SARAP Flashcards
City dwellers’ adaptation to air pollutants.
a) Squamous metaplasia
b) Glandular metaplasia
c) Osseous metaplasia
d) Bronchial mucous hyperplasia
a) Squamous metaplasia
In hypoxemia, the following are the cellular happening:
a) Decrease cytocelic gly
b) Increase cellular pH
c) Increase translational problem
d) Increase cellular impermeability
c) Increase translational problem
Free radicals most commonly destroy the:
a) smooth ER
b) rough ER
c) nucleus
d) phospholipid bilayer membrane
d) phospholipid bilayer membrane
Which of the following is an example of an ultrastructure finding in reversible cell injury?
a) Pyknosis
b) lysosomal rupture
c) blebbing
d) mitochondrial vacuolization
c) blebbing
Which of the following is an irreversible ultra structural change?
a) Lysosomal rupture
b) autophagy
c) chromatin clumping
d) endoplasmic reticulum swelling
a) Lysosomal rupture
What’s the right sequence of cell change during injury/death?
a) Function retains until cell death
b) Function loss occurs RIGHT after cell death
c) Cell death precede all functional & histologic change
d) Ultrastructural changes antedate eosinophilic changes
d) Ultrastructural changes antedate eosinophilic changes
Not true of hypoxic injury:
a) Hydropic degeneration
b) Anaerobic respiratory mechanisms terminated
c) Protein synthesis, transport and packaging deranged
d) Reactive oxygen species produced
b) Anaerobic respiratory mechanisms terminated
In this organ, hypoxic death is due predominantly to antolysis rather than protein denaturation
a) lungs
b) GIT
c) Brain
d) Testis
c) Brain
True of saponification in enzymatic fat necrosis:
a) Release of enzymes in hypercalcemic milieu
b) Release of fatty acids despite of normal calcium levels
c) Neutrophil digestion and calcium deposition
d) Release of fatty acids. The process of saponification
b) Release of fatty acids despite normal calcium levels
Preservation of cellular outline but with loss of cellular detail is due to:
a) Protein denaturation
b) autolysis
c) autophagy
d) infarction
a) Protein denaturation
The pattern of necrosis in myocardial infarction is:
a) coagulation necrosis
b) fat necrosis
c) liquefactive necrosis
d) cafeation necrosis
a) coagulation necrosis
Refers to focal accumulation of carbon pigment lader macrophages is the connective tissues of lung parenchyma
a) steatosis
b) xanthoma
c) cholesterolosis
d) anthracosis
d) anthracosis
Changes in a chronic smoker
Squamous metaplasia
The first manifestation of almost all cell injury
a) Fat accumulation
b) Dystrophic calcification
c) Hyaline
d) Cellular swelling
d) Cellular swelling
Focal accumulation of carbon
Anthracosis
In this type of cellular adaptation, there’s a marked increase in number of autophagosomes accompanied by a decrease in number of myofilaments, ER, and mitochondria
a) hypertrophy
b) hyperplasia
c) atrophy
d) metaplasia
d) metaplasia
A reversible change or alteration in adult cells characterized by variation in size, shape and orientation:
a) metaplasia
b) dysplasia
c) hyperplasia
d) atrophy
b) dysplasia
Increased hormonal stimulation may cause cells to undergo
a) Metaplasia
b) Hyperplasia
c) Dysplasia
d) Atrophy
b) Hyperplasia
The most common mechanism facilitating increased vascular permeability
a) Endothelial injury
b) leukocyte – mediated endothelial injury
c) Gaps due to endothelial contraction
d) increased transcytosis
c) Gaps due to endothelial contraction
- Sources of histamine and serotonin is/are
a) mast cells
b) Basophils
c) platelet
d) AOTA
D) mast cells, basophils, platelets
Which of the following generates prostaglandin and thromboxanes
a) lipoxygenase
b) cycloxgenase
c) kinins
d) complement
B) cycloxygenase
Which is/are true about acute inflammation?
a) In chemotaxis, the injurious agent goes to the phagocytic cell for phagocytes
b) In activation of phagocytic all, secretions are not only confined to phagosome but also leaks out to the extracellular matrix
c) Leukocyte adhesion consists of migration, rolling, and adhesion
d) B and C are true
d) B and C are true
Dominant cell in chronic inflammation
d) Macrophage
Protein C, fibronectin and amyloid proteins are examples of
a) chemokines
b) acute phase protein
c) cytokines
d) complement
b) acute phase protein
Leukoid reaction occurs when:
a) leukocyte count reaches 15,000-20,000 cells/mL
b) leukocyte count reaches 40,000 – 100,000 cells/mL
c) leukocyte count drops 5,000 – 10,000 cells/mL
d) leukocyte count drops 1,000 – 5,000 cell/mL
b) leukocyte count reaches 40,000 – 100,000 cells/mL
Which statement is correct?
a) In acute inflammation, the major players are mononuclear inflammatory cells
b) The most common cause of leukocyte defect is bone marrow suppression
c) The chemical mediators of inflammation does not have the potential to have harmful effects
d) Kinin, clotting, fibrinolytic, and complement cascades are interellated systems that are activated by factor V
B. the most common cause of leukocyte defect is bone marrow suppression
In A, it should be “polymorphonuclear cells” i.e. neutrophils”; in C, they have the potential to cause harmful effects, that’s why they are regulated; in D, it is factor XII not factor V
effects of tumor necrosis factor
a) increase fibroblast proliferation
b) decrease acute phase proteins
c) increase anticoagulant activity
d) decrease cytokine secretion
a) increase fibroblast proliferation
True of Nitric Oxide
a) pleiomorphic of vasodilation
b) aka endothelium-derived relaxation factor
c) inhibits platelet aggregation and adhesion
d) all of the above
b) aka endothelium-derived relaxation factor
- Outcome/s of acute inflammation
a) resolution
b) abscess formation
c) chronic inflammation
d) all of the above
d) all of the above
Which of the following organs is normally involved in low-level proliferation but is capable of rapid replication upon stimulation?
a) Skeletal muscle
b) liver
c) bone marrow
d) neurons
b) liver
A cell producing substances that affect target cells in close proximity:
a) Paracrine
b) Endocrine
c) Paracrine
d) Ecrine
c) Paracrine
This allows ECM to sketch and recoil
a) Fibrillin
b) Colllagen
c) Elastin
d) Cartilage
c) Elastin
True of collagen?
a) Type 1: predominant in skin & bones
b) has at least 5 types
c) type 2: in basement membrane
d) Enzymatic activity Vitamin E
a) Type 1: predominant in skin & bones
Vessel function in adult tissues is:
a) vasculogenesis
b) angiogenesis
c) neovascularisation
d) Both B and C
d) Both B and C
True of granulation tissue
a) hallmark o malignancy
b) proliferating blood vessels
c) pink, soft, granular, loose ECM
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
Characterized by wound contraction in which the size of the wound is markedly decreased by the action of myofibroblast
a) healing by first intention
b) healing by second intention
c) fibrosis
d) scar formation
b) healing by second intention
Same type of tissue replaced the injured one
a) replacement
b) regeneration
c) hyperplasia
b) regeneration
Gives ECM turgor resistance to compression
a) hyaluronan
b) Laminin
c) Fabrillin
a) hyaluronan
A benign tumor arising from the lymph vessels is properly termed as:
a) Lipoma
b) Lymphoma
c) Lymphangioma
d) Lymphangiosarcoma
d) Lymphangiosarcoma
the malignant counterpart of avarean dermoid cyst is termed as:
a) Dermatofibroma
b) Cystadenoma
c) choriocarcinoma
d) immature teratoma
d) immature teratoma
The single most common abnormality in dominant oncogene of tumors in humans in the point mutation in:
a) RAS
b) RET
c) cylin – DI
a) RAS
In adenoma carcinoma model of colon carcinogenesis, the initial event is:
a) Activation of APC
b) Activation of RAS
c) Loss of tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 18q
d) loss of p53
a) Activation of APC
dysregulation in MYC gene occurs in
a) CML
b) Neuroblastoma
c)
d) Burkette
d) Burkette
Reduplication of DNA sequences produced by several changes in the proto-oncogene are exemplified by
a) BCR 2/neu in breast cancer
b) BCR – ABL in chronic myelogenous leukemia
c) Rb in retinoblastoma
d) Bcl2 in follicular lymphoma
a) BCR 2/neu in breast cancer
Example of apoptosis gene
a) RAS
b) N-MYC
c) RB
d) BCL – 2
d) BCL – 2
Molecular policeman
a) APC
b) p 53
c) rb gen
b) p 53
A patient with tuberculoid leprosy has
a) adequate T-cell immune response
b) adequate B-cell immune response
c) adequate complement function immune response
d) erythema nodosum leprosum
aalamin ko ang sagot
The phenomenon resulting from obstruction of arterial blood supply or venous drainage and subsequent neurosis of recipient tissues is called
a) haemorrhage
b) congestion
c) infarction
d) hypermia
c) infarction
Mesothelioma is strongly associated with exposure to:
a) Arsenic
b) Asbestos
c) Cadmium
d) Vinyl chloride
b) Asbestos
What is true of HPV in cervical carcinogenesis
a) Associated with type 16 & 18
b) Genome is non-integrated
c) Aggregation is non-clonal
d) Associated with host proto-oncogene
a) Associated with type 16 & 18
A neoplasm associated with Helicobacter pylori
a) Gastric cancer
b) Nasopharyngeal cancer
c) Leukemia
d) Burkitt lymphoma
a) Gastric cancer
Nasopharyngeal cancer and Burkitt lymphoma may be caused by EBV.
What is the most common paraneoplastic condition?
a) Polycythemia
b) Hypercalcemia
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Myesthenia
b) Hypercalcemia
True of cancer cachexia
a) loss of ion muscle only
b) caused by nutritional demands of tumor
c) patient’s metabolic rate is reduced
d) effects of cytokines
d) effects of cytokines
Which of the following factors favors the formation and vessels in a tumor?
a) vasculostatin
b) angiostatin
c) thromboxanes
d) beta fibroblast growth factor
d) beta fibroblast growth factor
Flow cytometry is helpful in:
a) characterization of leukemia
b) intraoperative consultation
c) diagnosis of cervical cancer
d) Her2/neu protein detection
a) characterization of leukemia
Flow cytometry is best for liquid specimen. Freeze histology is best for intraoperative consultation
A Fetoprotein is a marker for carcinoma of what organ?
a) thyroid
b) liver
c) pancreas
d) stomach
b) liver
The fetal liver produces the fetoprotein and end its production upon birth. Presence of fetoprotein indicates the regression of the hepatocytes.
Tumors will not elicit an immune response
a) no production of tumor antigens
b) activation of immune system by chemical carcinogens
c) decreased cytotoxic T- cell
d) overexpression of HLA Type I
a) no production of tumor antigens
A non-inflammatory edema may result from
a) Infection
b) Congestive heart failure
c) Hyperalbuminemia –causes high capillary osmotic pressure, thus causing
d) DIC
b) Congestive heart failure
Infection will cause inflammation and subsequent edema. In hyperalbuminemia, there’s an increase in capillary osmotic pressure causing the fluid to enter the blood vessel.
Acute process brought about by arteriolar dilatation
a) –
b) –
c) –
d) hyperemia – definition
d) hyperemia – definition
Extravasation of blood when the vessel wall ruptures is called
a) congestion
b) edema
c) hemorrhage
d) shock
c) hemorrhage
. Hallmark of chronic passive congestion of liver
a) Centrilobular necrosis
b) hemosiderin laden macrophages – Hallmark of CPC of lung
c) fatty changes in hepatocyte
d) neutrophilia
a) Centrilobular necrosis
Hemosiderin laden macrophages are hallmark of CPC of lungs. Centrilobular necrosis is due to hypoperfusion of the hepatocytes near the central vein (farthest to the source of oxygenated blood) due to the congestion. Fatty changes in the liver occurs in alcoholics and those with protein malnutrition. Neutrophilia is seen during infection.
Edema fluid with a specific gravity of 2 is
a) associated with inflammation
b) non-inflammatory
c) has low protein contents
d) is a transudate
a) associated with inflammation
Inflammatory edema is characterized by an exudate, which has a specific gravity >1.012 and with high protein content
Human’s initial response to injury
a) Vasoconstriction
b) vasodilation
c) platelet adhesion
d) activation of coagulation cascade
a) vasoconstriction
Vasoconstriction is the initial response to prevent excessive blood loss during blood vessel injury.
The primary hemostastic plug is composed of
a) platelets
b) RBCs –found in the secondary plug
c) WBCs – found in the secondary plug
d) fibrin –secondary plug
a) platelets
The other choices are found in the secondary plug.
Which of the ff. has a prothrombic property?
a) Prostacyclin
b) Tissue factor
c) Plasmin
d) Thrombomodulin
b) Tissue factor
In platelet aggregation, platelet to platelet adhesion is mediated by what receptors?
a) Von Willebrand factor
b) Glycoprotein 1b receptor
c) Glycoprotein 2b/3a
d) helper T-cells
d) helper T-cells
Von Willebrand factor is a ligand for Glycoprotein 1b receptor found in the endothelium for cell attachment during the start of inflammation. Glycoprotein 2b/3a is a receptor for fibrinogen which binds the platelets.
A deficiency of Gp1b receptor results to what condition?
a) Chokes and bends
b) Glanzmann Thrombasthenia
c) Caisson disease
d) Bernard Soulier syndrome
d) Bernard Soulier syndrome
Chokes and bends and Caisson disease are examples of decompression sickness which usually occur to divers. It is due to the formation of air emboli. Glanzmann Thrombasthenia is caused by a deficiency in glycoprotein 2b/3a receptor.
All factors predisposing to thrombosis except:
a) artherosclerosis
b) hypertension
c) intake of oral contraceptive pills
d) intake of aspirin
d) intake of aspirin
Aspirin is an anticoagulant.
A thrombus, compared to a post mortem clot,
a) is detached
b) has a gelatinous consistency
c) has Lines of Zahn, seen microscopically
d) takes the shape of the vessel wall
c) has Lines of Zahn, seen microscopically
All the other choices are characteristics of a post mortem clot.
Which of the ff. is a feature of venous thrombus:
a) –
b) deep leg veins
c) endothelial injury
d) always occlusive
b) deep leg veins
Formation of lumen in a thrombus
Recanalization
When a thrombus gets to the arterial circulation
Systemic embolism
Ischemic necrosis
Infarction
True of anemic infarcts
a) in organs with w/ loose connective tissue
b) in organs with dual blood supply
c) wedge-shaped
d) found in the lungs
c) wedge-shaped
The pathogenesis of septic shock starts with which of the following events
a) The binding of lipopolysaccharide capsule (from endotoxin) with leukocytes
b) Activation of cytokines
c) Vasodilation
d) Endothelial ___
b) Activation of cytokines
Attachment to host cells
a) pili
b) glycoprotein
c) –
d) –
aalamin ko ang sagot
Viral damage to host cells will morphologically manifest mostly as
a) suppurative
b) necrotizing
c) granulomatous
d) cytopathic- cytoproliferation
d) cytopathic- cytoproliferation
The following is mostly responsible for the pathogenesis of S. aureus
a) Surface glycoprotein
b) Possession of surface molecules
c) Methicillin resistance
d) Numerous plasmids
d) Numerous plasmids
TSS is mediated by
a) endotoxin of E. coli
b) Plasmid-mediated toxin of E.coli
c) plasmid mediated toxin of S. aureus
d) endotoxin of S. aureus
c) plasmid mediated toxin of S. aureus
Rheumatic fever and glumerulonephritis
a) HepA
b) B- hemolytic Strep
c) E. coli
d) measles
b) B- hemolytic Strep
Which among the ff describes cellulitis?
a) spreading superficial infection of skin
b) caused by B- hemolytic Strep
c) –
d) No systemic signs and symptom
a) spreading superficial infection of skin
Scarlet fever is associated with
a) erypselas
b) cellulitis
c) tonsilolaryngitis
d) –
aalamin ko ang sagot
Antibodies (protect/act) against this component:
a) pili
b) capsule
c) nucleus
d) DNA
b) capsule
Caseating material in granulomas are mostly derived from
a) neutrophils
b) macrophages
c) lymphocytes
d) bacilli
c) lymphocytes
Tuberculoid leprosy most likely has
a) T cell immune response
b) B cell
c) —
d) —
aalamin ko ang sagot
Ulceration and sometimes perforation of the ileum usually happens after how many weeks from onset of Typhoid fever?
a) 1 week
b) 2 weeks
c) 3 weeks
d) 4 weeks
c) 3 weeks
Enterotoxin responsible for illness in cholera:
a) Endotoxin
b) Exotoxin
c) Neurotoxin
d) Integral cell wall part
aalamin ko ang sagot
Adult genococcal conjunctivitis is transmitted by:
a) sexual intercourse
b) autoinoculation
c) reactivation
d) mosquito
b) autoinoculation
Gonococcal salpingitis long term effects can include:
a) ectopic pregnancy
b) ovarian fibrosis
c) abortion
d) bacteremia
a) ectopic pregnancy
During defervescence, the most feared complication is:
a) Thrombocytosis
b) Thrombocytopenia
c) endotoxic shock
d) __
b) Thrombocytopenia
Most common pathogen in adult acute common cold like symptoms
a) rhinovirus
b) Influenza A
c) Haemophilus influenza
d) RSV
a) rhinovirus
Vaccine made by Salk is composed of:
a) formaldehyde-inactivated virus
b) attenuated trivalent viral culture
c) attenuated and inactivated virus
d) monovalent attenuated virus
a) formaldehyde-inactivated virus
The morphologic pattern of necrosis in myocardial infarction
a) coagulation necrosis
b) fat necrosis
c) liquifactive necrosis
d) caseation necrosis
a) coagulation necrosis
