HOPE Flashcards
Viral damage to host cell is manifested by what inflammation?
a. Suppurative
b. Necrotic
c. Granulomatous
d. Cytopathologic-Cytoproliferative inflammation
d. Cytopathologic-Cytoproliferative inflammation
These reactions are usually produced by viruses. The lesions are characterized by cell necrosis or cellular proliferation, usually with sparse inflammatory cells.
Morphological characteristics of cellular aging?
a. Hemosiderin
b. Abnormal pleiomorphic vacuolated ribosomes
c. Abnormally lobed nucleus
d. Abnormally folded golgi
c. Abnormally lobed nucleus
Typified by Infiltration of tissues by neutrophils
Acute inflammation
Often follows acute inflammation, and may also be the initial or the only detected response to some agents or in certain diseases such as viral infections and hypersensitivity reactions
Chronic inflammation
Occurs when neutrophils dominate the composition and material is liquefied to form pus.
Suppurative or purulent inflammation
A deficiency in Gp1b receptor results to which condition?
a. Chokes and bends
b. Glanzmann Thrombasthenia
c. Caisson Disease
d. Bernard Soulier syndrome
d. Bernard Soulier syndrome
A rare autosomal recessive coagulopathy (bleeding disorder) that causes a deficiency of glycoprotein Ib (GpIb)
Bernard–Soulier syndrome (BSS) (also called hemorrhagiparous thrombocytic dystrophy)
The receptor for von Willebrand factor, which is important in clot formation.
Glycoprotein Ib
Describes a condition arising from dissolved gases coming out of solution into bubbles inside the body on depressurisation.
Decompression sickness (DCS; also known as divers’ disease, the bends, or Caisson disease)
An abnormality of platelets that is an extremely rare coagulopathy (bleeding disorder due to a blood abnormality), in which the platelets contain defective or low levels of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa (GpIIb/IIIa)
Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
A receptor for fibrinogen that is defective in Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia.
Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
Because of this, no fibrinogen bridging of platelets to other platelets can occur, and the bleeding time is significantly prolonged.
- Which of the following is inhibited by steroids
a. Phospholipase
b. Prostaglandin
c. Prostacyclin
d. Thromboxane
b. Prostaglandin
- A type of chronic inflammation characterized by activated macrophage with a modified epithelial like (epitheloid) appearance.
a. Granulomatous inflammation
b. Suppurative inflammation
c. Serous inflammation
d. Purulent inflammation
a. Granulomatous inflammation
A collection of epithelioid macrophages which may coalesce to form multinucleate giant cells (an example is the Langhans giant cell found in the lungs) and are often surrounded by lymphocytes and fibroblasts.
Granuloma
This condition happens when the embolus has gained access into the arterial circulation.
a. Systematic embolism
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Amniotic Fluid embolism
d. Air embolism
a. Systematic embolism
Embolus lodges at the bifurcation of the pulmonary arteries [one whole lung collapsing dead within minute]
Pulmonary embolism
Amniotic fluid contains debris and bacteria that may cause obstruction
Amniotic fluid embolism
Nitrogen dissolves in blood stream, but if you go up to the surface too fast, nitrogen forms bubbles. [at least 60ml of blood to be lethal, if less, air will be absorbed]
Air embolism
What is/are the source/s of histamine and serotonin?
a. Mast cell
b. Basophils
c. Platelets
d. AOTA
d. AOTA
In this solid tissue hypoxia-induced necrosis is due to autolysis rather than protein denaturation.
a. Kidney
b. Spleen
c. Brain
d. Liver
c. Brain
- Which of the following is prothrombic?
a. Prostacyclin
b. Tissue Factor
c. Plasmin
d. Thrombomodulin
b. Tissue Factor
A prostaglandin member of the family of lipid moleculesknown as eicosanoids. It inhibits platelet activation and is also an effective vasodilator
Prostacyclin (or PGI2)
A protein present in subendothelial tissue and leukocytes necessary for the initiation of thrombin formation from the zymogen prothrombin.
Tissue Factor (also called platelet tissue factor, factor III, thromboplastin, or CD142)
An important enzyme present in blood that degrades many blood plasma proteins, most notably, fibrin clots.
Plasmin
An integral membrane protein expressed on the surface of endothelial cells and serves as a cofactor for thrombin. It reduces blood coagulation by converting thrombin to an anticoagulant enzyme from a procoagulant enzyme.
Thrombomodulin (TM), CD141 or BDCA-3
Action of Prostacyclin (PGl2)
Inhibits platelet activation and is also an effective vasodilator
Action of Tissue Factor
Initiation of thrombin formation from the zymogen prothrombin.
Action of Thrombomodulin
It reduces blood coagulation by converting thrombin to an anticoagulant enzyme from a procoagulant enzyme.
Signaling to neighboring cell.
a. Autocrine
b. Endocrine
c. Paracrine
d. Eccrine
c. Paracrine
Why is there no inflammation during apoptosis?
a. Rapid phagocytosis of apoptotic bodies
b. No enzymes in apoptotic bodies
c. No proteins inside apoptotic bodies
d. None of the choices
a. Rapid phagocytosis of apoptotic bodies
Leukomoid reaction
a. ~15 000 – 20 000 cells/uL
b. ~40 000 – 100 000 cells/uL
c. < 10 000 cells/uL
d. < 5 000 cells/uL
b. ~40 000 – 100 000 cells/uL
Extremely high leukocyte counts seen in a non- leukemic state and may be lymphoid or granulocytic in nature
Normal leukocyte count
4,500 - 10,000 cells/uL
Differentiate leukemoid reaction from leukemia
- Presence of an appropriate underlying condition
- Morphology of white blood cells: reactive e.g. toxic changes vs. neoplastic
- No evidence of bone marrow failure (anemia or thrombocytopenia)
- High LAP score in granulocytic reactions
- A routine aerobic culture of the respiratory specimen of the pneumonia patient would most likely show
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus pneumonia
d. Neisseria meningitides
c. Streptococcus pneumonia
S. pneumonia - common cause of community-acquired pneumonia and meningitis in adults.
- What results from the rupture of blood vessel walls?
a. Hyperemia
b. Congestion
c. Hemorrhage
d. Hematoma
c. Hemorrhage
- This component gives the ability for stretch recoil:
a. Cartilage
b. Fibrillin
c. Collagen
d. Elastin
d. Elastin
Which of the following is not oncogenic:
a. HPV
b. HBV
c. Herpes virus
d. EBV
c. Herpes virus
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) : Cervical Cancer
Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) : _______________
Nasopharyngeal cancer, Burkitt’s lymphoma
Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) is an oncogenic DNA virus that may cause
Liver cancer
- Which one is a benign neoplasm?
a. Hepatoma
b. Lymphoma
c. Melanoma
d. Adenoma
d. Adenoma
An adenoma is a benign tumor (-oma) of glandular origin
Short for Hepatocellular carcinoma (malignant)
Hepatoma
Refers to blood cancer (malignant)
Lymphoma
Malignant tumor of melanocyte
Melanoma
- What cell comprises primary hemostasis?
a. RBC
b. WBC
c. Platelet
d. —
c. Platelet
Defined as the formation of the primary platelet plug and involves platelets, the blood vessel wall and von Willebrand factor.
Primary hemostasis
- A grade school patient exhibited a tan, rubbery to firm, cauliflower-like lesion of about 0.5 cm in diameter on her right palm. What is the etiology of this?
a. HPV 1
b. HPV 16
c. HPV 18
d. HPV11
a. HPV 1
HPV types that cause common warts and plantar warts
HPV Types 1, 2, 4
HPV types that cause anogenital warts
HPV Types 6, 10, 11, 40-45
Anogenital warts caused by these types are called condyloma acuminata, not to be confused with condyloma lata.
HPV types that cause squamous cell dysplasias and squamous cell carcinomas of the female genital tract
HPV Types 16, 18, 31
A classmate in med school developed flu like illness a few days after the start of the sem. A cbcb showed wbc count of 15,000 cells per ml, 55% of which are lymphocytes. A peripheral blood smear has a no. Of atypical forms. IgM antibodies to a certain virus were positive.
Which is the possible causative agent?
a. HSV
b. EBV
c. Dengue
d. HPV2
b. EBV
Clinical presentation of EBV
Peripheral blood count – absolute lymphocytosis with a total white count between 12,000 and 18,000 cells/ml, more than 60% lymphocytes, many atypical (oval, indented, or folded nuclei, vacuolated cytoplasm, with T cell markers)
What is the common cause of increased vascular permeability?
a. Endothelial injury
b. Leukocyte mediated injury
c. Increase in interendothelial space
c. Increase in interendothelial space
Endothelial cell contraction leading to intercellular gaps in postcapillary venules is the most common cause of increased vascular permeability.
- The following is true about nitric oxide
a. Promotes vasodilation
b. Also known as your endothelial derived relaxation factor
c. Inhibits platelet adhesion and aggregation
d. AOTA
d. AOTA
- True of collagen
a. Collagen in skin and bone is Type I
b. There are at least 5 types of collagen
c. Type 2 is found in basal membrane
d. Vitamin K is essential in the synthesis of collagen
a. Collagen in skin and bone is Type I
Collagen found in skin, tendon, vascular ligature, organs, bone
Collagen Type I (one on the bone)
Collagen found in cartilage
Collagen Type II
Collagen found in reticular fibers
Collagen Type III
Collagen found in basement membrane
Collagen Type IV (four on the floor)
- Inadequate granulation tissue formation can lead to
a. Contracture
b. Keloid formation
c. Ulceration
d. Proud flesh
c. Ulceration
This type of scar formation can lead to two types of complications: wound dehiscence and ulceration
Deficient scar formation
Which of the following do free radicals damage?
a. Mitochondria
b. Cell membrane
b. Cell membrane
(from Robbins) Reactive Oxygen species cause injury to cell membranes by lipid peroxidation.
Genital warts caused by HPV is usually caused by
a. Increased hormonal stimulation by estrogen
b. Increased production of virus in cells
c. Excessive stimulation of growth factor
d. AOTA
d. AOTA
Irreversible nuclear change seen morphologically as fragmentation
a. Karyolysis
b. Pyknosis
c. Karyorrhexis
d. NOTA
c. Karyorrhexis
Tuberculosis granuloma consists of
a. Granular debris
b. Neutrophilic infiltrates
c.
d. Basophilic calcium deposits
b. Neutrophilic infiltrates or d. Basophilic calcium deposits
Solid organ that undergoes autolysis
a. Brain
b. Lung
c. Kidney
d. Stomach
a. Brain
Necrosis with the following characteristics:
Primary biochemical process is autolysis
Occurs in tissues with high fluid content
Seen in brain infarcts and abscesses
Liquefactive Necrosis
The following choices involve dysrepair except
a. Apoptosis
b. Necrosis
c. Fibrosis
d. Cancer
a. Apoptosis
60% of all common colds among children are caused by
RSV - Respiratory Syncitial Virus
Major respiratory pathogen of young children; foremost cause of lower respiratory disease in infants
Most of the caseating material in TB infections is derived from
a. Lysis of macrophage
b. Karyorrhexis of acute inflammatory cells
c. Pus
d. Liquefaction necrosis
a. Lysis of macrophage
What is the most distinguishing feature of CPC of the liver?
a. Centrilobular necrosis
b. Hemosiderin laden macrophage
c. Presence of fat in hepatocytes
a. Centrilobular necrosis
Most important cells in hemostasis
a. RBC
b. Lymphocytes
c. Endothelial cells
d. Epithelial cells
c. Endothelial cells
What describes an anemic infarct?
a. Common in organs with loose connective tissue
b. Wedge shaped
c. Common in liver
d. Common in lungs
b. Wedge shaped
