SASP 2010 (2) Flashcards
A 38-year-old woman with stress urinary incontinence and recurrent UTIs undergoes urethral diverticulectomy. One month following removal of the catheter, she has constant dribbling incontinence. Examination reveals a 5 mm urethrovaginal fistula in the proximal urethra. The next step is:
A: topical estrogen therapy and suprapubic cystostomy.
B: place urethral catheter and obtain VCUG in three to six weeks.
C: transurethral fulguration of the fistula tract and placement of a urethral catheter.
D: urethrovaginal fistula repair.
E: urethrovaginal fistula repair and midurethral polypropylene sling.
D: “urethrovaginal fistula repair.” was the correct answer.
Proximal urethrovaginal fistulae may present with constant dribbling incontinence. A large (5 mm) urethrovaginal fistula is unlikely to close with urinary drainage or fulguration. The safety of synthetic materials is not established in the setting of urinary fistula or prior urethral diverticulectomy. Surgical repair of the fistula should be undertaken two to three months post-operatively, and re-evaluation of the SUI done once the fistula is repaired. Long term indwelling urethral catheter is not recommended due to the development of chronic bacteruria and chronic inflammation.
The vessel at greatest risk for injury during laparoscopic placement of an umbilical trocar is the:
A: right common iliac vein. B: vena cava. C: abdominal aorta. D: right common iliac artery. E: inferior mesenteric artery.
D: “right common iliac artery.” was the correct answer.
Major vascular injury is a rare but serious complication that occurs in 0.11-2% of cases. The right common iliac artery lies close to the mid-line at the inferior umbilicus. Therefore, with placement of an umbilical trocar, the right common iliac artery is the most commonly injured vessel, followed by the aorta. In contrast, the IVC is less frequently involved because of its lateral location in relation to the aorta. The common iliac veins are rarely involved given their posterior location in relation to the common iliac arteries.
A 71-year-old man with a history of aortoiliac reconstruction has left flank pain. A noncontrast CT scan reveals obstruction of the left ureter at the pelvic brim. The most likely cause of the obstruction is:
A: compression from an anteriorly placed graft. B: pseudoaneurysm formation. C: retroperitoneal fibrosis. D: ligation of the ureter. E: ischemia of the ureter.
C: “retroperitoneal fibrosis.” was the correct answer.
Ureteral obstruction is a recognized complication of reconstructive vascular procedures. The incidence of temporary, asymptomatic hydronephrosis is 12-30%, and mild or moderate permanent ureteral obstruction is seen in 2-14% of patients. Most patients develop ureteral obstruction within one year following the procedure; however, delays up to 14 years have been reported. Retroperitoneal fibrosis secondary to the surgical procedure is the most common cause of ureteral obstruction and is believed to be secondary to bleeding or excessive periureteral dissection. The other choices are all causes of obstruction, but not the most common.
Renal ultrasound reveals an echogenic mass with speed-propagation artifact. The most likely diagnosis is:
A: simple renal cyst. B: acute focal pyelonephritis (lobar nephronia). C: intrarenal abscess. D: angiomyolipoma. E: RCC.
D: “angiomyolipoma.” was the correct answer.
Ultrasonography is a very useful imaging modality for distinguishing kidney masses. Specifically, it is able to use the acoustic properties of the renal parenchyma to aid in diagnosis. The presence of an echogenic mass immediately eliminates the diagnosis of simple cyst, as these are usually echo-free. In addition, while lobar nephronia may appear like a mass on ultrasound, it is usually echo-poor or echo-free as well. RCCs, intrarenal abscesses and angiomyolipoma all may be echogenic. Angiomyolipomas are usually echogenic, while RCCs and intrarenal abscesses have variable echogenicity. The key here is the speed-propagation artifact, which is due to the presence of fat in the tumor. In this case, the speed of sound in the fat is significantly slower than that in the soft tissue, which causes the unique artifact that confirms the diagnosis of angiomyolipoma.
Vascular reconstruction is recommended in hypertensive patients with:
A: bilateral medial fibroplasia.
B: bilateral ostial atherosclerotic lesions and poorly controlled hypertension on two medications.
C: unilateral 85% renal artery stenosis and a serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl.
D: bilateral 70% renal artery stenosis and a serum creatinine of 4.5 mg/dl.
E: bilateral 80% renal artery stenosis and serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dl.
E: “bilateral 80% renal artery stenosis and serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dl.” was the correct answer.
Re-vascularization is typically recommended in renal artery stenosis when > 75% occlusions occur either bilaterally or in a solitary single kidney. With severe renal loss (serum creatinine > 4 mg/dl), the likelihood of renal recovery is substantially reduced and revascularization is not recommended. Atherosclerotic renal vascular hypertension should be treated medically, typically with at least three medications before resorting to revascularization. Medial fibroplasia typically is not progressive and revascularization for this process is rare.
A 35-year-old man with new onset hypertension has a serum K+ of 2.9 mEq/l, a serum aldosterone of 80 ng/dl (normal 2-9 ng/dl) and a low peripheral renin level. An abdominal CT scan shows no adrenal masses. Adrenal venous localization studies show aldosterone levels of 6000 ng/dl and 8 ng/dl from the left and right, respectively. The next step is:
A: MIBG scan. B: MRI scan with T2 weighted images. C: left adrenalectomy. D: ACE inhibitor and K+ supplement. E: spironolactone.
E: “spironolactone.” was the correct answer.
Hypokalemia, an elevated serum aldosterone level and a normal peripheral renin level suggest primary hyperaldosteronism. The CT shows no adrenal mass suggesting adrenal hyperplasia. An MRI with T2 weighted images is useful in cases of a pheochromocytoma but this is not suggested by the biochemical data. An MIBG scan lacks sensitivity. Venous localization studies are most useful in this case. Venous localization studies demonstrate convincingly the pathology is from the left adrenal, suggesting unilateral hyperplasia. Spironolactone would be the first treatment. If the hypertension and hyperkalemia are not corrected, a left adrenalectomy would be indicated.
The inferior mesenteric artery is ligated during a RPLND for testis cancer. Blood supply to the sigmoid colon is now derived from which artery:
A: right colic. B: superior hemorrhoidal. C: middle hemorrhoidal. D: sigmoid. E: middle sacral.
C: “middle hemorrhoidal.” is correct.
The main arterial supply of the sigmoid colon is from the sigmoid and superior hemorrhoidal branches of the inferior mesenteric artery (IMA). The major collateral vessels are the middle and inferior hemorrhoidal arteries which arise from the internal iliac artery. They anastomose freely with the superior hemorrhoidal branches. It is distributed to the rectum, anastomosing with the inferior vesical artery, superior rectal artery, and inferior rectal artery. The right colic artery arises from the superior mesenteric artery and does not have collaterals to the distal colon. The superior hemorrhoidal arteries and sigmoid arteries are continuations of the IMA and is filled retrograde when the IMA is ligated. The middle sacral artery arises from the back of the aorta and gives some blood supply to the rectum.
A 75-year-old man is scheduled to undergo cataract surgery. He is currently taking tamsulosin, doxazosin, and metoprolol. The medication(s) associated with intra-operative floppy iris syndrome is/are:
A: tamsulosin. B: doxazosin. C: metoprolol. D: tamsulosin and doxazosin. E: tamsulosin and metoprolol.
D: “tamsulosin and doxazosin.” is correct.
While tamsulosin had been the most widely publicized alpha-1a blocker to be associated with intra-operative floppy iris syndrome (IFIS) during cataract surgery, other alpha-blockers have as well (including super-selective and less selective agents). Although not eliminating the risk of IFIS, discontinuing these medications one to two weeks prior to surgery lowers the incidence.
A 35-year-old Cushingoid woman undergoes left adrenalectomy for a small adrenal adenoma. Postoperative cortisol levels remain high. Her serum ACTH is low and an MRI scan of the brain is normal. The best therapy is:
A: aminoglutethimide. B: right adrenalectomy. C: ketoconazole. D: ortho-para DDD. E: metyrapone.
E: “metyrapone.” is correct.
Excess circulating glucocorticoids may be due to adrenal adenoma or carcinoma, or to ectopic secretion of ACTH or CRH. This patient has no evidence of Cushing’s disease or ACTH dependent disease. She most likely has a contralateral adrenal source and glucocorticoid suppression with metyrapone is the most appropriate next step. Agents include aminoglutethimide, which blocks the conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone; metyrapone, which blocks the conversion of 11-desoxycortisol to cortisone. Patients given aminoglutethimide are prone to develop adrenocortical insufficiency because aldosterone production is also impaired. Metyrapone does not normally result in salt wasting because of increased production of desoxycorticosterone, a potent mineralocorticoid. A right adrenalectomy in a patient with a solitary adrenal gland would commit the patient to lifelong steroid replacement.
A four-year-old boy is undergoing salvage cystoprostatectomy for rhabdomyosarcoma after failing chemotherapy and XRT. The best urinary diversion is:
A: ileal loop. B: Kock pouch. C: ileocolonic pouch. D: sigmoid conduit. E: transverse colon conduit.
E: “transverse colon conduit.” is correct.
In patients with prostatic rhabdomyosarcoma who have failed chemotherapy and XRT, the best form of diversion, with the lowest complication rate is a transverse colon conduit. Once the patient has completed additional chemotherapy and no recurrence of malignancy has occurred for a minimum of two years, conversion to a continent urinary diversion can be considered.
A 27-year-old quadriplegic woman has urinary incontinence. Videourodynamics reveal a detrusor LPP of 65 cm H2O at 100 ml without VUR. Abdominal LPP is 105 cm H2O. The best management is:
A: indwelling urethral catheter.
B: intradetrusor botulinum toxin injection.
C: ileovesicostomy.
D: augmentation cystoplasty and pubovaginal fascial sling.
E: appendicovesicostomy and augmentation cystoplasty.
C: “ileovesicostomy.” is correct.
This patient has dangerously elevated intravesical pressures and a continuously draining ileovesicostomy will permit low pressure bladder emptying. An indwelling catheter has the risk of UTI, stones, cancer and urethral erosion. The incompetent outlet of the ileovesicostomy acts as a “pop off” as the bladder fills and therefore the intravesical pressure will remain safe. Bladder neck fascial sling is not necessary as it is unlikely that this individual will have stress incontinence per urethra given her high abdominal LPP and her limited mobility. She is a quadriplegic and catheterization following augmentation cystoplasty through an abdominal stoma or her urethra increases her risks, dependence on a caretaker, and is not practical.
A 50-year-old woman undergoes radical nephrectomy. Pathology reveals collecting duct carcinoma with invasion of the perinephric fat and microscopic involvement of one hilar node. Her metastatic evaluation is otherwise negative. The next step is:
A: observation. B: XRT to the flank. C: cisplatin and 5-FU. D: tyrosine kinase inhibitor. E: M-VAC chemotherapy.
A: “observation.” was the correct answer.
Collecting duct carcinoma is an unusual and aggressive type of renal tumor. While this patient is at risk for disease recurrence and progression, she is at this time without evidence of disease and no further therapy is indicated. There are no data that demonstrate efficacy of any form of adjuvant therapy.
A 50-year-old man who underwent radical cystoprostatectomy and orthotopic bladder reconstruction five years ago develops congestive heart failure. The best treatment for his persistent hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis is:
A: furosemide. B: citric acid and sodium citrate. C: sodium bicarbonate. D: chlorpromazine. E: potassium citrate.
D: “chlorpromazine.” was the correct answer.
The treatment of hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis requires administration of alkalinizing agents or blockers of chloride transport. In patients in whom excessive sodium loads are undesirable, nicotinic acid or chlorpromazine may be administered to control the acidosis. Nicotinic acid and chlorpromazine inhibit cyclic AMP and thereby impede chloride transport. Furosemide will not correct the metabolic acidosis. Bicitra, sodium bicarbonate, and Polycitra all contain significant amounts of sodium which could potentiate the congestive heart failure.
The chemotherapeutic agent most likely to be associated with increased toxicity because of reabsorption from an ileal neobladder is:
A: methotrexate. B: gemcitabine. C: vincristine. D: doxorubicin. E: cisplatin.
A: “methotrexate.” is correct.
Toxic metabolic effects secondary to drug reabsorption of methotrexate from intestinal mucosa used in urinary tract reconstruction can occur. Vigorous hydration, alkalinization of the urine, and catheter drainage can prevent this complication. The other agents given do not display a significantly increased toxicity because of intestinal reabsorption. Methotrexate is the smallest molecule of those listed, and therefore most likely to be absorbed.
A 12-year-old boy complains of intermittent right scrotal pain two weeks after being kicked in the groin. Both physical examination of the scrotal contents and urinalysis during an episode of pain are normal. Doppler ultrasound of the testis demonstrates normal flow, and a 5 mm subtunical cystic lesion in the lower pole of the right testes without internal echoes or calcification. The next step is:
A: radical orchiectomy.
B: scrotal exploration and biopsy of the lower pole lesion.
C: repeat physical examination and urinalysis in three months.
D: repeat ultrasound in three months.
E: bilateral orchiopexy.
D: “repeat ultrasound in three months.” is correct.
The questions for this peripubertal boy with intermittent testicular pain are whether he has intermittent torsion and whether the lesion in the testis requires excision. With a normal physical examination; i.e., no horizontal lie to the testis, it is difficult to diagnose intermittent torsion especially since the problem has been evident for only two weeks. The lesion in the right testis is clearly a cyst by ultrasound and treatment for this would be observation with follow-up ultrasound in three months. True simple cysts of the testis are usually non-palpable, usually subtunical near the mediastinum of the testis, and rarely change on follow-up ultrasound. Complex cysts or cysts with calcification tend to be more associated with malignancy and require more aggressive management.
A 62-year-old man with bothersome LUTS has an AUA Symptom Score of 26, despite an adequate trial of an alpha-blocker and finasteride. DRE reveals a 40 gm benign prostate. PSA six months ago was 2.3 ng/ml. Prior to KTP laser prostatectomy, the next step is:
A: urinalysis. B: repeat PSA. C: uroflowmetry D: cystoscopy. E: pressure flow urodynamics.
A: “urinalysis.” was the correct answer.
The only recommended test prior to surgery, beyond those already mentioned, is a urinalysis. A positive urinalysis may trigger other testing. PSA was normal within the last year and need not be repeated. Cystoscopy, uroflowmetry, and postvoid residual testing are all optional. Cystoscopy may be appropriate if the size of the prostate is in doubt, particularly if it may be too large for endoscopic management. Uroflowmetry, although not specific, may be a reasonable indicator of bladder outlet obstruction. Pressure flow testing is the best assessment for outlet obstruction but is costly, invasive, and not recommended routinely unless the diagnosis is in doubt - for example, younger men with small prostates and severe LUTS, or if there is concern for neurogenic detrusor dysfunction.
Deletions or mutations on chromosome 3 are most common in which histologic subtype of RCC:
A: clear cell. B: chromophobe. C: collecting duct. D: medullary cell. E: papillary.
A: “clear cell.” was the correct answer.
Genetic alterations on chromosome 3 are common in the clear cell variant of RCC but are uncommonly found in the other histologic variants, suggesting distinct pathways to tumorigenesis. The VHL tumor suppressor gene located at chromosomal locus 3p25 is mutated in approximately 50% of clear cell type RCC. The mutations of this gene result in decreased expression of hypoxia inducible factor 1 (HIF1) and increased expression of vascular endothelial growth factor 1 (VEGF1), thereby resulting in increased angiogenesis.
A four-year-old boy has renal failure due to membrano-proliferative glomerulonephritis. He has undergone a bilateral orchiopexy and proximal hypospadias repair as an infant. He is at greatest risk for development of:
A: gonadoblastoma. B: NSGCT. C: Sertoli cell tumor. D: Wilms' tumor. E: RCC.
D: “Wilms’ tumor.” was the correct answer.
A number of recognizable syndromes are associated with an increased incidence of Wilms’ tumor. Three syndromes that are well known to be at high risk for Wilms’ tumor development include Denys-Drash syndrome (male pseudohermaphroditism manifested by proximal hypospadias and cryptorchidism, membrano-proliferative glomerulonephritis, and nephroblastoma), Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome (macroglossia, nephromegaly, hepatomegaly) and WAGR syndrome (Wilms’ tumor, aniridia, gonadoblastoma, and mental retardation. In patients with Denys Drash syndrome, the kidneys need to be monitored carefully and removed as renal failure occurs.
The urodynamic finding most predictive of new onset hydronephrosis in a 32-year-old T10 spinal cord injured man managed with antimuscarinic medication and CIC is:
A: bladder compliance 100 cm H2O.
C: detrusor LPP 100 cm H2O.
E: detrusor areflexia at bladder capacity.
A: “bladder compliance 12. Patients with decreased bladder compliance are at great risk for development of upper tract deterioration. The amplitude of phasic involuntary bladder contractions is of little prognostic value due to their transient nature. Detrusor LPP of > 40 cm H2O is a risk factor for upper tract deterioration however it is not as significant as poor bladder compliance. Neither detrusor areflexia nor increased urethral closure pressures are independent risk factors for hydronephrosis unless associated with elevated storage pressures.
A 38-year-old man has diarrhea and loses two liters of isotonic fluid. He drinks two liters of water for fluid replacement. These fluid shifts result in:
A: decreased renin secretion.
B: decreased aldosterone secretion.
C: two liters of water added to the extracellular fluid.
D: decreased ADH secretion.
E: water moving from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid.
D: “decreased ADH secretion.” was the correct answer.
The entire two liters of isotonic fluid are lost from the extracellular fluid (ECF). Since the loss is isotonic, the osmolality of the ECF did not change and no water moved out of the cells. The two liters of ingested pure water are distributed throughout the entire body water compartment; one-third remains in the ECF, and two-thirds move into the cells. The addition of pure water lowers the osmolality. Even though the decreased ECF volume would stimulate ADH secretion, the reduced osmolality would inhibit it via the hypothalamic osmoreceptors. Osmoreceptor input usually predominates during such “conflicts” unless the ECF volume depletion is very large. Renin and aldosterone secretions would increase because of the decreased ECF volume.
A patient complains of lack of erectile efficacy with 20 mg of tadalafil. He has used it six times and always takes it with dinner. The next step in treatment is:
A: continue 20 mg of tadalafil. B: take on an empty stomach. C: increase the dose of tadalafil. D: change to vardenafil. E: change to intracorporal alprostadil.
E: “change to intracorporal alprostadil.” was the correct answer.
The pharmacokinetic profile of the PDE5 inhibitors differs mainly in terms of the half life, with tadalafil having a significantly longer half life (17.5 hours) than vardenafil or sildenafil (4-6 hours). The other principle difference is in absorption with a concomitant fatty meal. Both vardenafil and sildenafil have decreased absorption with a high fat meal while the absorption of tadalafil is not affected by food consumption. Many studies show that at least four to six attempts may be needed to demonstrate that a patient will respond to PDE5 inhibitors. This patient has had an adequate trial of tadalafil and taking it on an empty stomach would not improve its efficacy. He has already been given the maximum FDA approved dose of tadalafil and increasing his dose will only increase the incidence of side effects. No level one evidence exists that switching PDE5 inhibitors will improve efficacy. Initiating treatment with intracorporal alprostadil would be a reasonable next step to efficaciously treat his erectile dysfunction.
A 22-year-old man treated with bleomycin, etoposide, and cis-platinum for a Stage II mixed germ cell tumor of the testis has a residual abdominal mass. Preoperative pulmonary function testing discloses a mild reduction in forced vital capacity. The most important factor in minimizing the risk of post-operative pulmonary problems after RPLND is limitation of:
A: inspired oxygen concentration. B: the extent of resection. C: perioperative steroids. D: I.V. fluids. E: the length of the incision.
D: “I.V. fluids.” was the correct answer.
Current literature has challenged the classical teaching that oxygen exposure increases the likelihood of pulmonary toxicity in patients treated with bleomycin. In this study the factors associated with postoperative pulmonary problems were positive fluid balance, amount of blood transfused, surgical time, estimated blood loss, and forced vital capacity, while the fraction of inspired oxygen was not a predictor of adverse outcome. Avoiding overhydration was the most important factor in limiting pulmonary problems.
The most significant difference between ureteroscopy and SWL in the treatment of a 1 cm lower pole kidney stone is:
A: stone free rate. B: need for stenting. C: length of stay. D: postoperative complication rate. E: return to work.
E: “return to work.” was the correct answer.
One study identified the major difference between SWL and ureteroscopy for lower pole stones was return to work, specifically 3.3 days following SWL compared to 8.5 days following ureteroscopy. Although SWL arguably provides acceptable first line therapy for stones 1 cm or less based on the initial randomized trial, ureteroscopy has been touted as a promising alternative that can improve the stone free rate with little additional morbidity over SWL. However, in this small trial investigators were unable to validate the hypothesis that ureteroscopy was superior to SWL. The stone free rate after ureteroscopy and SWL for lower pole stones of less than or equal to 1 cm was remarkably low and not statistically different between the two modalities. While the results of the study support that either SWL or ureteroscopy may be used in this situation, practitioners and patients must be cognizant of the limitations of treatment modalities that rely on spontaneous fragment passage to achieve a stone-free state.
Compensatory renal growth in a child with a multicystic dysplastic kidney is most likely completed by:
A: first trimester. B: birth. C: age two. D: adolescence. E: one year after the multicystic dysplastic kidney is removed.
C: “age two.” was the correct answer.
Although the kidney contralateral to a multicystic dysplastic kidney does exhibit compensatory hypertrophy at birth, this occurs rapidly after birth, and by age two years, the hypertrophied kidney exhibits a GFR significantly greater than one normal sized kidney. This is not correlated with the removal of the multicystic kidney. Studies have demonstrated that compensatory renal growth can begin prenatally. Because the placenta provides the excretory function for the fetus, an increased excretory burden on the kidney is not required to initiate compensatory growth. Rather, alterations in growth factors or inhibitors presumably modulate the prenatal changes. Compensatory increase in renal mass in the adult is largely due to cellular hypertrophy. Neonatal glomerular hypertrophy results also from increased glomerular basement membrane surface area and proliferation of mesangial matrix.