Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

1_AeroCourse > SARON Specific Questions > Flashcards

SARON Specific Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Time of useful consciousness at 40,000 feet?

A

15-30secs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Airspeed drops to zero in climb, what happened?

A

Pitot blocked but pitot drain is clear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many NM can you fly over water without lift preserver?

A

Max 50nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What might a pilot do if they are successful in a risky situation?

A

They tend to discount the bad condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The speed for the critical engine failure is?

A

V1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ATPL medical expired yesterday, your license will change to…

A

PPL License

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Buffet boundary limits

A

0.744-0.800 MACH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The max wind for the CRFI is _____.

A

20 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Carbon Monoxide fact - You need several days to recover from C02 poisoning.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Type II and Type IV de-icing fluid requirement?

A

Restricted for aircraft Rotate Speed ≧ 100kts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define hold over time of deicing fluids.

A

Holdover time is calculated as beginning at the start of the final application of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and as expiring when the fluid is no longer effective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the Mach meter calculate?

A

The ratio between aircraft speed (TAS) to local sound speed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Under SVFR, whose responsibility is it to avoid an obstacle?

A

The Pilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ATC clearance and instruction for（）is based on: “Known aircraft only”

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cockpit safety belt rules?​​

A
  • At least one pilot should have it on during flight.
  • Shoulder harnesses on below 10,000’
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Can you take off with fuel gauges broken?

A

Yes, you can take-off providing you have company Operation Manual and MEL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Compression sickness.

A

Nitrogen gas form in tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A/C in high control airspace with CODE: 2000 and mode C.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

At an uncontrolled airport with no ground station, what frequency should you use?

A

ATF 123.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Take-off run distance + Stop way = _________.

A

ASDA ( Accelerate-stop distance available).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

We should file a flight plan in the Arctic Area above _____.

A

FL270 (controlled)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When holding short, a large A/C overshoots, tower then reports you’re cleared for take off. What do you do?

A

Delay take off, tell ATC why can’t accept.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Max holding speed for a turbojet at FL190

A

265kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the Max speed when A/C below 3000 AGL within 10 NM of a towered airport?

A

200kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Flight duty time: after 2 consecutive days of 14hr duty, can you accept another 14hr duty?

A

Yes, if 24hr rest following that.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Class C control zone changes to _____ when the tower is not operational.

A

Class E Controlled Airspace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

CARs require that pilot should carry - A copy of the Company Operational Manual

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Take off and landing in a built up area is only allowed at?

A

Airport, heliport or a military aerodrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In a turbofan - All or part of the fan air bypass compressor mixed with exhaust.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Thunderstorm Avoidance Distances

A
  • 5nm - when flying below the freezing level
  • 10nm - when flying above the freezing level
  • 20nm - when TS is reported to be severe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the classifications of a Large Aircraft?

A

5,700kg / 12,566 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What affect does the black whole illusion have on an approach?

A

Approach Low.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Smokers are more prone to Hypoxia, because….

A

CO2 stops O² from getting in the blood (do not choose “all of the above”).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The time for IFR protection in the event of a com failure is _____.

A

30 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the night takeoff and landing requirements to take passengers at night?

A

5 T/O and LDG in last 6 Months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

T/O and LDG requirements to be a crew member on an aircraft?

A

3 T/O and LDG in 90 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is an advantage of the thunderstorm detector

A

Can get detect weather on the other side of mountainous areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

High altitude training is needed for what altitudes?

A

Above 13,000 ASL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

An aircraft without an Altitude Alert System can do the following flights.

A
  • Training flight
  • Test flight
  • PPC
  • Delivery for maintenance flight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Flight in Class F Advisory Airspace

A

There are no specific restrictions that apply to the use of class F advisory airspace. VFR aircraft are, however, encouraged to avoid flight in advisory airspace unless participating in the activity taking place therein. If necessary, pilots of non- participating flights may enter advisory areas at their own discretion; however, due to the nature of the aerial activity, extra vigilance is recommended. Pilots of participating aircraft, as well as pilots flying through the area, are equally responsible for collision avoidance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

An external flight control lock for an A/C must have…

A

An unmistakable warning to the pilot that control lock is engaged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The purpose of compressor bleed is…

A

to prevent compress stall or surge at LOW RPM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the anti-skid used for?

A

When speed decelerate rapidly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When an approach involves a headwind to a calm-wind shear, the pilot should…

A

Increase power as the shear is encountered, then reduce.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

An ATPL licensed pilot can be PIC for any aircraft providing the pilot has…

A

Instrument rating and endorsement for the type of aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is V2 speed?

A

Take off safety speed of multi-engine aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A CPL pilot wants to do his X/C flight, he has strong intention to do VFR, what’s going to happen?

A

He will just consider the good weather that supports the flight and ignore the bad weather.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What’s the effect of frost formed on the wing, 0.10-0.15 inch?

A

No significant effect to the lift but significant effect on the climb performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When can you use a phone in flight?

A

com failure with no other way to communicate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What’s the reporting procedure for IFR into an uncontrolled airport in uncontrolled airspace?

A

Report 5mins before commencing the approach.

52
Q

IFR to uncontrolled airport in uncontrolled airspace, broadcast on 126.7 before change into MF

A
53
Q

When conducting an approach at an uncontrolled airport, you need to inform ATC of the type of approach, the landing runway and _______.

A

your course to the IAF

54
Q

IFR flight plan in day VFR conditions experiences a com failure.

A

Continue in VFR flight and land at the nearest suitable airport.

55
Q

What type of flight plan is required for a flight from Canada to Mexico?

A

An International Flight Plan

56
Q

Aircraft registered in a foreign state that want to operate in Canada must do so in accordance with the laws of that foreign state

A
57
Q

Where an authorization has been issued pursuant to subsection 203.03(2) in respect of an aircraft registered in a foreign state, the Canadian lessee shall ensure that the aircraft conforms with all applicable airworthiness directives.

A
58
Q

How often do pilots need dangerous good training?

A

Every 24 months

59
Q

You’re flying at FL160 in the Northern Domestic Area and want to climb to FL220, you should broadcast intentions on ____.

A

126.7

60
Q

Leaving South Control Area at FL290, what airspace will you enter?

A

North Control Area

61
Q

At Standard Pressure Region, when should you set altimeter to current altimeter setting?

A

Before descent for landing.

62
Q

Who can extend for an unforeseeable delay?

A

The pilot-in-command, after consultation with the other flight crew members. As long as the PIC considers it safe to exceed the maximum flight time and flight duty time.

63
Q

What prevents reverse prop pitch in the air?

A

Hydro-mechanical low pitch stop.

64
Q

IFR is required at _____ to _____.

A

FL180 to FL600.

65
Q

Class B Airspace Dimensions

A

12,501 to 17,999

66
Q

RVSM Altitudes from 000°-179° are ___ to ___.

RVSM Altitudes from 180°-359° are ___ to ___.

A

RVSM 000°-179° = FL290 FL410

RVSM 180°-359° = FL300 FL400

67
Q

Slave compass = Directional Gyro with remote compass.

A
68
Q

Radar Altimeter distance is…

A

From the earth.

69
Q

Propeller overspeed procedure…

A

Reduce throttle and reduce airspeed.

70
Q

What kind of A/C required CVR(cockpit voice recorder)?

A

Aircraft built after 1991 with 10 or more pax.

71
Q

Tail plane stall symbol = Stall at high speed.

A
72
Q

Transport category aircraft with life jackets

A

······400NM 120min····

73
Q

Vra

A

Rough air speed (the recommended speed for flight in turbulence).

74
Q

Vb

A

Design speed for maximum gust intensity.

75
Q

What are the ATPL medical requirements for a pilot who is 40 years old?

A
  • Medical every 6 months
  • ECG every year
  • An audiogram at 55yrs or as required
76
Q

ELT testing procedure

A

The first 5 mins of every UTC hour, not longer than 5 secs.

77
Q

Find max range for different Flight levels. Answer is FL310 SGR=0.28

A
78
Q

Review PAPI Lighting

A
79
Q

Review VASI Lighting

A
80
Q

3 BAR VASI system, upper and middle wind bars are for what type of aircraft?

A

Large a/c with more than 25 feet eye to wheel height

81
Q

The movement area includes…

A

TAXIWAY, RUNWAY, APRON.

82
Q

ADIZ report time and distance?

A

5 mins within 20NM.

83
Q

How long must you wait to fly after local anaesthesia?

A

24hrs

84
Q

During an approach on glide slope with a 45 kts headwind you experience a change to 5 kts. What power changes should you make?

A

Add power, then decrease.

85
Q

During an ILS approach, your headwind changes to a tailwind, what power changes should you make?

A

add power, increase, decrease

86
Q

IFR aircraft approaching an uncontrolled MF airdrome must…

A

Report before entry.

87
Q

Can you fly through a Class F, CYR?

A

Yes, if prior permission has been obtained from the controlling authority

88
Q

In CMNPS airspace, north/south tracks shall report over fixed reporting lines with each ____of Latitude

A

5˚

89
Q

As airflow passes through a shock wave, pressure ______ , temperature _____ , and velocity ______ .

A

increase, increases, decreases

90
Q

What will happen to N1 during a hung start?

A

N1 will not increase to low idle speed

91
Q

In a free turbine, the turbine drives the prop through a reduction gear.

A
92
Q

An aircraft’s standby (or third) turn & bank indicator must provide a minimum ____ mins of reliable operation following failure of the aircraft’s electrical generator system.

A

30mins

93
Q

What is a disadvantage of the sweep back wing design?

A

Dutch roll

94
Q

What’s the procedure if you encounter wind shear during takeoff?

A

Set full power, Increase angle of attack, Stick shaker.

95
Q

Illusion created by snow sweep across the airport.

A

relative motion

96
Q

Landing techniques (high speed).

A

Touch down as soon as possible, apply max brake

97
Q

RVR 1/2 mile = ______ft.

A

2600ft

98
Q

Proceeding an ATC clearance and instruction, the pilot is not relieved of the responsibility to avoid other traffic.

A
99
Q

Dihedral

A
  • creates a sideslip in the direction of the dropping wing
  • downgoing wing has a greater angle of attack than the upgoing wing, creating more lift on the downgoing wing.
  • lateral stability
100
Q

Effect of hypoxia at night?

A

Hypoxia reduces night vision

101
Q

If the cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder are both unserviceable (and without MEL). How long can you fly?

A

90days

102
Q

ARCAL procedure for an approach?

A

Activate ARCAL before the approach and landing even if the lights are already on.

103
Q

What is the function of a slot?

A

Increase air flow at higher angles of attack

104
Q

RVSM equipped aircraft: must have….

A

2 independent altimeters

105
Q

Before entering RVSM, equipment failed, pilot should…

A

obtain a new clearance.

106
Q

An a/c flying IFR within mountainous regions shall be flown at an altitude at least ____feet above the highest obstacle within ___NM.

A

2000 feet and 5nm

107
Q

Pilot elementary maintenance work must be trained by the operator

A
108
Q

Commuter & airline ELT malfunction, up to 10 days, you don’t need ELT if the flight is to the destination to repair or reinstall the ELT

A
109
Q

Smoke evacuation procedure?

A

O2 switch to 100% O2

110
Q

Which type of jet engine has less fuel consumption at max thrust?

A

high bypass

111
Q
A
112
Q

Trim setting for a giving W&B: 6.75

A
113
Q

During decent, you maintain 450kt TAS: MACH will ______, and IAS will ______.

A

decrease, increase

114
Q

Delivery of dangerous goods is carried out in accordance with the company’s operating manual

A
115
Q

Ear and sinus pain is because of…

A

trapped gas expansion

116
Q

Overshoot into IMC, what illusion?

A

False climb illusion, causing pilot to want to lower the nose.

117
Q

1000 above MEA at mountain in cold WX

A
118
Q

Turbine engine hot start when…

A

EGT is over the limitation

119
Q

MF radio calls for a departure flight?

A
  • before taxi
  • moving onto the runway
  • departing the circuit
120
Q

There are two altimeters on the ground within 30’ of each other. Can you fly RVSM?

A

Yes, because the limit is 75’ difference between the two altimeters.

121
Q

What frequency is used for air to air communication in the NAT MNPS?

A

123.45

122
Q

What does the over pressure relief valve do?

A

It prevents the pressure differential from exceeding structural limits.

123
Q

Fuel Weight Measurement System

A
  • Adjusts for temp and pressure automatically
  • Remains accurate throughout all phases of flight
124
Q

What is touchdown protection?

A

Means no breaking right after touchdown so wheels can get up to a reference speed for the anti-skid system to work.

125
Q

What is lock wheel or crossover protection?

A

The ability of the anti-skid computer to take a reference speed from another wheel in the event that it loses a reference speed.

126
Q

Winglets ____ induced drag and ____ form drag.

A

reduce, increase

127
Q

Eye to wheel height of 12 feet - Look for P2 in the CFS.

A

1_AeroCourse (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions