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FHP > Sarge Test LPO Q > Flashcards

Sarge Test LPO Q Flashcards

1
Q

1) The tendency to over value internal factors in explaining someone’s behavior, while under valuing external factors.
A) Actor/observer bias
B) Fundamental attribution error
C) Distinctiveness
D) Self-serving bias

A

B) Fundamental attribution error

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2
Q

2) The leader’s tendency to be less likely to punish the followers who say he or she is sorry for his or her behavior.
A) Apology effect
B) Self-serving bias
C) Actor/observer bias
D) Fundamental attribution error

A

A) Apology effect

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3
Q

3) The common tendency for the actor in a particular situation to blame external factors for his or her unsuccessful behavior while, concurrently, an observer tends to blame internal factors for the same behavior.
A) Actor/observer bias
B) Distinctiveness
C) Self-serving bias
D) Fundamental attribution error

A

A) Actor/observer bias

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4
Q

4) The process of making inferences and judgements about the causes of people’s behavior.
A) Attribution
B) Distinctiveness
C) Consensus
D) Self-serving bias

A

A) Attribution

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5
Q

5) Anything that provides direction, intensity, and persistence to behavior.
A) Motivation
B) Consequences
C) Reinforcement
D) Extinction

A

A) Motivation

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6
Q

6) An approach to learning and motivation based on the relationship between a person’s behavior and the consequences they subsequently personally experience.
A) Observational learning
B) Reinforcement schedule
C) Motivation through consequences
D) Operant conditioning

A

D) Operant conditioning

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7
Q

7) ____refers to the length of time between reinforcement, while ____refers to the number of successful responses.
A) Fixed; variable
B) Ratio; interval
C) Intensity; variable
D) Interval; ratio

A

D) Interval; ratio

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8
Q

8) To successfully integrate operant conditioning principles, all individuals should be rewarded equally.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False

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9
Q

9) The process of measuring one’s own behavior against certain internal standards and the subsequent administration of internally imposed consequences is known as _____.
A) Vicarious reinforcement
B) Observational learning
C) Operant learning
D) Self regulation

A

D) Self regulation

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10
Q

10) In motivation through consequences and operant conditioning, the leader can select form three potential strategies:
A) Equity theory, organizational theory, or reference source
B) Positive reinforcement, punishment, or extinction
C) Fixed ratio, variable ratio, or interval ratio

A

C) Fixed ratio, variable ratio, or interval ratio

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11
Q

11) Equity exists when the ratio of an individual’s perceived inputs to perceived outcomes differs significantly from that of a person or group with whom the individual compares himself.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False

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12
Q

12) An individual’s belief that he or she can perform a task to an acceptable level.
A) Instrumentality
B) Expectancy
C) Valence
D) Intensity

A

B) Expectancy

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13
Q

13) The belief that achieving an acceptable level of performance will result in a reward.
A) Intensity
B) Expectancy
C) Instrumentality
D) Valence

A

C) Instrumentality

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14
Q

14) The value a recipient places on a reward offered in exchange for completing a task.
A) Intensity
B) Expectancy
C) Instrumentality
D) Valence

A

D) Valence

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15
Q

15) Expectancy Theory of Motivation claims that motivation is a function of _____, _____ and ____.
A) Expectancy, instrumentality, and valence
B) Performance, objectives, and rewards
C) Reward, expectancy, and valence
D) Performance, valence, and instrumentality

A

A) Expectancy, instrumentality, and valence

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16
Q

16) _______ is the process of developing, negotiating and forming the targets or objectives that an employee is responsible for accomplishing.
A) Goal setting
B) Observational conditioning
C) Motivation through consequences
D) Operant learning

A

A) Goal setting

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17
Q

17) Organizational member who demonstrates a high level of critical thinking, but low levels of engagement I the organizational mission.
A) Conformist follower
B) Exemplary follower
C) Alienated follower
D) Pragmatist follower
E) Passive follower

A

C) Alienated follower

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18
Q

18) Organizational member who demonstrates a low level of critical thinking and high levels of engagement in the organizational mission.
A) Conformist follower
B) Passive follower
C) Alienated follower
D) Exemplary follower
E) Pragmatist follower

A

A) Conformist follower

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19
Q

19) Organizational member who demonstrates a high level of critical thinking an high levels of engagement in the organizational mission.
A) Conformist follower
B) Exemplary follower
C) Alienated follower
D) Passive follower
E) Pragmatist follower

A

B) Exemplary follower

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20
Q

20) Organizational member who demonstrates a low level of critical thinking and low levels of engagement in the organizational mission.
A) Conformist follower
B) Exemplary follower
C) Alienated follower
D) Passive follower
E) Pragmatist follower

A

D) Passive follower

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21
Q

21) Organizational member who demonstrates varying levels of critical thinking and varying levels of engagement in the organizational mission.
A) Conformist follower
B) Exemplary follower
C) Alienated follower
D) Passive follower
E) Pragmatist follower

A

E) Pragmatist follower

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22
Q

22) Condition describing what happens to individuals who eventually fail as leaders, despite performing well for a long time in followership and junior leadership roles.
A) Downward leadership
B) Derailment
C) Alienated leader
D) Stagnant

A

B) Derailment

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23
Q

23) The strength of the bonds linking individuals to and in the group.
A) Group structure
B) Interdependency
C) Norms
D) Cohesion

A

D) Cohesion

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24
Q

24) ___ are the evolving, consensual standards that regulate group member’s behavior.
A) Group roles
B) Status
C) Cohesion
D) Norms

A

D) Norms

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25
Q

25) ____have higher levels of interactions in terms of both task-facilitating roles and relationship-building roles.
A) Teams
B) Groups

A

A) Teams

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26
Q

26) The sum of forces that attracts members to a group, provides resistance to leaving it, and motivates them to be active in it.
A) Teamwork
B) Group cohesion
C) Interdependency
D) Status

A

B) Group cohesion

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27
Q

27) A leader’s greatest challenge may be to redirect a highly cohesive group with dysfunctional performance norms toward organizationally desired performance standards and behaviors.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True

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28
Q

28) A leader may use strategies to influence group cohesion including:
A) Sacrifice, teamwork, interactions
B) Competition, missions, focus activities
C) Developing unique norms and symbols
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

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29
Q

29) Group efficacy refers to a group’s judgement about its own capability to perform a specific task.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True

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30
Q

30) A conflict management strategy where the leader monitors the conflict, but does not get involved in its resolution, allowing the conflict to run its course and/or those in conflict to resolve it.
A) Mitigating
B) Forcing
C) Avoidance
D) Problem solving

A

C) Avoidance

31
Q

31) A reactive conflict management strategy where a leader (or third party) brings members of conflicting groups together to identify, discuss, and resolve intergroup conflict after conflict has developed.
A) Avoidance
B) Forcing
C) Group cohesion exercises
D) Problem solving

A

B) Forcing

32
Q

32) Leaders can facilitate an environment of teamwork that significantly enhances effectiveness and efficiency for everyone, both in and outside of the organization by seeking to eliminate conflict.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False

33
Q

33) Research has shown that ____ is the most frequently identified source of intergroup conflict.
A) Work schedule
B) Competition over resources
C) Goal incompatibility
D) Frequency of interaction

A

D) Frequency of interaction

34
Q

34) Groups tend to devalue the activities of other groups and magnify the achievements of their own, thus creating a “we/them” syndrome within an organization.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True

35
Q

35) Conflict among groups is not necessarily bad. Conflict may:
A) Provide a stimulus for change
B) Stimulate interest and curiosity in the operations of the organization
C) Help groups understand their own positions better because conflict forces them to articulate their views and present supporting arguments
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

36
Q

36) Solutions to conflicts provided by the leader tend to be more effective and are more greatly accepted by the group than if the group had been forced to find a solution on their own.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False

37
Q

37) Members of liaison groups tend to experience:
A) Greater job satisfaction
B) Lower role conflict and ambiguity
C) Other positive rewards from their positions
D) None of the above

A

D) None of the above

38
Q

38) The five bases or sources of social power are ____.
A) Limited, coercive, power, informational, expectant
B) Referent, expert, informational, limited, legitimate
C) Reward, coercive, legitimate, referent, expert
D) Reward, punishment, legitimate, expert, limited

A

C) Reward, coercive, legitimate, referent, expert

39
Q

39) The acceptance of the leader’s influence evidenced by the follower’s behavior.
A) Compliance
B) Identification
C) Reference
D) Legitimate

A

A) Compliance

40
Q

40) The acceptance of the influence because the source is an attractive, likeable source worthy of emulation.
A) Compliance
B) Identification
C) Acceptance
D) Reverence

A

B) Identification

41
Q

41) The acceptance of the leader’s influence including the leader’s underlying beliefs.
A) Idiosyncrasy
B) Identification
C) Internalization
D) Idolization

A

C) Internalization

42
Q

42) The social exchange theory states that all human interaction is a product of a type of cost-benefit analysis and the comparison of alternatives.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True

43
Q

43) According to the _____ Theory, ______ always influences how the leader interprets the people and events around him.
A) Motivation
B) Attribution
C) Consistency
D) Consensus

A

B) Attribution

44
Q

44) _______ is the cognitive, often subconscious, tendency to make inferences and judgements about the causes of people’s behavior.
A) Attribution
B) Bias
C) Rational
D) Opinions

A

A) Attribution

45
Q

45) _______ is the process of making an attribution about a person based on how the person performs a given task, as compared to how he has performed a range of different tasks in the past.
A) Consistency
B) Consensus
C) Rational
D) Distinctiveness

A

D) Distinctiveness

46
Q

46) _______ is the process of making an attribution based on whether the person has formerly performed the same or a similar task in about the same way.
A) Consistency
B) Consensus
C) Rational
D) Distinctiveness

A

A) Consistency

47
Q

____ is the process of making an attribution based on whether other people perform the same task in a similar manner.
A) Consistency
B) Consensus
C) Rational
D) Distinctiveness

A

B) Consensus

48
Q

48) A ____ is simply a mistake made during the attribution process that leads to erroneous judgements about the cause of an individual’s actions.
A) Consensus
B) Rational
C) Bias
D) Distinctiveness

A

C) Bias

49
Q

49) The tendency for a leader to punish a follower if his behavior had negative consequences but to punish him less severely or not at all if the behavior had no negative consequences.
A) Apology effect
B) Negative outcome bias
C) Actor/observer bias
D) Social psychology

A

B) Negative outcome bias

50
Q

50) The phenomenon that explains why some behaviors are repeated while others stop.
A) Motivation through consequences
B) Observational learning
C) Law of effect
D) Operant conditioning

A

C) Law of effect

51
Q

51) When future behavior decreases in frequency because there is no consequence to a current behavior.
A) Motivation
B) Law of effect
C) Operant conditioning
D) Extinction

A

D) Extinction

52
Q

When the desired behavior is not simple and does not occur very often or not at all, shaping desired behaviors using __________ is the best approach.
A) Fixed ratio schedule
B) Variable interval schedule
C) Continuous reinforcement
D) Punishment

A

C) Continuous reinforcement

53
Q

53) __________ concerns employees’ perceptions about whether the level of reward or punishment is commensurate with an individual’s performance or infraction.
A) Procedural justice
B) Distributive justice
C) Interactional justice
D) Departmental justice

A

B) Distributive justice

54
Q

54) Has to do with the perceived fairness of procedures used to make decisions.
A) Procedural justice
B) Distributive justice
C) Interactional justice
D) Departmental justice

A

A) Procedural justice

55
Q

55) Interpersonal treatment people receive when procedures are implemented. (Perceived fairness or unfairness according to the treatment extended.)
A) Procedural justice
B) Distributive justice
C) Interactional justice
D) Departmental justice

A

C) Interactional justice

56
Q

56) Once an individual is identified as a leader, that same person no longer holds a follower role.
A) True
B) False

A

B) False

57
Q

57) _____ is a lack of clarity about what the expectations are for the member within a group.
A) Role ambiguity
B) Role conflict
C) Role clarity
D) Blocking role

A

A) Role ambiguity

58
Q

58) A group member finds himself occupying several roles at the same time, and each role’s requirements are competing in demands on his time and abilities.
A) Role ambiguity
B) Role conflict
C) Role clarity
D) Blocking role

A

B) Role conflict

59
Q

59) Unproductive behaviors that inhibit the group or team from achieving what they could have achieved and destroys morale and cohesion.
A) Role ambiguity
B) Role conflict
C) Role clarity
D) Blocking role

A

D) Blocking role

60
Q

60) The social ranking within the group based on formal or informal indicators and/or job performance.
A) Norms
B) Cohesion
C) Status
D) Role

A

C) Status

61
Q

61) The degree to which a group works together to achieve a specific and identifiable goal.
A) Social cohesion
B) Groupthink
C) Task cohesion
D) Interdependency

A

D) Interdependency

62
Q

62) The degree to which the members of a group like each other and enjoy personal satisfaction from being members or the group.
A) Social cohesion
B) Groupthink
C) Task cohesion
D) Interdependency

A

A) Social cohesion

63
Q

63) A process where a group strives for unanimity rather than objectively appraising and selecting the best course of action.
A) Social cohesion
B) Groupthink
C) Task cohesion
D) Interdependency

A

C) Task cohesion

64
Q

64) Control based on the belief or understanding that the influencer (leader) has specific knowledge or relevant expertise that the influencee (follower) does not.
A) Legitimate power
B) Expert power
C) Referent power
D) Reward power

A

D) Reward power

65
Q

65) This theory asserts that all relationships (leader/follower relationships) are based upon a type of economic exchange in which individuals receive credits and debits grounded in their competency, as well as their behavior’s consistency with group norms.
A) Social exchange theory
B) Idiosyncrasy Credit theory
C) Symbiotic relationship theory
D) Theory X and Theory Y

A

B) Idiosyncrasy Credit theory

66
Q

66) An appeal to follower’s sense of values beyond their personal interest.
A) Transactional leadership
B) Transformational leadership
C) Charismatic leadership

A

B) Transformational leadership

67
Q

67) An exchange relationship in which the leader and the follower are engaged in economic, social or psychological trading.
A) Transactional leadership
B) Transformational leadership
C) Charismatic leadership

A

A) Transactional leadership

68
Q

68) The process of transferring information from one person to another.
A) Behavior
B) Noise
C) Communication
D) Counseling

A

C) Communication

68
Q

69) ____ involves listening to the counselee, concisely restating the message, and looking for cues that the statement is accurate.
A) Paraphrasing
B) Questioning
C) Problem centered counseling
D) Problem solving

A

A) Paraphrasing

69
Q

70) There are three main types of counseling: problem-centered counseling, career-development counseling, and performance-centered counseling.
A) True
B) False

A

A) True

70
Q

71) A planned incremental change made in anticipation of future events.
A) Adaptation
B) Reorientation
C) Tuning
D) Re-creation

A

C) Tuning

71
Q

72) An unplanned incremental change made in response to past or current events.
A) Adaptation
B) Reorientation
C) Tuning
D) Re-creation

A

A) Adaptation

72
Q

73) Any alteration of the status quo.
A) Adaptation
B) Tuning
C) Change
D) Response

A

C) Change

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