SASP 2011 Flashcards
A 66-year-old diabetic man with peripheral neuropathy and a 25 gm palpably normal prostate has urinary frequency, urgency, and urge incontinence. He voided 300 ml with a PVR of 380 ml. Urodynamic studies reveal a maximum uroflow of 8 ml/sec, a voiding pressure of 88 cm H2O, and a bladder capacity of 850 ml with decreased bladder sensation. Cystourethroscopy reveals mild trilobar prostatic enlargement. The most effective treatment is: A: CIC. B: CIC and oxybutynin. C: neuromodulation. D: tamsulosin. E: TURP.
E: “TURP.” was the correct answer.
Typically described urodynamic findings in diabetics include: impaired bladder sensation, increased cystometric capacity, decreased bladder contractility, impaired uroflow, and later, increased residual urine. The main differential diagnosis in men is the presence or absence of bladder outlet obstruction. In this patient, urodynamic data document bladder outlet obstruction as well as probable diabetic cystopathy. Cystourethroscopy excluded urethral stricture; thus, prostatic obstruction is the likely etiology. CIC with or without medications, is an acceptable treatment but in the face of prostatic obstruction, TURP will alleviate the symptoms provided the patient does timed voiding to prevent overdistention. Neuromodulation is not indicated in a patient with bladder outlet obstruction. Given the degree of bladder outlet obstruction and the amount of residual urine, tamsulosin is unlikely to be as effective as TURP.
Placement of a ureteral stent in an unobstructed system will result in:
A: increase in ureteral contractility.
B: decrease in ureteral contractility.
C: atrophy of the ureteral mucosa.
D: atrophy of the ureteral smooth muscle.
E: decrease in intrapelvic pressure.
B: “decrease in ureteral contractility.” was the correct answer.
A number of changes occur after placement of a ureteral stent including: hyperplasia and inflammation of the urothelium, smooth muscle hypertrophy, increased intrapelvic pressure, a decrease in ureteral contractility and vesicorenal reflux. Decreased ureteral contractility does contribute to vesicorenal reflex, which may have implications in infected systems in the setting of bladder outlet obstruction.
A 25-year-old man has a thickened, indurated fat mass excised from his spermatic cord at the time of inguinal hernia repair. Final pathology reveals low grade liposarcoma with negative margins. The next step is:
A: observation.
B: inguinal orchiectomy.
C: inguinal orchiectomy and RPLND.
D: inguinal orchiectomy and hemiscrotectomy.
E: inguinal/abdominal radiation.
B: “inguinal orchiectomy.” was the correct answer.
Liposarcoma of the paratesticular structures is most often associated with the spermatic cord. it is a rare tumor that is usually well-differentiated. As with all sarcomas of the paratesticular region, inguinal orchiectomy with high ligation of the spermatic cord with inguinal orchiectomy is generally advised to minimize the chance of local recurrence. Because of the low likelihood of hematogenous or lymphatic spread in a low grade sarcoma, additional radiation or chemotherapy would not likely be necessary. This tumor has a low likelihood of complete response to primary radiotherapy and therefore it is not a reasonable option. Hemiscrotectomy is unnecessary with no violation of the scrotum.
Serum osmolality is determined by utilizing a formula which involves the sum of which three osmotically active substances in the blood: A: sodium, potassium, glucose. B: sodium, chloride, urea nitrogen. C: sodium, glucose, urea nitrogen. D: albumin, glucose, creatinine. E: albumin, globulin, urea nitrogen.
C: “sodium, glucose, urea nitrogen.” was the correct answer.
Osmolality is estimated by computing the sum of serum sodium (mEq/l) x 2, glucose (mg/dl)/18 and urea (mg/dl)/3. These three solutes are the major contributers to osmolality with creatinine, magnesium, phosphate and potassium contributing less. The chloride contribution is taken into account by doubling the sodium concentration.
A 22-year-old man involved in an MVC is evaluated for multi-system trauma. CT scan shows complete enhancement of both kidneys, a 2 cm laceration in the lower pole of the left kidney, and a left perinephric hematoma. A 3 cm splenic laceration that does not extend to the hilum is also seen. He is managed with observation. Ten days later, he develops acute abdominal pain. On physical examination, he is diaphoretic and has a rigid abdomen. His temperature is 38.5°C, pulse 120/min, and blood pressure is 90/70 mm Hg. This clinical condition is most likely due to: A: delayed sepsis. B: persistent urinary extravasation. C: delayed renal hemorrhage. D: delayed splenic hemorrhage. E: missed bowel injury.
D: “delayed splenic hemorrhage.” was the correct answer.
Associated organ injury is common in patients with renal trauma. Nonrenal trauma accounts for the majority of the morbidity and mortality that occurs in such patients. As in the case described, CT allows staging of renal injury and detection of associated organ injury. Nonoperative management of both splenic and renal injury is possible in selected patients with renal injuries associated with limited extravasation and bleeding. Development of delayed bleeding, infection, or hypertension (related to the renal injury) is unlikely. Those cases where there are nonviable renal segments are more likely to require delayed laparotomy. Although splenic lacerations may be managed nonoperatively, up to 40% of those with Type II injuries (splenic laceration not extending to hilum) may require operative intervention. Although either injury described in the case presented may require delayed laparotomy, the splenic injury is more likely. The finding of the rigid abdomen suggests an intraperitoneal process. A missed bowel injury would present within the first several days after injury.
A 24-year-old man with azoospermia and an ejaculate volume of 0.5 ml has a palpably normal left vas deferens, a nonpalpable right vas deferens, and a normal DRE. Both testes measure 30 ml. The most useful diagnostic study for infertility is: A: TRUS. B: serum testosterone. C: post-ejaculatory urinalysis. D: testicular biopsy. E: seminal fructose.
A: “TRUS.” is correct.
The differential diagnosis for low ejaculate volume azoospermia is vasal agenesis, ejaculatory duct obstruction, and ejaculatory dysfunction. The presence of unilateral vasal agenesis on physical examination strongly suggests the presence of a congenital anomaly with contralateral segmental vasal atresia. TRUS will help differentiate between a potentially treatable ejaculatory duct obstruction and, more likely, absence or hypoplasia of the contralateral seminal vesicle and ampullary vas deferens. Patients with vasal agenesis do not require either a serum FSH or testicular biopsy unless they have testicular atrophy or another historical risk factor. Seminal fructose does not help differentiate between these two disorders; it is absent in both.
A 47-year-old man has palpable right inguinal adenopathy following partial penectomy for a 4 cm T2 squamous cell cancer. Needle biopsy of a right inguinal lymph node reveals metastatic cancer. The pelvic lymph nodes are radiologically normal. The next step is:
A: antibiotic therapy and reexamination.
B: pelvic node dissection.
C: right superficial inguinal node dissection.
D: right superficial and deep, left superficial inguinal node dissection.
E: bilateral superficial and deep inguinal node dissection.
D: “right superficial and deep, left superficial inguinal node dissection.” was the correct answer.
Men with invasive penile cancer are at high risk of inguinal metastasis. Those men who present with palpable inguinal lymph nodes often have an inflammatory or infectious etiology due to poor hygiene. In these patients, two approaches can be employed. Patients can be treated with a two to four week course of antibiotic therapy to assess for resolution of lymphadenopathy. Alternatively, fine needle aspirate of suspicious nodes can be performed at presentation. If positive, this removes the need for delayed therapy due to antibiotics. Men with palpable nodes proven positive for metastatic disease should undergo superficial and deep inguinal node dissection as those with limited nodal disease are found to have up to an 80% five year disease-free survival with complete resection of nodal disease. Owing to the high rates of cure achieved with aggressive resection in limited nodal disease, many have advocated early dissection in men with invasive penile cancer and no palpable lymphadenopathy. In these men, dissection can be limited to nodes superficial to the fascia lata unless positive on evaluation. In men with palpable disease on one side, contralateral superficial dissection is mandatory owing to the high rate of lymphatic cross-over. In these cases, contralateral metastasis is noted in 50% of patients.
The best predictor of immediate graft function following living donor renal transplantation is:
A: warm ischemia time.
B: cold ischemia time.
C: renal revascularization time.
D: total ischemia time.
E: donor kidney urine output just prior to nephrectomy.
E: “donor kidney urine output just prior to nephrectomy.” was the correct answer.
While both cold (storage) and warm (anastomotic) ischemic times have important roles in determining immediate function for deceased donor renal transplant recipients, these times are negligible in living donor transplantation and rarely affect immediate graft function. The single best determinant of immediate function in live donor transplantation is the functional status of the kidney at the moment it is removed from the donor.
A 10 Fr nephrostomy tube was placed uneventfully to drain a pyonephrotic kidney. Follow-up nephrostogram reveals a 6 cm staghorn calculus. The percutaneous nephrostomy tube enters directly into the renal pelvis. At time of percutaneous nephrolithotomy, optimal access is obtained via:
A: dilating the established nephrostomy tract.
B: a new percutaneous tract - middle anterior calyx.
C: a new percutaneous tract - middle posterior calyx.
D: a new percutaneous tract - inferior anterior calyx.
E: a new percutaneous tract - inferior posterior calyx.
E: “a new percutaneous tract - inferior posterior calyx.” is correct.
Percutaneous renal access into the collecting system should be as peripheral as possible to help avoid serious hemorrhage. Direct puncture into an infundibulum or into the renal pelvis substantially increases the risk of hemorrhage. The temptation to utilize a previously placed nephrostomy tube in a suboptimal location should be abandoned. A new percutaneous access should be established. Staghorn calculi are best approached through polar access. Inferior or superior pole entry optimizes access to most of the collecting system. An interpolar puncture hinders entry into the superior or inferior calyceal groups. A posterior calyceal puncture decreases the need to torque instruments into the collecting system and helps reduce hemorrhage and eases stone extraction.
The most useful parameter to assess the malignant risk of an incidental adrenal mass is tumor: A: grade. B: histology. C: isointensity on MRI scan. D: metabolic activity. E: size.
E: “size.” was the correct answer.
Incidentally discovered adrenal masses have been reported in up to 4.4% of abdominal CT scans, most commonly in female patients between the ages of 50 and 70 years. A small minority of adrenal masses will be malignant, most often due to adrenocortical carcinoma or metastases to the adrenal gland. The primary indication for surgery is suspicion of malignancy based on size criteria, radiographic findings, or interval growth documented on follow-up imaging. The most useful parameter for assessing risk of malignancy is size; 5-6 cm is generally considered worrisome enough for surgical excision. Tumor histology and grade do not readily predict metastatic behavior. A high signal intensity ratio on T2 weighted MRI images suggests that the lesion is not a benign adenoma. Metabolic activity is common in both benign and malignant adrenal masses.
In patients with androgen-independent metastatic prostate cancer, the median improvement in overall survival of docetaxel + prednisone every three weeks compared to mitoxantrone + prednisone is: A: 2.5 months. B: 4.5 months. C: 6 months. D: 12 months. E: 18 months.
A: “2.5 months.” was the correct answer.
Docetaxel is currently the only FDA-approved agent that has been shown to prolong survival in men with androgen-independent metastatic prostate cancer. In the pivotal trial of docetaxel, patients who received an every three week administration of the drug had a median survival of 18.9 months, as opposed to a 17.3 month median survival for patients who received docetaxel on a weekly basis and 16.4 months (difference of 2.5 months) for those who received mitoxantrone. The p-value comparing docetaxel every three weeks to mitoxantrone (which does not prolong survival but improves quality of life) was p=0.009. These findings led the FDA to approve docetaxel for use in these patients.
One month after L5 laminectomy, a 30-year-old woman develops lower extremity weakness, a residual urine of 300 ml, and an intermittent urinary stream. Videourodynamics demonstrates detrusor-sphincter dyssynergia. The most likely explanation is: A: pseudodyssynergia. B: recurrent lumbar disk herniation. C: cauda equina syndrome. D: undiagnosed multiple sclerosis. E: permanent nerve injury from disk.
D: “undiagnosed multiple sclerosis.” was the correct answer.
The urodynamic finding of detrusor external sphincter dyssynergia (DESD) indicates that a suprasacral spinal lesion is present. This cannot be explained by a recurrent hernia or permanent injury to L5. The most likely supraspinal lesion in a woman this age is multiple sclerosis.
Bacterial biofilms forming on implants and foreign bodies in the urinary tract are comprised of a(an):
A: surface film of compact microorganisms.
B: conditioning film comprised of carbohydrate molecules.
C: linking film from which plank-tonic organisms can arise and spread.
D: accumulation of microorganisms and their extracellular products forming a structured community.
E: layer of mucopolysaccharide excreted by bacterial cells to protect them from WBC infiltration.
D: “accumulation of microorganisms and their extracellular products forming a structured community.” was the correct answer.
Bacterial biofilms arise from bacterial adherence and growth of bacteria on solid surfaces and foreign bodies in the urinary tract. Bacteria form biofilms in a variety of environments, particularly on implants and stents in the urinary tract. A biofilm is defined as the accumulation of microorganisms and their extracellular products to form a structured community on a surface. Factors that influence bacterial adhesion to devices include the biomaterial surface characteristics, bacterial surface features, and the presenting clinical condition.
A 25-year-old man has inadequate erections since sustaining a pelvic fracture in a MVC two years ago. After a successful urethral stricture repair, he denies any difficulty with orgasm and ejaculation. Intracavernosal injection of 15 ug of prostaglandin E1 produces a soft erection. The next step is:
A: infusion cavernosography.
B: pelvic/pudendal arteriography.
C: infusion cavernosometry.
D: intracavernosal injection of 30 ug of prostaglandin E1.
E: color Doppler study of penile arteries.
E: “color Doppler study of penile arteries.” was the correct answer.
This patient most likely has either an arterial or a neurologic injury to explain his erectile difficulty. A neurologic lesion is less likely because of his failure to respond with an erection to a reasonable dose of prostaglandin E1. Patients with neurogenic injuries frequently respond to very low doses of intracavernosal agents. The major clinical question which needs to be answered is whether or not this patient has an arterial injury. Infusion cavernosography and infusion cavernosometry are studies which demonstrate the extent and site of corporovenous leakage. Fifteen ug of prostaglandin E1 is a reasonable dose of drug to administer and increasing the dose to 30 ug would likely not produce more information. The study of choice to determine the presence of arterial disease in this clinical situation is a color Doppler study of the penile arteries before and after the intracavernosal injection of vasoactive drugs. Only after arterial disease has been diagnosed and only when operative revascularization is under consideration should pelvic/pudendal arteriography be performed.
A 19-year-old woman is treated with ampicillin for a UTI and develops a pruritic groin rash. Physical examination reveals poorly marginated, red patches on her inner thighs, inguinal folds, and labia. Satellite papules and pustules are scattered at the periphery of the inflammatory process. The most likely diagnosis is: A: fixed drug reaction. B: contact dermatitis. C: candidiasis. D: molluscum contagiosum. E: lichen planus.
C: “candidiasis.” is correct.
Infection of the crural folds with Candida albicans and other Candida species is a very common condition. In women, Candida species are normal inhabitants of the gastrointestinal tract and are commonly present asymptomatically in the vagina. With a constant source of these organisms so nearby, it is not surprising that they frequently spread to the cutaneous aspects of the groin. The hallmark of cutaneous candidiasis is that of bright red inflammation. The initial changes occur at the apex of the crural fold; subsequently, the inflammatory plaque expands in a radial fashion to all surrounding skin. Generally small pustules overlying the red plaques can be identified, and sometimes, satellite lesions are found as solitary papulopustules separate from, but adjacent to the larger primary plaque. The degree to which pruritus is present varies greatly, but itching can be quite severe at times. A clinical diagnosis can be confirmed by culture. Alternatively, a KOH examination is useful if intact pustules are present. Fixed drug eruptions are typically circular hyperpigmented lesions. Contact dermatitis would not be expected to be bilateral. Molluscum contagiosum occurs primarily in children and has a different appearance, although a sexually transmitted form exists. Lichen planus has violacious flat topped papules and small white lesions on the genitalia.
A 63-year-old woman has lethargy and joint pain four years following sigmoid neobladder creation. Serum studies reveal bicarbonate 20 mEq/l, calcium 9.1 mg/dl, alkaline phosphatase 249 U/l, hematocrit of 34%. The next step is: A: oral calcium and Vitamin D. B: oral magnesium and Vitamin D. C: oral calcium and potassium citrate. D: intramuscular Vitamin B12. E: oral bisphosphonate.
C: “oral calcium and potassium citrate.” is correct.
Osteomalacia occurs when mineralized bone is reduced and the osteoid component becomes excessive. Osteomalacia has been reported in patients with all forms of urinary diversion but is most common in colonic continent diversion and especially in postmenopausal women. The metabolic acidosis is buffered by the bone with release of bone calcium. Correction of acidosis and calcium supplementation will result in symptomatic relief and restoration of bone density. Major alterations in serum bicarbonate are not usually present and calcium is usually low normal. Patients who develop osteomalacia generally complain of lethargy; joint pain, especially in the weight-bearing joints; and proximal myopathy. The alkaline phosphatase level is elevated. Although bisphosphonates will decrease bone resorption they do not address the root cause of the problem. Vitamin B12 deficiency is not seen in colonic urinary diversion.
The most appropriate perioperative management of a patient undergoing adrenalectomy for Cushing’s syndrome is:
A: hydration, alpha-blockers, and stress-dose steroids.
B: beta-blockers, stress-dose steroids and careful glycemic control.
C: potassium sparing diuretics and stress-dose steroids.
D: stress-dose steroids and careful glycemic control.
E: potassium sparing diuretics, stress-dose steroids, and careful glycemic control.
D: “stress-dose steroids and careful glycemic control.” was the correct answer.
Patients undergoing adrenalectomy for Cushing’s syndrome have an excess of corticosteroids from an adrenal adenoma or carcinoma. These patients need stress-dose steroids and careful glycemic control as they often have obesity and diabetes. Alpha-blockers and hydration are indicated perioperatively for patients with pheochromocytoma. Beta-blockers may also be necessary preoperatively for patients with pheochromocytoma if they are tachycardic after alpha-blockade. Potassium sparing diuretics are important for the perioperative management of patients with hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s disease) as they often have significant hypokalemia.
In chronic ureteral obstruction, the glomerular filtrate exits the renal pelvis primarily by: A: pyelosinus backflow. B: pyelolymphatic backflow. C: extravasation from the renal pelvis. D: reabsorption from renal pelvis. E: pyelovenous backflow.
E: “pyelovenous backflow.” was the correct answer.
Following acute ureteral obstruction, the renal pelvic pressure is initially elevated but gradually returns to normal. Glomerular filtrate exits the renal pelvis by extravasation into the perirenal spaces, pyelolymphatic backflow and pyelovenous backflow. It is believed that 80-90 percent of the filtrate in chronic hydronephrosis is reabsorbed in the tubules and exits via the renal veins.
A 47-year-old uncircumcised married man is diagnosed with high grade Ta squamous cell carcinoma of the foreskin. His wife should undergo: A: observation. B: HPV vaccination. C: Pap smear. D: imiquimod therapy. E: cervix biopsy.
C: “Pap smear.” was the correct answer.
HPV infection is associated with the development of penile cancer. Wives or ex-wives of men with penile cancer have a threefold higher risk of cervical carcinoma. The male partners of women with cervical intraepithelial neoplasia have a significantly higher incidence of penile intraepithelial neoplasia. Therefore, screening with Pap smear and pelvic exam is prudent in this setting. HPV vaccination is inappropriate because it is only effective prior to exposure. More aggressive therapy such as biopsy or topical therapy is inappropriate unless a diagnosis of cervix cancer is suspected on physical exam and Pap smear.
A 36-year-old woman with cerebral palsy on CIC develops urgency, incontinence with severe perineal skin ulceration. Urodynamics show a 200 ml capacity bladder with overactive contractions and no stress urinary incontinence. She has failed antimuscarinics. Due to her body habitus, CIC is difficult per urethra. The best management is:
A: detrusor myomectomy.
B: ileal conduit.
C: Indiana pouch.
D: bladder augmentation with catheterizable abdominal channel.
E: bladder augmentation with fascial sling.
D: “bladder augmentation with catheterizable abdominal channel.” was the correct answer.
Bladder augmentation represents the best solution to this complex problem; however, this will commit the patient to CIC. In selected circumstances such as this, a continent catheterizable abdominal channel in conjunction with a bladder augmentation is appropriate. The urethral sphincter is intact in this patient as evidenced by a very high abdominal leak pressure. In a patient desiring a continent solution, an ileal conduit would not be indicated. Use of an Indiana pouch would require ureteral-enteric reanastomosis and a small but definitive risk for upper tract obstruction at the anastamosis. Detrusor myomectomy has not been shown to improve capacity long-term.
A 47-year-old man with relapsing remitting multiple sclerosis has severe urinary frequency and incontinence. He has been treated with tamsulosin for six months with no improvement in his symptoms. Examination reveals a 40 gm smooth prostate. CMG, pressure-flow study is shown. The next step is: A: renal ultrasound. B: videourodynamics. C: MRI scan of the spine. D: TRUS. E: cystoscopy.
A: “renal ultrasound.” was the correct answer.
This urodynamic study documents neurogenic detrusor overactivity and detrusor external sphincter dyssynergia in a patient with MS. Videourodynamics would be redundant and unnecessary. Male MS patients with detrusor sphincter dyssynergia appear to be at greatest risk for urological complications including upper tract deterioration. The upper tracts must be assessed early in a male patient with dyssynergia. Cystoscopy is unlikely to influence treatment planning, and would not be the most appropriate first step. MRI scan of the spine would be indicated in the scenario of unknown pre-existing neurogenic disease, but is unnecessary with a diagnosis of MS. A TRUS would be unnecessary as a TURP would not be recommended treatment in the scenario of neurogenic voiding dysfunction.
A four-year-old boy with a PUV has a vesicostomy. Serum creatinine is 0.6 mg/dl. Ultrasound shows minimal hydronephrosis. Videourodynamics show a bladder capacity of 30 cc with a pressure of 14 cm H2O when leakage occurs from the vesicostomy with no reflux. Undiversion is considered. The best management is resection of the posterior urethral valves and:
A: ileal augmentation cystoplasty.
B: ileal augmentation with appendicovesicostomy.
C: bladder cycling via the vesicostomy.
D: primary closure of the vesicostomy.
E: autoaugmentation cystoplasty.
D: “primary closure of the vesicostomy.” was the correct answer.
There was at one time concern that a cutaneous vesicostomy caused permanent loss of bladder volume and compliance. However, recent studies show that it does not significantly affect either. Preoperative videourodynamics showing a small bladder capacity do not predict eventual functional bladder capacity. Approximately 75% of children will have normal bladder function after vesicostomy closure. The need for bladder augmentation is more related to the effects of the primary pathological condition on the detrusor. Augmentation cystoplasty is rarely needed after undiversion in patients with a PUV. The eventual need for augmentation should be assessed with sequential follow-up after the vesicostomy has been closed.
A 28-year-old man with Kallmann's syndrome is treated with hCG and FSH injections over two years. His serum testosterone and FSH levels are normal. His semen volume is 1.0 ml, sperm count is six million sperm/ml, and sperm motility is 90%. Well-timed sexual intercourse has not resulted in pregnancy for his wife, whose evaluation is normal. The next step is: A: intrauterine insemination. B: color Doppler scrotal ultrasound. C: ICSI. D: transrectal ultrasound. E: testis biopsy.
A: "intrauterine insemination." was the correct answer. Intrauterine insemination (IUI) is a highly effective treatment for men with normal semen parameters, especially normal sperm motility. IUI involves placing processed sperm via a catheter inserted through the cervix into the uterine cavity. This bypasses cervical mucous and higher numbers of motile sperm will be able to reach the fallopian tubes. Semen volume and sperm production is limited in men with Kallman's syndrome, because prostate, seminal vesicle and testicular size are affected. However, sperm quality tends to be completely normal. In vitro fertilization is not required at this point, and ICSI is unnecessary. Testis biopsy will not be helpful since the patient is not azoospermic. TRUS is useful to evaluate ejaculatory duct obstruction which is usually associated with azoospermia. It is not associated with Kallmann's syndrome.
A 74-year-old man has a 2 cm lower pole renal mass that enhances on CT scan. His medical history includes hypertension, congestive heart failure, and renal insufficiency with a creatinine of 1.8 mg/dl. The next step is:
A: renal mass biopsy. B: cryoablation. C: radiofrequency ablation. D: partial nephrectomy. E: radical nephrectomy.
A: “renal mass biopsy.” is correct.
Renal mass biopsy should now be considered in select patients with small renal masses to help stratify oncologic risk and offer the optimal treatment intervention. Most studies suggest that biopsy has an accuracy of over 90% in distinguishing benign vs. malignant histology and an associated 70-80% accuracy in assessing tumor histology and grade. Needle tract seeding is exceedingly rare. This patient has comorbidities that might encourage surveillance of his small renal mass, but a minimally invasive treatment would also be appropriate for an aggressive histology given the favorable tumor size and location. Knowing the histology could assist in counseling this patient, particularly since ~20% of small renal masses are benign. Radical nephrectomy would be inappropriate in treating a small exophytic lesion in a patient with renal insufficiency. Given the patient comorbidity and the potential morbidity of partial nephrectomy, a less invasive approach is favored in this setting. This patient is also a reasonable candidate for observation.