SBA

Question 1

Regarding chromatography principles, which is TRUE?
A. Chromatography separates components based on their interaction with the stationary phase.
B. The mobile phase remains stationary while the sample components move.
C. Reverse-phase chromatography uses a hydrophilic stationary phase.
D. Smaller molecules elute faster in size exclusion chromatography.
E. Chromatography is limited to volatile compounds.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

In HPLC, which statement is FALSE?
A. The stationary phase in reverse-phase HPLC is hydrophobic.
B. Gradient mobile phase composition remains constant during separation.
C. Isocratic elution is best for simple sample separations.
D. A chromatogram shows the output of separated sample components.
E. Retention time decreases as solvent strength increases.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which of the following about HPLC instrumentation is TRUE?
A. The pump delivers a non-reproducible flow of mobile phase.
B. Autosamplers allow for sequential injection of samples.
C. The detector identifies compounds without separating them.
D. High column temperatures increase retention times.
E. Solvent degassing prevents the formation of solid impurities.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Regarding HPLC mobile phases, which statement is TRUE?
A. In reverse-phase HPLC, organic solvents are weak solvents.
B. pH of the mobile phase does not affect retention.
C. Strong solvents elute compounds faster than weak solvents.
D. The mobile phase must always be nonpolar.
E. Flow rates above 5 mL/min are standard in HPLC.

Answer 4

C

Question 5

Which statement about size exclusion chromatography (SEC) is FALSE?
A. SEC separates molecules based on their size.
B. Smaller molecules are retained longer in SEC.
C. SEC is also called gel permeation chromatography.
D. SEC uses affinity-based interactions for separation.
E. Larger molecules elute faster than smaller ones.

Answer 5

D

Question 6

Which statement about chromatographic components is TRUE?
A. The stationary phase is responsible for detecting analytes.
B. The mobile phase carries the sample through the stationary phase.
C. The pump injects the sample into the chromatographic system.
D. The detector separates the analytes in the sample.
E. The chromatogram represents the stationary phase configuration.

Answer 6

B

Question 7

Which statement about reverse-phase HPLC is FALSE?
A. The stationary phase is hydrophobic.
B. Hydrophilic compounds elute faster than hydrophobic ones.
C. Water acts as a strong solvent.
D. Organic solvents increase the elution speed in reverse-phase HPLC.
E. Separation is influenced by polarity, ionic, and hydrophobic interactions.

Answer 7

C

Question 8

Which statement about chromatogram interpretation is TRUE?
A. Retention time is measured along the Y-axis.
B. The peak area indicates the concentration of the analyte.
C. Peaks must always have perfect Gaussian shapes.
D. The detector directly measures analyte mass without calibration.
E. Peak height is a better indicator of concentration than peak area.

Answer 8

B

Question 9

Which statement about HPLC detectors is TRUE?
A. Fluorescence detectors are considered universal detectors.
B. Refractive index detectors are suitable for non-absorbing compounds.
C. UV-Vis detectors are incapable of detecting aromatic compounds.
D. Mass spectrometry detectors are unsuitable for quantitative analysis.
E. Single-wavelength detectors can monitor multiple analytes simultaneously.

Answer 9

B

Question 10

Which of the following is TRUE about HPLC limitations?
A. HPLC is ideal for highly volatile compounds.
B. High equipment cost is a common limitation.
C. HPLC struggles to separate complex mixtures.
D. Solvent degassing is unnecessary in modern systems.
E. HPLC provides low sensitivity for trace analytes.

Answer 10

B

Question 11

Which statement about gas chromatography (GC) is TRUE?
A. GC is primarily used for non-volatile compounds.
B. The mobile phase in GC is always a liquid.
C. GC separates compounds based on volatility and polarity.
D. The stationary phase in GC is usually a gas.
E. All compounds must be derivatized before GC analysis.

Answer 11

C

Question 12

Which statement about carrier gases in GC is FALSE?
A. Helium is commonly used because it is inert and safe.
B. Nitrogen has a low optimum velocity, requiring longer analysis times.
C. Hydrogen provides better thermal conductivity than helium.
D. Oxygen is commonly used as a carrier gas due to its reactivity.
E. Carrier gases must have a purity of at least 99.995%

Answer 12

D

Question 13

Which statement about the injection port in GC is TRUE?
A. Samples are injected directly as liquids without vaporization.
B. The injection port is maintained at a temperature below the boiling point of the sample.
C. Slow injection of large samples improves resolution.
D. A syringe is commonly used to introduce the sample into the carrier gas.
E. Injection port temperatures have no effect on resolution.

Answer 13

D

Question 14

Which statement about GC columns is FALSE?
A. Capillary columns provide higher resolution than packed columns.
B. Packed columns are typically made of stainless steel or glass.
C. Capillary columns are often coated with polyimide resin for mechanical strength.
D. The stationary phase in GC columns is always a solid.
E. Increasing the column length improves resolution in GC.

Answer 14

D

Question 15

Which statement about GC detectors is TRUE?
A. Flame Ionization Detectors (FID) are highly sensitive to water and carbon dioxide.
B. Thermal Conductivity Detectors (TCD) are known as universal detectors.
C. Mass Spectrometry (MS) detectors cannot provide molecular weight information.
D. FID is suitable for detecting inorganic compounds.
E. TCD measures analytes based on light absorption.

Answer 15

B

Question 16

Which statement about NMR spectroscopy is TRUE?
A. NMR is based on the interaction of nuclei with zero spin and an external magnetic field.
B. Chemical shifts are measured in Hertz (Hz).
C. H AND C are commonly analyzed nuclei due to their non-zero spin.
D. Equivalent protons have different chemical shifts.
E. NMR is destructive and consumes the entire sample during analysis.

Answer 16

C

Question 17

Which statement about chemical shift in NMR is FALSE?
A. Chemical shifts are influenced by the shielding or deshielding of protons.
B. Electron-dense environments shield protons and move the signal upfield.
C. The reference compound tetramethylsilane (TMS) is assigned a chemical shift of 0 ppm.
D. Deshielded protons appear at lower chemical shift values.
E. Protons in different electronic environments exhibit different chemical shifts.

Answer 17

D

Question 18

Which statement about spin-spin coupling is TRUE?
A. Coupling occurs between all protons, regardless of their proximity.
B. A triplet results from a proton with two neighboring equivalent protons.
C. Coupling constants are expressed in parts per million (ppm).
D. Coupling between equivalent protons results in a doublet.
E. Spin-spin coupling is not affected by heteroatoms like oxygen or nitrogen.

Answer 18

B

Question 19

Which statement about
𝐷2O exchange experiments is FALSE?
A. D2O replaces hydroxyl or amine protons with deuterium.
B. The addition of 𝐷2O causes hydroxyl peaks to disappear in H NMR.
C. Deuterium produces signals in the same region as hydrogen in H NMR.
D. Water peaks may appear at ~3.8 ppm due to residual H2O or HOD.
E. This technique is used to identify exchangeable protons like -OH or -NH groups.

Answer 19

C

Question 20

Which statement about NMR applications in drug discovery is TRUE?
A. NMR cannot be used to analyze mixtures.
B. HPLC-NMR is commonly used for the structural elucidation of natural products.
C. NMR provides less information than UV-Vis spectroscopy.
D. NMR cannot quantify drug metabolites in biological fluids.
E. NMR is destructive and not used in pharmaceutical analysis.

Answer 20

B

Question 21

Which statement about Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS) is TRUE?
A. AAS measures the emission of light from excited atoms.
B. A hollow cathode lamp is used to provide specific wavelengths of light.
C. AAS is primarily used to measure non-metal elements.
D. AAS requires the sample to remain in the solid phase during analysis.
E. AAS is less sensitive than Atomic Emission Spectroscopy (AES).

Answer 21

B

Question 22

Which statement about Atomic Emission Spectroscopy (AES) is FALSE?
A. AES requires a flame or plasma to excite atoms thermally.
B. Emitted light is measured to determine elemental concentrations.
C. AES is suitable for analyzing non-metallic elements like sulfur and chlorine.
D. Plasma AES can achieve higher temperatures than flame AES.
E. AES is commonly used for detecting alkali metals like sodium and potassium.

Answer 22

C

Question 23

Which statement about sample preparation in atomic spectrophotometry is TRUE?
A. Solid samples must be atomized using a nebulizer or laser ablation.
B. Samples are analyzed in their original form without atomization.
C. Ionization suppression is not required for accurate analysis.
D. Organic solvents are preferred over aqueous solutions for sample nebulization.
E. Sample viscosity has no effect on atomization efficiency.

Answer 23

A

Question 24

Which statement about Atomic Spectroscopy Interferences is FALSE?
A. Ionization interference occurs when atoms lose electrons, reducing signal intensity.
B. Anionic interference can occur due to the formation of involatile salts.
C. Adding potassium as an ionization suppressant can help reduce interference.
D. Organic substances increase flame temperature, improving accuracy.
E. Viscosity changes can affect the rate of sample introduction into the flame.

Answer 24

D

Question 25

Which statement about Instrumentation in AAS is TRUE?
A. The monochromator narrows the width of the absorption band.
B. The detector excites atoms from the ground state to the excited state.
C. The flame in AAS is used to ionize all atoms for analysis.
D. A hollow cathode lamp is unnecessary when using multiple elements.
E. The monochromator serves to ionize the atoms in the sample.

Answer 25

A

Question 26

Which statement about plasma-based AES (ICP-AES) is FALSE?
A. Plasma can achieve temperatures up to 10,000 K.
B. Plasma AES can analyze over 70 elements, including halogens.
C. Plasma AES is less sensitive than flame-based AES.
D. ICP-AES is widely used for multi-elemental analysis.
E. Plasma AES provides higher sensitivity than flame AES

Answer 26

C

Question 27

Which statement about the Bohr Model in atomic spectroscopy is TRUE?
A. Electrons can occupy any energy level regardless of their energy.
B. Energy is released when electrons move from a higher energy state to a lower one.
C. Electrons emit electromagnetic radiation when moving from lower to higher energy levels.
D. All atoms have the same energy level transitions.
E. The Bohr model is only applicable to molecular spectroscopy.

Answer 27

B

Question 28

Which statement about calibration in AAS is FALSE?
A. A calibration curve is constructed using solutions of known concentrations.
B. Flame photometry readings are directly proportional to metal concentration.
C. Beer’s law always applies perfectly in AAS, regardless of concentration.
D. Sample dilution can be used if the concentration is too high.
E. Five standards and a blank are typically used for calibration.

Answer 28

C

Question 29

Which of the following statements about IR spectroscopy is false?

A) IR spectroscopy measures the absorption of light by molecules.
B) The fingerprint region is above 3000 cm⁻¹.
C) Water is not an ideal solvent for IR spectroscopy.
D) FT-IR is faster than dispersive IR.
E) IR spectroscopy can detect changes in tissue morphology.

Answer 29

b

Question 30

Which of the following statements about sample preparation in IR spectroscopy is true?

A) KBr discs are used for liquid samples.
B) Nujol mull is suitable for semi-solid samples.
C) Liquid films are not prepared using KCl or NaCl windows.
D) Diffuse reflectance is not useful for polymorphs.
E) Attenuated total reflectance is not suitable for gels.

Answer 30

b

Question 31

Which of the following statements about the principles of IR spectroscopy is false?

A) IR spectroscopy deals with electronic transitions.
B) Molecular vibrations are quantized.
C) Symmetric stretch does not involve a change in bond angle.
D) The intensity of absorption is governed by the dipole moment.
E) The fingerprint region is unique to each molecule.

Answer 31

a

Question 32

Which of the following statements about Raman spectroscopy is true?

A) Raman spectroscopy measures absorbed light.
B) Rayleigh scattering involves a change in energy.
C) Raman effect is due to inelastic scattering of light.
D) Raman spectroscopy is not suitable for aqueous samples.
E) Raman spectroscopy requires extensive sample preparation.

Answer 32

c

Question 33

Which of the following statements about the applications of Raman spectroscopy is false?

A) Raman spectroscopy can identify crystalline polymorphs.
B) It is not useful for reaction monitoring.
C) Raman spectroscopy is used in polymer analysis.
D) It can be used for biological samples.
E) Raman spectroscopy is useful for examining breast tissue.

Answer 33

b

Question 34

Which of the following statements about the British Pharmacopoeia (BP) is true?

A) The BP is published every five years.
B) The BP is used exclusively in the UK.
C) The BP is prepared by the British Pharmacopoeia Commission.
D) The BP does not include monographs from the European Pharmacopoeia.
E) The BP is not legally binding.

Answer 34

c

Question 35

Which of the following statements about the contents of the BP is false?

A) Volume I and II contain monographs on medicinal and pharmaceutical substances.
B) Volume III contains monographs on formulated preparations.
C) Volume IV contains monographs on herbal drugs and related products.
D) Volume V contains the British Pharmacopoeia (Veterinary).
E) Volume VI contains infrared reference spectra and appendices.

Answer 35

d

Question 36

Which of the following statements about the purpose of a BP monograph is true?

A) It provides information on the economic value of a medicinal substance.
B) It ensures the quality, purity, and strength of formulations.
C) It is used to advertise pharmaceutical products.
D) It contains marketing strategies for new drugs.
E) It is not used for quality control.

Answer 36

b

Question 37

Which of the following statements about the development of BP monographs is false?

A) Monographs are developed in line with the General Notices and general test methods.
B) The British Pharmacopoeial Commission coordinates the development of monographs.
C) Monographs are developed without input from manufacturers.
D) Continuous dialogue with users is part of the development process.
E) Monographs are finalized after comments on test methods are agreed upon

Answer 37

c

Question 38

Which of the following statements about the example monograph for Lidocaine is true?

A) Lidocaine is used as a local anaesthetic and a Class 1 antiarrhythmic.
B) The content of Lidocaine should be between 90.0% to 110.0%.
C) Lidocaine is highly soluble in water.
D) The identification of Lidocaine does not involve infrared absorption spectrophotometry.
E) The assay for Lidocaine involves titration with hydrochloric acid.

Answer 38

a

Question 39

Which of the following statements about the role of the BP in quality control is true?

A) The BP is used to set marketing standards for medicines.
B) The BP ensures the safety, efficacy, and quality of medicinal substances.
C) The BP is only used for herbal medicines.
D) The BP does not include any test methods.
E) The BP is not relevant to pharmaceutical manufacturing.

Answer 39

b

Question 40

Which of the following statements about the organization of the BP is false?

A) The BP is divided into multiple volumes.
B) Each volume of the BP contains monographs on different types of substances.
C) The BP includes an index for easy reference.
D) The BP does not include any appendices.
E) The BP is published annually.

Answer 40

d

Question 41

Which of the following statements about the identification methods in BP monographs is true?

A) Identification methods are not included in BP monographs.
B) Identification methods are used to confirm the identity of a medicinal substance.
C) Identification methods are only used for herbal drugs.
D) Identification methods are not legally binding.
E) Identification methods are not relevant to quality control.

Answer 41

b

Question 42

Which of the following statements about the BP monograph for Lidocaine is false?

A) The monograph includes the chemical structure of Lidocaine.
B) The monograph specifies the content range for Lidocaine.
C) The monograph does not include any methods of identification.
D) The monograph includes information on related substances.
E) The monograph specifies the assay method for Lidocaine.

Answer 42

c

Question 43

Which of the following statements about the significance of BP monographs is true?

A) BP monographs are used to set marketing strategies for pharmaceutical companies.
B) BP monographs ensure the quality and purity of medicinal substances.
C) BP monographs are not relevant to pharmaceutical manufacturing.
D) BP monographs do not include any test methods.
E) BP monographs are only used for herbal medicines.

Answer 43

b

Question 44

Which of the following statements about accuracy and precision is true?

A) Accuracy refers to the reproducibility of measurements.
B) Precision is the degree of closeness to the true value.
C) High precision means low variance or standard deviation.
D) High accuracy means high variance.
E) Precision is not important in pharmaceutical analysis.

Answer 44

C

Question 45

Which of the following statements about weighing in pharmaceutical analysis is false?

A) General purpose balances are accurate to ±0.01 g.
B) Analytical balances are accurate to ±0.0001 g.
C) Weighing by difference is a recommended method.
D) Lab coats can be used to record masses.
E) Accurate weighing is crucial for reliable results.

Answer 45

D

Question 46

Which of the following statements about volumetric flasks is true?

A) Volumetric flasks are used for approximate volume measurements.
B) Volumetric flasks should be heated to dissolve compounds.
C) The bottom of the meniscus should touch the calibration line.
D) Beakers are more accurate than volumetric flasks.
E) Volumetric flasks do not need to be calibrated.

Answer 46

C

Question 47

Which of the following statements about pipettes is false?

A) Bulb pipettes are designed to transfer exact volumes.
B) The small drop remaining in the tip should always be blown out.
C) Pipettes have markings similar to volumetric flasks.
D) Pipettes should not be heated.
E) The correct volume is dispensed when the tip touches the inside wall of the flask.

Answer 47

B

Question 48

Which of the following statements about significant figures is true?

A) Reporting values to an inappropriate level of precision is acceptable.
B) Significant figures do not affect the accuracy of results.
C) Only report significant figures for measured values, not calculated ones.
D) The number of significant figures in a measurement should match the precision of the instrument.
E) Significant figures are not important in pharmaceutical analysis.

Answer 48

D