Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FRCSC > SAQ 2 > Flashcards

SAQ 2 Flashcards

1
Q

List 5 risk factors for failure of bracing in AIS

A 
Male
Suboptimal correction in-brace
Non-compliance
Obesity
Hypokyphotic thoracic curve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

List 5 radiographic findings of femoral head AVN in DDH

A 
Delayed development of ossific nucleus
Fragmentation of ossific nucleus
Lateral physeal irregularity
Metaphyseal widening
Varus neck with GT overgrowth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List 5 radiographic findings in pediatric rheumatoid spine

A 
Apophyseal fusion (C2-3 usually)
Dens waist erosion (apple core deformity)
Atlantoaxial instability
Hypoplastic vertebral bodies
Loss of cervical lordosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

List 6 risk factors for PJK

A

Combined approached
Fusion to sacrum (more rigidity but also worse curve)
Pedicle screws at all levels (increased rigidity)
>5 degree kyphosis at UIV preoperatively
High preoperative pelvic incidence (saggital imbalance)
Osteopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the transfers for a wrist drop?

A

PL to EPL
FCR to EDC
Pronator teres to ECRB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List the two transfers indicated in a high median nerve palsy

A

BR to FPL

D4/5 FDP side-to-side transfer to D2/3 FDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List 5 criteria for selective thoracic fusion in AIS

A 
Lenke C modifier
Thoracic prominence > lumbar on Adams FBT
Lifestyle factors
Skeletally mature
Absence of hyperlaxity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is congenital radioulnar synostosis associated with?

A 
MACKA
Mandibulfacial dysostosis
Apert syndrome
Carpenter's syndrome
Klinefelter's syndrome
Arthrogryposis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is syndactyly associated with?

A 
PACA
Poland syndrome
Apert syndrome
Carpenter's syndrome
Acrosyndactyly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

List 5 methods of assessing for patella alta and indicate normal values for each

A
  1. Caton-Deschamps (0.6-1.3)
  2. Insall-Salvati (0.8-1.2)
  3. Blackburne-Peel (0.5-1)
  4. Plateau-patella angle (normal 20 degrees)
  5. Blumenstaat’s line should touch the inferior patellar pole at 30 degrees of knee flexion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List 5 poor prognostic factors in pilon fractures

A 
Male
Multiple comorbidities
Lower SES
Lower education level
WSIB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When is a valgus osteotomy indicated in coxa vara?

A

Hilgenreiner epiphyseal angle >60 degrees and neck-shaft angle <110

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List 4 risk factors for Blount’s

A

Early walkers
Overweight
African American
Hispanic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for NF1?

A 
6 or more cafe-au-lait spots
2 or more neurofibromas/1 plexiform neurofibroma
2 or more Lisch nodules
optic glioma
axillary/inguinal freckling
characteristic bony abnormality
family history in 1st degree relative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the features of Klippel-Feil syndrome?

A 
Multiple cervical levels of failure of segmentation
Cervical stenosis
Sprengel's deformity
Scoliosis
VACTERL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What’s the best predictor of progression of spondylolisthesis?

A

Slip angle >45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 2 most common comorbid findings in patients with myelodysplasia?

A

Chiari II malformation

Severe latex allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What conditions arise from abnormalities in COMP?

A

Pseudoachondroplasia

MED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Ehlers-Danlos is a disorder of which collagen type?

A

V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which factor is deficient in Hemophilia A? B?

A

A: F VIII
B: F IX

21
Q

List 5 features of DISH that differentiate it from ankylosing spondylitis

A

HLA-B27 negative
No sacroiliitis
Disc spaces preserved
Nonmarginal syndesmophytes at 4 successive vertebrae
Strongly-associated with diabetes and gout

22
Q

List 5 changes that occur in the intervertebral disks with aging

A 
Decreased proteoglycans
Decreased water content
Decreased pH
Increased fibrocartilage
Increase degradative enzyme activity
23
Q

Are MEPs or SEPs affected by inhalational anesthetics?

A

MEPs

24
Q

What are Waddell’s 5 signs of non-organic back pain?

A 
Overreaction to physical exam
SLR negative when patient distracted
Non-dermatomal pattern
Superficial tenderness
Pain with axial compression
25
Q

What’s Ranawat’s C1-2 index?

A

Perpendicular distance from the center of the C2 pedicle to a line connecting the anterior and posterior arches of C1. <13-mm is indicative of basilar invagination.

26
Q

What’s the rate of depression after acute orthopaedic trauma? What about PTSD?

A

MDD: 1/3
PTSD: 1/4

27
Q

Compared to delayed closure, what are the advantages of early primary closure?

A

Fewer infections

Fewer non-unions

28
Q

What’s the rate of articular malreductions in tibial plateau fractures? Where is the malreduction usually? What’s a risk factor?

A

32%
Posterolateral
Fluoroscopic-assisted reduction alone (submeniscal arthrotomy-assisted reduction had much fewer)

29
Q

What did the RCT comparing standard reaming vs. RIA-reaming in antegrade femoral shaft nailing show?

A

Fewer total emboli in RIA-reaming group, but this did not correlate with improvement in physiologic parameters

30
Q

What’s the trajectory of functional recovery following tibial shaft fracture and IMN?

A

Initial decline until 6 months
Improvement from 6-12 months
*At 5 years, patients are NOT back at their pre-injury baseline

31
Q

What’s the most significant risk factor for hardware removal after ankle fracture surgery?

A

Female

32
Q

What did the HULC study looking at functional outcomes following radial head arthroplasty for irreconstructable fractures, specifically comparing patients with simple and complex fracture-dislocations show?

A

No difference between the two groups (ie: concomitant injuries don’t affect outcomes)

33
Q

What did the RCT comparing IMN vs. DHS for unstable intertrochanteric hip fractures in geriatric patients show?

A

No difference overall, but trend towards significant improvement for physiologically younger and active patients treated with IMN

34
Q

What did the RCT comparing LISS-plating vs. DCS for distal femoral fractures show?

A

Same time to union
Same functional outcomes
More complications in the LISS group

35
Q

Are NSAIDs safe after acute fracture surgery?

A

For primary bone healing, yes.

For secondary bone healing, only during the 1st week.

36
Q
  1. What’s the most common nerve injury after acetabular fracture surgery?
  2. What fracture patterns are most associated with neurologic injury (3)?
  3. What % of iatrogenic nerve injuries recover?
A
  1. L5 nerve root contained in the sciatic nerve
  2. transverse-posterior wall, posterior wall, ABC
  3. Only 45% recover
37
Q

List 5 risk factors for reoperation following ORIF of a tibial plateau fracture

A 
open fracture
bicondylar
associated tibial shaft
surgery performed at night/weekend
surgery performed at a non-academic centre
38
Q

What are the 2 risk factors for hardware removal after clavicle ORIF?

A

plate not pre-contoured

height <175 cm

39
Q

What are the 5 risk factors for revision surgery for major complication (infection, non-union, hardware failure) after clavicle ORIF?

A 
age >55
diabetes
ETOH
drug use
previous shoulder surgery

*2 predictors = 90% risk

40
Q

List 5 predictors of poor outcome after limb salvage/amputation

A 
nonwhite race
low SES
low self-efficacy
smoker
WSIB
41
Q

What did the FAITH study (DHS vs. cannulated screws for patients >50 with low-energy hip fracture) show?

A

No difference in outcomes/reoperations

AVN more common in DHS group

42
Q

List 5 poor prognostic factors following tibial IMN

A 
high-energy mechanism
stainless steel nail
fracture gap
immediate WBAT
open fracture (only if treated with reamed IMN)
43
Q

What were the findings of the FLOW study?

A

no differences between high, medium and low pressure

saline > soap

44
Q

List 5 factors that differentiates juvenile hallux valgus from adult

A 
bilateral
metatarsus primus varus
increased IMA
increased DMAA
associated with flatfoot
45
Q

Which 5 factors automatically convert an open fracture to a Gustillo III?

A 
exposure to water
exposure to soil
exposure to fecal material
bite wounds
delay >12 hrs
46
Q

List 5 risk factors for distal humerus fractures in the elderly

A 
Female
Active
Independent living
Polypharmacy
ETOH
47
Q

Rank cobalt, chromium, titanium and nickel in order of delayed hypersensitivity reaction-association

A

Nickel
Cobalt
Chromium
(Titanium is inert)

48
Q

List 5 risk factors for metal hypersensitivity

A 
female
smoker
family Hx
ear piercings
hand eczema

FRCSC (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions