q

Urine dip with nitrates, blood, leukocytes

Increased frequency

A

Urinary tract infection

244
Q 
Weight loss, nigh sweats
Loin pain, dysuria
Blood, leukocytes, -ve nitrates
Sterile pyruia
Positive mantoux
A

TB

245
Q

WBC casts

A

Tubulointerstitial nephritis

246
Q

RC casts

A

Glomerulonephritis

247
Q

Centripetal obesity, bruises, darkened palmar creases, recent onset diabetes

A

Cushing’s syndrome

248
Q

Pituitary adenoma secreting ACTH

A

Cushing’s disease

249
Q

Polyuria, polydipsia, pituitary tumour, trauma

A

Central diabetes insipidus

250
Q

Polyuria, polydipsia

Hereditary, hypercalcaemia, lithium, thiazide diuretic

A

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

251
Q

Polyuria, polydipsia
Associated with schizophrenia
Urine osmolality same with fluid deprivation and after desmopressin

A

Psychogenic polydipsia

252
Q

Generalised weakness, hyporeflexia, ataxia, lethargy, confusion
Hyponatraemia, high urine osmolality, hypoosmolality

A

Syndrome of inappropriate ADH

253
Q

Coarse features, widely spaced teeth, slanting forehead, protruding jaw
Growth hormone secreting pituitary tumour

A

Acromegaly

254
Q

Adrenal insufficiency
GI disturbance, weight loss, postural hypertension
High potassium, low sodium

A

Addison’s disease

255
Q

Aldosterone producing adenoma
Low potassium, high sodium, high bicarb
High aldosterone, low renin
Metabolic alkalosis

A

Conn’s syndrome

256
Q

Parathyroid tumour
Pituitary adenoma
Pancreatic tumour (Zollinger-Ellison syndrome)

A

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia 1

257
Q

Phaeochromocytoma
Amyloid-producing thyroid tumour
Primary hyperparathyroidism

A

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia 2a

258
Q

Phaeochromocytoma
Amyloid-producing tumour
Marfan’s syndrome
Organ fibrosis

A

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia 2b

259
Q

Insomnia, palpitations, weight loss, increased appetite

A

Hyperthyroidism

260
Q

Exophthalmos, pretibial myxoedema

Autoimmune stimulation of TSH-receptor

A

Grave’s disease

261
Q

Weight gain, lethargy, constipation
Diffusely enlarged thyroid
Anti-thyroglobulin, anti-microsomal, anti-thyroid peroxidase, anti-TSH-receptor antibodies

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

262
Q

Flu like illness –> inflammation and T3/4 release
Hyperthyroid –> hypothyroid –> euthyroid
Pain worse with swallowing, fever
Increased ESR

A

De Quervain’s thyroiditis

263
Q

Slow growing, hard, immobile, enlarged thyroid
Fibrotic tissue on biopsy
Difficulty breathing and swallowing

A

Riedel’s thyroiditis

264
Q

Rare thyroid cancer in elderly
Hard, rapidly enlarging
Fixed to skin

A

Anaplastic carcinoma

265
Q

Thyroid cancer in adolescents and young adults
Orphan Annie eyes, psammoma bodies
Lymphadenopathy

A

Papillary carcinoma

266
Q

Thyroid cancer in middle aged

Spread to lung/bone

A

Follicular carcinoma

267
Q

Thyroid cancer with calcitonin tumour marker

MEN2

A

Medullary carcinoma

268
Q

Lumpy, irregular thyroid
Plummer’s syndrome
Autonomous hyperfunctionign nodules

A

Toxic multi nodular goitre

269
Q

Enlarged thyroid due to iodine decifiency, pregnancy, puberty

A

Simple colloid goitre

270
Q

Bones, stones, moans, groans
Polyuria, polydipsia
Increased PTH

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

271
Q

Bones, stones, moans, groans
Trousseau’s sign
Chvostek’s sign

A

Hypercalcaemia

272
Q

Convulsions
Arrhythmias
Tetany
Paraesthesia

A

Hypocalcaemia

273
Q

Hypocalcaemia causes

A

Chronic kidney disease
Parathyroid failure
Post-thyroidectomy
Hypomagnesaemia

274
Q

Low calcium and high PTH

A

Pseudohypoparathyroidism

275
Q

Hypercalcaemia causes

A

Hyperparathyroidism, malignancy, vitamin D intoxication, sarcoidosis

276
Q

Lung cancer secreting ectopic PTH

Hypercalcaemia + bone breakdown

A

PTHRP secretion

277
Q

Ischaemic necrosis of pituiary
Post-partum haemorrhage
Hypopituitarism - amenorrhoea

A

Sheehan’s syndrome

278
Q

Cushings –> bilateral adenalectomy

A

Nelson’s syndrome

279
Q

Weight loss, fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia

A

Type 1 diabetes mellitus

280
Q

Hyperglycaemia, ketoacidosis, ketonuria, dehydration, confusion, abdo pain
Kussmal breathing, pear drop breath

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis

281
Q

Neuroglycopaenia

Irritable, tired, drowsy

A

Hypoglycaemia

282
Q

Breast cancer marker

A

Ca15-3

283
Q

Colorectal cancer marker

A

CEA

284
Q

Carcinogen risk for hepatocellular cancer

A

Aflatoxin B1

285
Q

Carcinogen risk for mesothelioma

A

Asbestos

286
Q

Carcinogen risk for prostate cancer

A

Cadmium

287
Q

Carcinogen risk for bladder cancer

A

Aniline dyes/rubber industry

288
Q

Carcinogen risk for endometrial cancer

A

Oestrogen

289
Q

Carcinogen risk for GI lymphoma

A

Coeliac

290
Q

Carcinogen risk for gastric cancer

A

Pernicious anaemia

291
Q

Carcinogen risk for cervical cancer

A

Unprotected sex with multiple partners

292
Q

Carcinogen risk for lymphoma

A

EBV

293
Q

Painless punctum attached to skin

A

Sebaceous cyst

294
Q

Nodule on extensor surface
Firm and painless
History of rheumatoid arthritis

A

Rheumatoid nodule

295
Q

Lump on a scar, solid and itchy

A

Keloid

296
Q

Lump on dorsal of foot/hand
Herniation of tendon sheath
Transilluminates

A

Ganglion

297
Q

Lump in anterior triangle
Slow growing
Young patient
Cholesterol crystals on FNA

A

Branchial cyst

298
Q

Lump in anterior triangle

Lateral mobility

A

Carotid body aneurysm

299
Q

Pulsatile lump in neck
Lateral mobility
Pulsatile, bruit
Pressure –> dizziness

A

Carotid body tumour

300
Q

Lump with uneven borders
Slightly fluctuant
Not fixed to skin/deep structures

A

Lipoma

301
Q

Lump in neck
Fever, lethargy, appetite change, weight loss, sweats
Painful after alcohol
Reed-Sternberg cells

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

302
Q

Lump in posterior triangle
Regurgitation/difficulty swallowing
Gurgling, bad breath

A

Pharyngeal pouch

303
Q

Rubbery lump

Tingling on pressure

A

Neurofibroma

304
Q

Large skin abscess made of several boils

A

Carbuncle

305
Q

Infection of hair follicle

A

Furuncle

306
Q

Low grade tumour from hair follicle

Skin coloured with black central core

A

Keratoacanthoma

307
Q

Benign lump
Smooth, hard, mobile
<30y/o

A

Fibroadenoma

308
Q

Fibrocystic changes
Multiple cysts and nodules
Oestrogen induced hyperplasia

A

Fibroadenosis

309
Q

Large, hot painful lump in breast

Associated with breast feeding

A

Acute mastitis

310
Q

Large, hot painful lump in breast
Inability to sleep
Continuous pain

A

Breast abscess

311
Q

Painful, erythamtous sub areolar mass
Abscess and inflammation
Smoking = risk factor

A

Periductal mastitis

312
Q

Peri-areolar mass
Dilatation and blockage –> inflammation and fibrosis
White discharge
50-60 years old

A

Duct ectasia

313
Q 
Irregular, hard lump, tethered
Nipple inversion, puckering
Bloody discharge
Ulceration, swelling
Peau d'orange
A

Invasive carcinoma

314
Q

Itchiness and discharge from nipple

No palpable lump

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ

315
Q

Itchy, erythamous, scaly skin over nipple

Erosion and nipple discharge

A

Paget’s disease

316
Q

Increase in size of breast
Tear drop appearance
Fibroadenoma appearance

A

Phyllodes tumour

317
Q

Milk production without pregnancy

A

Prolactinoma

318
Q

Trauma to breast
More common in obese women
Overlying bruising
Hard, irregular lump

A

Fat necrosis

319
Q

Ulceration in gaiter region with haemosiderin deposition and lipodermatosclerosis
Oedema and brown discolouration of skin
Common in women after middle age

A

Venous ulcer

320
Q 
Punched out ulcers
Atherosclerosis/vasculitis
Low ABPI
Absent pulses
Shiny, hairless limb
A

Arterial ulcer

321
Q 
Absent/reduced sensation
Found in pressure areas
Well perfused, deep penetrating skin
Loss of reflexes
Diabetes
A

Neuropathic ulcer

322
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma from previous scar/burn/ulcer

Irregular, raised edge, blood-stained discharge, painless

A

Marjolin’s ulcer

323
Q

Pale, pulseless, painful, perishingly cold, paraesthesia, paralysis

A

Acute limb ischaemia

324
Q

Risky ABPI

A

<0.3

325
Q

Causes for amputation

A

Paraethstia, paralysis

326
Q

Atherogenic emboli to retinala artery

Black curtain over eye

A

Amaurosis fugax

327
Q

Distended superficial veins due to venous insufficiency

A

Varicose veins

328
Q

Site of local trauma + tissue infection
Swelling, erythema, vesicle and bullae formation over skin
Fever +/- diarrhoea and vomiting

A

Necrotising fasciitis

329
Q

Digital ischaemia - reflex vasospasm
Pallor –> cyanosis –> reactive hyperaemia
Associated with rheumatoid conditions, beta blockers

A

Raynaud’s syndrome

330
Q

Tired, SOB, conjunctival pallor
Tachycardia
Flow murmur
Coeliac/Crohn’s/GI bleed/menorrhagia

A

Anaemia

331
Q

Microcytic anaemia
Hepatospenlomegaly
Jaw protrusion

A

Thallasaemia

332
Q

Microcytic anaemia + neuro signs

A

Phenytoin toxicity

333
Q

Microcytic anaemia associated with B12 deficiency

Coeliac/alcohol/drugs

A

Pernicious anaemia

334
Q

Anaemia with hyperhsegmented neutrophils and erythroblasts

A

Megaloblastic anaemia

335
Q

Jaundice and anaemia

A

Haemolytic anaemia

336
Q

Anaemia in Adro-Caribbean patients

Symptoms at altitude

A

Sickle cell disease

337
Q

Anaemia
Splenomegaly
Spherocytes on film
Osmotic fragility test +ve

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

338
Q

Anaemia with jaundice
X linked recessive
Triggers - fava beans, anti-malarial, infection, moth balls
Heinz bodies

A

G6Pd deficiency

339
Q

Anaemia - Coomb’s test positive

A

Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

340
Q

Cold-activated anaemia association

A

Mycoplasma

341
Q

Warm-activated anaemia association

A

CML/lymphoma/SLE

342
Q

Clots, low platelets, rash

A

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenia Purpura

343
Q

Petechia with low fibrinogen and clots

Sepsis/vascular insult

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

344
Q

Normocytic anaemia causes

A

Chronic disease
Liver disease
Blood loss

345
Q

Pancytopaenia
Hypocellular basement membrane
Absent reticulocytes

A

Aplastic anaemia

346
Q

Uncontrolled red blood cell proliferation
Headaches, dizziness, stroke
Mast cells –> pruritus after hot baths
Gout, splenomegaly, plethora

A

Polycythaemia rubra vera

347
Q

Excessive red blood cell production due to other disease (COPD/EPO secreting tumour)

A

Secondary polycythaemia

348
Q

Randomly high red blood cells

Risk of AML

A

Idiopathic erythrocytosis

349
Q

Platelets >600
Hypercoagulable
Nosebleeds/GI/gum bleeding

A

Essential thrombocytaemia

350
Q

Menorrhagia + nosebleeds + purpura

A

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

351
Q 
Bone marrow failure
Child
Lymphadenopathy
Incrased infections
Anaemia
Blast cells
A

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

352
Q

Bone marrow failure
Adults
RARA-PML protein
Auer rods

A

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

353
Q

Bone marrow failure
Increased white cell count
Smear cells

A

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia

354
Q

Bone marrow failure
25-40 years
Philadelphia chromosome

A

Chronic myeloid Leukaemia

355
Q

X linked factor 8 deficiency

A

Haemophilia A

356
Q

X linked factor 9 deficiency

A

Haemophilia B

357
Q

History of excessive bleeding

A

Von Willebrand disease

358
Q

Liver disease and pancreatic insuffiency

A

Vitamin K deficiency

359
Q

Multiple miscarriage

Arterial and venous thromosis

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome

360
Q

Spinning sensation
Increased volume of endolymph
Unilateral tinnitus, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss

A

Meniere’s disease

361
Q

Fluid from knee effusion forms popliteal cyst

Rupture –> compartment syndrome

A

Baker’s cyst

362
Q

Systemic vasculitis associated with HLA B51
Recurrent oral/genital ulceration
Ocular inflammation

A

Behcet’s disease

363
Q

Peroneal muscular atrophy (high arched feet)
Inherited neuropathy (starts in puberty)
Weak legs and foot drop
Inverted champagne bottle apprearance

A

Charcot-Marie-Tooth

364
Q

Late onset asthma
Eosinophilia
Granulomatous small vessel vasculitis
pANCA +ve

A

Churg-Strauss syndrome

365
Q

Small vessel vasculitis
Purpura on buttocks and extensor surfaces
Joint involvement and abdominal pain

A

Henoch Schonlein Purpur

366
Q

Ptosis
Miosis
Anhydrosis

A

Horner’s syndrome

367
Q

Mucocutaneous freckles on mucosa/soles/pams

GI polyps –> obstruction/bleed

A

Peutx-Jegher’s syndrome

368
Q

Uveitis
Urethritis
Arthritis

A

Reiter’s syndrome

369
Q

AI inflammatory disorder
Exocrine gland dysfunction
Xerostomia, keratoconjunctivitis
Parotid swelling

A

Sjogren’s syndrome

370
Q

Erythema multiforme
Toxic epidermal necrolysis
Hypersensitivity reaction

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

371
Q

Bilateral renal cell cancer
Retinal and cerebellar haemangioblastoma
Phaeochromocytoma

A

Von Hippel Lindau syndrome

372
Q

Idiopathic costochrondritis

A

Tietze’s syndrome

373
Q

Lesions to multiple CNS nuclei
Posterior/inferior cerebellar artery occlusion
Dysphagia/dysarthrita/vertigo/horners

A

Lateral medullary syndrome

374
Q

OD = tachycardia, bradycardia

A

Digoxin

375
Q

OD = hepatic failure

A

Paracetamol

376
Q

OD = drowsiness, respiratory depression

A

Benzodiazepine

377
Q

OD = respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils

A

Opiates

378
Q

OD = tinnitus, vertigo, hyperventilation, metabolic acidosis

A

Salicylates

379
Q

OD = salivation, lacrimation, urination, diarrhoea

A

Organophosphates

380
Q

OD = bleeding

A

Warfarin

381
Q

OD = severe bradycardia/hypotension

A

Beta blocker

382
Q

OD = normal blood gas with low sats

A

Carbon monoxide

383
Q

Electrolyte imbalance

Anorexia, nausea, malaise, headache, irritability, confusion, weakness, seizures, oedema

A

Hyponatraemia

384
Q

Electrolyte imbalance

Lethargy, thirst, weakness, irritability, confusion, coma, fits, dehydration

A

Hypernatramia

385
Q

Hyponatramia causes

A 
Water loss in excess of sodium loss
Diarrhoea, vomiting, burns
Excess saline
Diabetes insipidus
Osmotic diuresis
Primary aldosteronism
386
Q

Dehydrated causes of hyponatramia

A 
Addison's 
Renal failure
Diuretic excess
Osmolar diuresis
Diarrhoea, vomiting, burns
387
Q

Non-dehydrated causes of hyponatraemia

A

Oedematous - nephrotic syndrome, cardiac failure, cirrhosis, renal failure

No oedema - water overload, severe hypothyroidism, glucocorticoid insufficiency, SIADH

388
Q

Normal values for Na

A

135-145

389
Q

Normal values for K

A

3.5-4.5

390
Q

Electrolyte imbalance

Muscle weakness, hypotonia, hyporeflexia, cramps, tetany, palpitations, arrhytmia

A

Hypokalaemia

391
Q

Hypokalaemia causes

A 
Diuretics
Diarrhoea and vomiting
Cushings/steroids
Conns syndrome
Alkalosis
Bulimia
Renal tubular failure
392
Q

Electrolyte imbalance

Fast irregular pulse, chest pain, weakness, palpitations, light headedness

A

Hyperkalaemia

393
Q

Hyperkalaemia causes

A 
Oliguric renal failure
K sparing diuretics
Rhabdomyolysis
Metabolic acidosis
Addison's
Burns
ACEi
394
Q 
Electrolyte imbalance
Spasm
Perioribital paraesthesia
Anxiety, irritability
Seizures
Increased smooth muscle tone
Confusion
Chvostek's sign
A

Hypocalcaemia

395
Q 
Electrolyte imbalance
Abdo pain, vomitting
Constipation
Polyuria, polydipsia
Depression
Anorexia, weight loss
Tiredness
HTN
Confusion
Renal stones/failure
A

Hypercalcaemia

396
Q

Cause of raised phosphate

A 
CKD
Hypoparathyroidism
Pseudohypoparathyroidism
Acute rhabdomyolysis
Hypomagnesaemia
397
Q

Causes of low phosphate

A

Osteomalacia, acute pancreatitis, over hydration and respiratory alkalosis

398
Q

Causes of hypercalcaemia

A

Malignancy, primary hyperparathyroidism, renal failure, Addison’s, TB, fit D overdose, muscles tumours

399
Q

Marker of renal function

A

Creatinine

Drugs (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions