Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

LU4 - HS202 - E1 Pathology > SARAP > Flashcards

SARAP Flashcards

1
Q

City dwellers’ adaptation to air pollutants.

a) Squamous metaplasia
b) Glandular metaplasia
c) Osseous metaplasia
d) Bronchial mucous hyperplasia

A

a) Squamous metaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In hypoxemia, the following are the cellular happening:

a) Decrease cytocelic gly
b) Increase cellular pH
c) Increase translational problem
d) Increase cellular impermeability

A

c) Increase translational problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Free radicals most commonly destroy the:

a) smooth ER
b) rough ER
c) nucleus
d) phospholipid bilayer membrane

A

d) phospholipid bilayer membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is an example of an ultrastructure finding in reversible cell injury?

a) Pyknosis
b) lysosomal rupture
c) blebbing
d) mitochondrial vacuolization

A

c) blebbing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is an irreversible ultra structural change?

a) Lysosomal rupture
b) autophagy
c) chromatin clumping
d) endoplasmic reticulum swelling

A

a) Lysosomal rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What’s the right sequence of cell change during injury/death?

a) Function retains until cell death
b) Function loss occurs RIGHT after cell death
c) Cell death precede all functional & histologic change
d) Ultrastructural changes antedate eosinophilic changes

A

d) Ultrastructural changes antedate eosinophilic changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Not true of hypoxic injury:

a) Hydropic degeneration
b) Anaerobic respiratory mechanisms terminated
c) Protein synthesis, transport and packaging deranged
d) Reactive oxygen species produced

A

b) Anaerobic respiratory mechanisms terminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In this organ, hypoxic death is due predominantly to antolysis rather than protein denaturation

a) lungs
b) GIT
c) Brain
d) Testis

A

c) Brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

True of saponification in enzymatic fat necrosis:

a) Release of enzymes in hypercalcemic milieu
b) Release of fatty acids despite of normal calcium levels
c) Neutrophil digestion and calcium deposition
d) Release of fatty acids. The process of saponification

A

b) Release of fatty acids despite normal calcium levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Preservation of cellular outline but with loss of cellular detail is due to:

a) Protein denaturation
b) autolysis
c) autophagy
d) infarction

A

a) Protein denaturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The pattern of necrosis in myocardial infarction is:

a) coagulation necrosis
b) fat necrosis
c) liquefactive necrosis
d) cafeation necrosis

A

a) coagulation necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Refers to focal accumulation of carbon pigment lader macrophages is the connective tissues of lung parenchyma

a) steatosis
b) xanthoma
c) cholesterolosis
d) anthracosis

A

d) anthracosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Changes in a chronic smoker

A

Squamous metaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The first manifestation of almost all cell injury

a) Fat accumulation
b) Dystrophic calcification
c) Hyaline
d) Cellular swelling

A

d) Cellular swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Focal accumulation of carbon

A

Anthracosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In this type of cellular adaptation, there’s a marked increase in number of autophagosomes accompanied by a decrease in number of myofilaments, ER, and mitochondria

a) hypertrophy
b) hyperplasia
c) atrophy
d) metaplasia

A

d) metaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A reversible change or alteration in adult cells characterized by variation in size, shape and orientation:

a) metaplasia
b) dysplasia
c) hyperplasia
d) atrophy

A

b) dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Increased hormonal stimulation may cause cells to undergo

a) Metaplasia
b) Hyperplasia
c) Dysplasia
d) Atrophy

A

b) Hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The most common mechanism facilitating increased vascular permeability

a) Endothelial injury
b) leukocyte – mediated endothelial injury
c) Gaps due to endothelial contraction
d) increased transcytosis

A

c) Gaps due to endothelial contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Sources of histamine and serotonin is/are
    a) mast cells
    b) Basophils
    c) platelet
    d) AOTA
A

D) mast cells, basophils, platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following generates prostaglandin and thromboxanes

a) lipoxygenase
b) cycloxgenase
c) kinins
d) complement

A

B) cycloxygenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which is/are true about acute inflammation?

a) In chemotaxis, the injurious agent goes to the phagocytic cell for phagocytes
b) In activation of phagocytic all, secretions are not only confined to phagosome but also leaks out to the extracellular matrix
c) Leukocyte adhesion consists of migration, rolling, and adhesion
d) B and C are true

A

d) B and C are true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dominant cell in chronic inflammation

A

d) Macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Protein C, fibronectin and amyloid proteins are examples of

a) chemokines
b) acute phase protein
c) cytokines
d) complement

A

b) acute phase protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Leukoid reaction occurs when:

a) leukocyte count reaches 15,000-20,000 cells/mL
b) leukocyte count reaches 40,000 – 100,000 cells/mL
c) leukocyte count drops 5,000 – 10,000 cells/mL
d) leukocyte count drops 1,000 – 5,000 cell/mL

A

b) leukocyte count reaches 40,000 – 100,000 cells/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which statement is correct?

a) In acute inflammation, the major players are mononuclear inflammatory cells
b) The most common cause of leukocyte defect is bone marrow suppression
c) The chemical mediators of inflammation does not have the potential to have harmful effects
d) Kinin, clotting, fibrinolytic, and complement cascades are interellated systems that are activated by factor V

A

B. the most common cause of leukocyte defect is bone marrow suppression

In A, it should be “polymorphonuclear cells” i.e. neutrophils”; in C, they have the potential to cause harmful effects, that’s why they are regulated; in D, it is factor XII not factor V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

effects of tumor necrosis factor

a) increase fibroblast proliferation
b) decrease acute phase proteins
c) increase anticoagulant activity
d) decrease cytokine secretion

A

a) increase fibroblast proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

True of Nitric Oxide

a) pleiomorphic of vasodilation
b) aka endothelium-derived relaxation factor
c) inhibits platelet aggregation and adhesion
d) all of the above

A

b) aka endothelium-derived relaxation factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Outcome/s of acute inflammation
    a) resolution
    b) abscess formation
    c) chronic inflammation
    d) all of the above
A

d) all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following organs is normally involved in low-level proliferation but is capable of rapid replication upon stimulation?

a) Skeletal muscle
b) liver
c) bone marrow
d) neurons

A

b) liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A cell producing substances that affect target cells in close proximity:

a) Paracrine
b) Endocrine
c) Paracrine
d) Ecrine

A

c) Paracrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

This allows ECM to sketch and recoil

a) Fibrillin
b) Colllagen
c) Elastin
d) Cartilage

A

c) Elastin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

True of collagen?

a) Type 1: predominant in skin & bones
b) has at least 5 types
c) type 2: in basement membrane
d) Enzymatic activity Vitamin E

A

a) Type 1: predominant in skin & bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Vessel function in adult tissues is:

a) vasculogenesis
b) angiogenesis
c) neovascularisation
d) Both B and C

A

d) Both B and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

True of granulation tissue

a) hallmark o malignancy
b) proliferating blood vessels
c) pink, soft, granular, loose ECM
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Characterized by wound contraction in which the size of the wound is markedly decreased by the action of myofibroblast

a) healing by first intention
b) healing by second intention
c) fibrosis
d) scar formation

A

b) healing by second intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Same type of tissue replaced the injured one

a) replacement
b) regeneration
c) hyperplasia

A

b) regeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Gives ECM turgor resistance to compression

a) hyaluronan
b) Laminin
c) Fabrillin

A

a) hyaluronan

39
Q

A benign tumor arising from the lymph vessels is properly termed as:

a) Lipoma
b) Lymphoma
c) Lymphangioma
d) Lymphangiosarcoma

A

d) Lymphangiosarcoma

40
Q

the malignant counterpart of avarean dermoid cyst is termed as:

a) Dermatofibroma
b) Cystadenoma
c) choriocarcinoma
d) immature teratoma

A

d) immature teratoma

41
Q

The single most common abnormality in dominant oncogene of tumors in humans in the point mutation in:

a) RAS
b) RET
c) cylin – DI

A

a) RAS

42
Q

In adenoma carcinoma model of colon carcinogenesis, the initial event is:

a) Activation of APC
b) Activation of RAS
c) Loss of tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 18q
d) loss of p53

A

a) Activation of APC

43
Q

dysregulation in MYC gene occurs in

a) CML
b) Neuroblastoma
c)
d) Burkette

A

d) Burkette

44
Q

Reduplication of DNA sequences produced by several changes in the proto-oncogene are exemplified by

a) BCR 2/neu in breast cancer
b) BCR – ABL in chronic myelogenous leukemia
c) Rb in retinoblastoma
d) Bcl2 in follicular lymphoma

A

a) BCR 2/neu in breast cancer

45
Q

Example of apoptosis gene

a) RAS
b) N-MYC
c) RB
d) BCL – 2

A

d) BCL – 2

46
Q

Molecular policeman

a) APC
b) p 53
c) rb gen

A

b) p 53

47
Q

A patient with tuberculoid leprosy has

a) adequate T-cell immune response
b) adequate B-cell immune response
c) adequate complement function immune response
d) erythema nodosum leprosum

A

aalamin ko ang sagot

48
Q

The phenomenon resulting from obstruction of arterial blood supply or venous drainage and subsequent neurosis of recipient tissues is called

a) haemorrhage
b) congestion
c) infarction
d) hypermia

A

c) infarction

49
Q

Mesothelioma is strongly associated with exposure to:

a) Arsenic
b) Asbestos
c) Cadmium
d) Vinyl chloride

A

b) Asbestos

50
Q

What is true of HPV in cervical carcinogenesis

a) Associated with type 16 & 18
b) Genome is non-integrated
c) Aggregation is non-clonal
d) Associated with host proto-oncogene

A

a) Associated with type 16 & 18

51
Q

A neoplasm associated with Helicobacter pylori

a) Gastric cancer
b) Nasopharyngeal cancer
c) Leukemia
d) Burkitt lymphoma

A

a) Gastric cancer

Nasopharyngeal cancer and Burkitt lymphoma may be caused by EBV.

52
Q

What is the most common paraneoplastic condition?

a) Polycythemia
b) Hypercalcemia
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Myesthenia

A

b) Hypercalcemia

53
Q

True of cancer cachexia

a) loss of ion muscle only
b) caused by nutritional demands of tumor
c) patient’s metabolic rate is reduced
d) effects of cytokines

A

d) effects of cytokines

54
Q

Which of the following factors favors the formation and vessels in a tumor?

a) vasculostatin
b) angiostatin
c) thromboxanes
d) beta fibroblast growth factor

A

d) beta fibroblast growth factor

55
Q

Flow cytometry is helpful in:

a) characterization of leukemia
b) intraoperative consultation
c) diagnosis of cervical cancer
d) Her2/neu protein detection

A

a) characterization of leukemia

Flow cytometry is best for liquid specimen. Freeze histology is best for intraoperative consultation

56
Q

A Fetoprotein is a marker for carcinoma of what organ?

a) thyroid
b) liver
c) pancreas
d) stomach

A

b) liver
The fetal liver produces the fetoprotein and end its production upon birth. Presence of fetoprotein indicates the regression of the hepatocytes.

57
Q

Tumors will not elicit an immune response

a) no production of tumor antigens
b) activation of immune system by chemical carcinogens
c) decreased cytotoxic T- cell
d) overexpression of HLA Type I

A

a) no production of tumor antigens

58
Q

A non-inflammatory edema may result from

a) Infection
b) Congestive heart failure
c) Hyperalbuminemia –causes high capillary osmotic pressure, thus causing
d) DIC

A

b) Congestive heart failure
Infection will cause inflammation and subsequent edema. In hyperalbuminemia, there’s an increase in capillary osmotic pressure causing the fluid to enter the blood vessel.

59
Q

Acute process brought about by arteriolar dilatation

a) –
b) –
c) –
d) hyperemia – definition

A

d) hyperemia – definition

60
Q

Extravasation of blood when the vessel wall ruptures is called

a) congestion
b) edema
c) hemorrhage
d) shock

A

c) hemorrhage

61
Q

. Hallmark of chronic passive congestion of liver

a) Centrilobular necrosis
b) hemosiderin laden macrophages – Hallmark of CPC of lung
c) fatty changes in hepatocyte
d) neutrophilia

A

a) Centrilobular necrosis
Hemosiderin laden macrophages are hallmark of CPC of lungs. Centrilobular necrosis is due to hypoperfusion of the hepatocytes near the central vein (farthest to the source of oxygenated blood) due to the congestion. Fatty changes in the liver occurs in alcoholics and those with protein malnutrition. Neutrophilia is seen during infection.

62
Q

Edema fluid with a specific gravity of 2 is

a) associated with inflammation
b) non-inflammatory
c) has low protein contents
d) is a transudate

A

a) associated with inflammation

Inflammatory edema is characterized by an exudate, which has a specific gravity >1.012 and with high protein content

63
Q

Human’s initial response to injury

a) Vasoconstriction
b) vasodilation
c) platelet adhesion
d) activation of coagulation cascade

A

a) vasoconstriction

Vasoconstriction is the initial response to prevent excessive blood loss during blood vessel injury.

64
Q

The primary hemostastic plug is composed of

a) platelets
b) RBCs –found in the secondary plug
c) WBCs – found in the secondary plug
d) fibrin –secondary plug

A

a) platelets

The other choices are found in the secondary plug.

65
Q

Which of the ff. has a prothrombic property?

a) Prostacyclin
b) Tissue factor
c) Plasmin
d) Thrombomodulin

A

b) Tissue factor

66
Q

In platelet aggregation, platelet to platelet adhesion is mediated by what receptors?

a) Von Willebrand factor
b) Glycoprotein 1b receptor
c) Glycoprotein 2b/3a
d) helper T-cells

A

d) helper T-cells
Von Willebrand factor is a ligand for Glycoprotein 1b receptor found in the endothelium for cell attachment during the start of inflammation. Glycoprotein 2b/3a is a receptor for fibrinogen which binds the platelets.

67
Q

A deficiency of Gp1b receptor results to what condition?

a) Chokes and bends
b) Glanzmann Thrombasthenia
c) Caisson disease
d) Bernard Soulier syndrome

A

d) Bernard Soulier syndrome
Chokes and bends and Caisson disease are examples of decompression sickness which usually occur to divers. It is due to the formation of air emboli. Glanzmann Thrombasthenia is caused by a deficiency in glycoprotein 2b/3a receptor.

68
Q

All factors predisposing to thrombosis except:

a) artherosclerosis
b) hypertension
c) intake of oral contraceptive pills
d) intake of aspirin

A

d) intake of aspirin

Aspirin is an anticoagulant.

69
Q

A thrombus, compared to a post mortem clot,

a) is detached
b) has a gelatinous consistency
c) has Lines of Zahn, seen microscopically
d) takes the shape of the vessel wall

A

c) has Lines of Zahn, seen microscopically

All the other choices are characteristics of a post mortem clot.

70
Q

Which of the ff. is a feature of venous thrombus:

a) –
b) deep leg veins
c) endothelial injury
d) always occlusive

A

b) deep leg veins

71
Q

Formation of lumen in a thrombus

A

Recanalization

72
Q

When a thrombus gets to the arterial circulation

A

Systemic embolism

73
Q

Ischemic necrosis

A

Infarction

74
Q

True of anemic infarcts

a) in organs with w/ loose connective tissue
b) in organs with dual blood supply
c) wedge-shaped
d) found in the lungs

A

c) wedge-shaped

75
Q

The pathogenesis of septic shock starts with which of the following events

a) The binding of lipopolysaccharide capsule (from endotoxin) with leukocytes
b) Activation of cytokines
c) Vasodilation
d) Endothelial ___

A

b) Activation of cytokines

76
Q

Attachment to host cells

a) pili
b) glycoprotein
c) –
d) –

A

aalamin ko ang sagot

77
Q

Viral damage to host cells will morphologically manifest mostly as

a) suppurative
b) necrotizing
c) granulomatous
d) cytopathic- cytoproliferation

A

d) cytopathic- cytoproliferation

78
Q

The following is mostly responsible for the pathogenesis of S. aureus

a) Surface glycoprotein
b) Possession of surface molecules
c) Methicillin resistance
d) Numerous plasmids

A

d) Numerous plasmids

79
Q

TSS is mediated by

a) endotoxin of E. coli
b) Plasmid-mediated toxin of E.coli
c) plasmid mediated toxin of S. aureus
d) endotoxin of S. aureus

A

c) plasmid mediated toxin of S. aureus

80
Q

Rheumatic fever and glumerulonephritis

a) HepA
b) B- hemolytic Strep
c) E. coli
d) measles

A

b) B- hemolytic Strep

81
Q

Which among the ff describes cellulitis?

a) spreading superficial infection of skin
b) caused by B- hemolytic Strep
c) –
d) No systemic signs and symptom

A

a) spreading superficial infection of skin

82
Q

Scarlet fever is associated with

a) erypselas
b) cellulitis
c) tonsilolaryngitis
d) –

A

aalamin ko ang sagot

83
Q

Antibodies (protect/act) against this component:

a) pili
b) capsule
c) nucleus
d) DNA

A

b) capsule

84
Q

Caseating material in granulomas are mostly derived from

a) neutrophils
b) macrophages
c) lymphocytes
d) bacilli

A

c) lymphocytes

85
Q

Tuberculoid leprosy most likely has

a) T cell immune response
b) B cell
c) —
d) —

A

aalamin ko ang sagot

86
Q

Ulceration and sometimes perforation of the ileum usually happens after how many weeks from onset of Typhoid fever?

a) 1 week
b) 2 weeks
c) 3 weeks
d) 4 weeks

A

c) 3 weeks

87
Q

Enterotoxin responsible for illness in cholera:

a) Endotoxin
b) Exotoxin
c) Neurotoxin
d) Integral cell wall part

A

aalamin ko ang sagot

88
Q

Adult genococcal conjunctivitis is transmitted by:

a) sexual intercourse
b) autoinoculation
c) reactivation
d) mosquito

A

b) autoinoculation

89
Q

Gonococcal salpingitis long term effects can include:

a) ectopic pregnancy
b) ovarian fibrosis
c) abortion
d) bacteremia

A

a) ectopic pregnancy

90
Q

During defervescence, the most feared complication is:

a) Thrombocytosis
b) Thrombocytopenia
c) endotoxic shock
d) __

A

b) Thrombocytopenia

91
Q

Most common pathogen in adult acute common cold like symptoms

a) rhinovirus
b) Influenza A
c) Haemophilus influenza
d) RSV

A

a) rhinovirus

92
Q

Vaccine made by Salk is composed of:

a) formaldehyde-inactivated virus
b) attenuated trivalent viral culture
c) attenuated and inactivated virus
d) monovalent attenuated virus

A

a) formaldehyde-inactivated virus

93
Q

The morphologic pattern of necrosis in myocardial infarction

a) coagulation necrosis
b) fat necrosis
c) liquifactive necrosis
d) caseation necrosis

A

a) coagulation necrosis

LU4 - HS202 - E1 Pathology (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions