Sams Monitoring/Surg Notecards Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two different classifications of neuro monitoring?

A

Blood Flow/Metabolic

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2
Q

Name 3 blood flow monitors?

A

Cerebral oximetry
Transcrania doppler
Jug Bulb Venous O2 saturation

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3
Q

Name 4 nervous system function monitors

A
EEG
SSEP
BAEP
VEP
MEP
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4
Q

What law estimates brain tissue saturation?

A

Beer–lambert

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5
Q

Beer lambert law devise that detects decreases in CBF in relation to CMRO2?

A

Cerebral Oximetry Near–Infrared Spectroscopy

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6
Q

Name 5 things that change accuracy of cerebral oximetry

A
BP
PaCO2
Hgb
Regional blood flow
Scalp O2
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7
Q

Measure NIRS initially when?

A

Prior to induction

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8
Q

What is your goal in maintaining NIRS during surgery?

A

75% of baseline

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9
Q

When is NIRS used the most? 2nd most?

A

Carotid surgery

Cardiac surgery

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10
Q

Normal cerebral venous O2 saturation?

A

60–80%

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11
Q

Limitation of NIRS?

A

ONly measures regional oxygenation

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12
Q

What rule says that the depth of tissue being measured by NIRS is directly proportional to the distance between the LED and sensor?

A

Spatial Resolution

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13
Q

NIRS monitors what lobe?

A

Frontal

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14
Q

Do electrocautery interfere with NIRS?

A

Yes

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15
Q

What displays the difference between regional O2 and baseline?

A

Delta Base

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16
Q

What index quantifies that depth and duration of patient staying under user–define rSO2 limit alarm?

A

Area Under Curve (AUC)

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17
Q

What is shorthand for NIRS tissue oxygen saturation?

A

rSO2

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18
Q

What displays the differnce between SpO2 and rSO2?

A

Delta SpO2

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19
Q

The top number in NIRS is the _ side of the head.

A

Left

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20
Q

Trancranial doppler ultrasonography measures _____ not ______.

A

Velocity not Volume

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21
Q

Narrowed segments of blood will show increased ________ even though there is lower volume of blood traversing.

A

Velocity

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22
Q

TC Doppler is MOST commonly positioned over the _______ to monitor the ______.

A

Temporal Bone

MCA

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23
Q

Would increased temporal bone thickness mess with your doppler?

A

Yes

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24
Q

Where does the doppler measure blood flow velocity?

A

Circle of Willis

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25
Q

What monitor provides information regarding flow direction, peak systolic and end–diastolic velocity, flow acceleration time, intensity of pulsatile flow, and detection of microemboli?

A

Doppler

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26
Q

Doppler on the base of the neck monitors the ____ artery.

A

Basilar

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27
Q

How much blood flow does the jugular bulb drain from the ipsilateral side?

A

70%

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28
Q

What is the dominant IJ in most patients? What does it drain?

A

Right

Cortical blood

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29
Q

What is the non–dominant IJ in most patients? What does it drain?

A

Left

Subcortical

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30
Q

Where is the jugular bulb accessed?

A

1cm below and 1cm anterior to the mastoid process.

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31
Q

The jugular bulb is near what sinus?

A

Sigmoid

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32
Q

SjvO2 monitors for ischemia in patients with increased _____. Maintenance goal percent?

A

ICP

55–75%

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33
Q

Is the SjvO2 the same bilaterally?

A

no

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34
Q

SjvO2 less than 55% indicates what 2 things

A

Inadequate delivery

Excessive consumption

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35
Q

SjvO2 greater than 75% indicates what 2 things?

A

Hyperemia

Stroke

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36
Q

EEG only monitors what structures?

A

Cortical (outer 2–3cm)

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37
Q

3 basic components of EEG?

A

Frequency
Amplitude
Morphology

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38
Q

EEG measures the difference of _____ between groups of neurons

A

Electrical Potentials

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39
Q

Will ischemia be detected in the subcortex or spinal cord by EEG?

A

No

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40
Q

List of EEG waves from fastest to slowest?

A
Gamma
Beta
Alpha
Theta
Delta
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41
Q

What is my mnemonic for remembering the EEG waves from high to low?

A

Go Buy A Truck Dear

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42
Q

_____ waves signal the potential for increased ischemia and ischemic damage

A

Delta

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43
Q

What wave initially occurs when the brain expereinces ischemia? What increases after that?

A

Beta

Amplitude

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44
Q

After beta waves and amplitude increase, what waves appear during ischemia?

A

Theta and Delta

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45
Q

Which style of anesthetic depresses EEG more at equal doses?

A

Inhalation

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46
Q

Inhalation agents increase the ______ and decrease the _____ of EEG waveforms at low and moderate doses

A

Increased frequency

Decreased Amplitude

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47
Q

Just like inhalation agents, induction doses of etomidate, propofol, and ketamine cause _____ waves at low and moderate doses?

A

Beta

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48
Q

Once stage 3 anesthesia is reached, frequency is _____ and amplitude is _______

A

Frequency lower

Amplitude Higher

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49
Q

Which anesthetic produces no theta and delta waves, just high oscillation waves?

A

Ketamine

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50
Q

Delta waves are mostly if the patient is very _____

A

Deep

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51
Q

What type of wave is usually evident at a full anesthetic depth?

A

Theta waves

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52
Q

Gamma hz?

A

30–100

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53
Q

Beta Hz?

A

10–30

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54
Q

Alpha hz?

A

8–15

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55
Q

Theta hz?

A

4–8

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56
Q

Delta hz?

A

0.5–4

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57
Q
Which EEG waves occur with:
Heightened perception
Learning
Problem solving tasks
Cognitive processing
A

Gamma waves

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58
Q
Awake
Alert
Conscious
Thinking
Excited
A

Beta waves

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59
Q

Physically and mentally relaxed waves

A

Alpha

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60
Q

Creative, insightful, dreaming, meditating, reduced consciousness?

A

Theta waves

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61
Q

Deep sleep without dreams, loss of bodily awareness, repair?

A

Delta waves

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62
Q

True or false: Etomidate and prop can cause burst suppression

A

TRUE

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63
Q

Burst suppression occurs with Iso at ____ MAC.

A

1.5

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64
Q

Burst suppression occurs with Sevo or Des at _____ MAC.

A

1.2

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65
Q

Is BIS more predictive with inhalation?

A

Yes

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66
Q

BIS less than _____ reflects low probability of recall

A

60

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67
Q

What lobe does BIS look at

A

Frontal

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68
Q

GA BIS?

A

40–60

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69
Q

Awake BIS

A

80–100

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70
Q

Mild/mod sedation BIS?

A

60–80

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71
Q

Deep hypnotic BIS?

A

20–40

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72
Q

Burst suppression BIS?

A

Less than 20

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73
Q

Flat line EEG BIS (lack of brain activity) value?

A

0

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74
Q

True or False: BIS values under 40 for greater than 5 minutes increases mortality

A

TRUE

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75
Q

What anesthetic produces falsely high BIS at appropriate levels of anesthesia?

A

Ketamine

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76
Q

Mechanical stress to brain?

A

Retraction

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77
Q

Loss of functional intergity of brain?

A

Transection

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78
Q

Ligation, edema, or vessel damage to the brain causes?

A

Ischemia

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79
Q

Heat to the brain is caused by?

A

Cautery

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80
Q

T or F: Anemia, hypothermia, hotn, and positioning affect evoked potentials

A

TRUE

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81
Q

3 evoked potentials monitor _ function

A

Sensory

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82
Q

_____ decrease in amplitude or ______ increase in latency is indicative of CNS ischemia?

A

50% amplitude

10% latency

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83
Q

Positive and neg deflection on EPs are what letter? What number is listed by them?

A

P

N

Time until response (latency)

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84
Q

Which EP detects localized injury to specific area of the neural axis by assessing cortically generated waves?

A

SSEP

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85
Q

Can SSEP serve as a non–specific indicator of adequacy of cerebral oxygenation?

A

Yes

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86
Q

The main purpose of SSEP is to evaluate the integrity of the brain or _________

A

Spinal cord

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87
Q

SSEP specifically monitors the _______ and ______ tracts of the dorsal lemniscal system.

A

Cuneatus

Gracilis

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88
Q

The cunateus is more ______, while the gracility is more _______.

A

Cuneatus = Lateral

Gracilis = Medial

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89
Q

SSEP is altered if brain or ______ spinal cord ischemia occurs

A

Posterior

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90
Q

Which lemnicscal system monitors the cervical and thoracic regions?

A

Cuneatus

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91
Q

The fasciculus gracilis measures the _____ and _____ regions

A

Sacral and Lumbar

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92
Q

SSEPs monitor integrity of the ________ cortex.

A

Somatosensory

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93
Q

What three sensations does the dorsal lemniscal tract carry?

A

Discrete Touch

Vibration

Proprioception

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94
Q

Where do the first order neurons synapse with second order neurons in the dorsal lemniscal system?

A

Nucleous Gracilis/Cuneatus

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95
Q

Where do second order neurons of the dorsal lemniscus system synapse with third order neurons?

A

Thalamus

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96
Q

SSEP stimulating electrodes are placed ______

A

Peripherally

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97
Q

Most common 2 nerves for SSEP stimulating electrode?

A

Posterior Tibial

Median

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98
Q

Backup nerve sites for SSEP stimulating electrodes?

A

Common Peroneal

Ulnar

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99
Q

Primary SSEP detecting electrodes are on the ______. Secondary recordings are on the _____

A

Scalp

Spine

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100
Q

Where do you record a nerve itself peripherally for verifying stimulation of SSEPs in the lower extremity?

A

Iliac Crest

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101
Q

Where do you record a nerve itself peripherally for verifying stimulation of SSEPs in the upper extremity?

A

ERB’s point

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102
Q

What body part is Erb’s point located

A

Neck

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103
Q

SSEP latency increases 3ms for every 2 degree ______ in temp

A

Decrease

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104
Q

________ suppreses SSEP amplitude to 15% of normal

A

Hyperthermia

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105
Q

Which 2 anesthetics increase SSEP amplitude 2–6x?

A

Ketamine and Etomidate

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106
Q

With SSEP’s avoid ________ of anesthesia which could be confused for ischemia

A

Boluses/changes

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107
Q

What CN does BAEP monitor

A

CN 8 Vestibulocochlear

also for brainstem surg

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108
Q

What evoked potential is least sensitive to anesthesia?

A

BAEP

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109
Q

The only non–damange factor the increases latency of BAEP?

A

Hypothermia

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110
Q

What happens to BAEP as temp increases?

A

Amplitude Increases

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111
Q

Electromyography senses mechanical and thermal damage to what CN?

A

7 (facial)

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112
Q

Standard of care for acoustic tumor surgery

A

Electromyography

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113
Q

What CN can electromyography measure

A

3, 4, 7, 10, 11, 12

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114
Q

What should you avoid when doing electromyography facial nerve monitoring?

A

Muscle relaxants

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115
Q

____________ monitor optic chasm, optic nerve, retina to occipital cortex?

A

VEP

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116
Q

Patterned flash VEP’s are used on _____ patients.

A

Awake

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117
Q

_______ flast VEPS via goggles are contacts are used under anesthesia

A

Unpatterned

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118
Q

When do you have to cover the contralateral eye for VEPs?

A

Monocular

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119
Q

_____ are rarely used under anesthesia because stable recordings vary among patients

A

VEP

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120
Q

MEPs assess the ______ spinal cord and __________ tract.

A

Anterior

Corticospinal

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121
Q

Volatiles and NMB suppress MEPs. Avoid NMB to a level greater than ____ reduction in height of ulnar nerve response.

A

70%

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122
Q

Best anesthetic for MEPs?

A

TIVA (prop, ket, narc)

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123
Q

List the most affected evoked potentials to the least.

A

VEP>MEP>SSEP>BAEP

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124
Q

MEPs are mostly used during _____ procedures

A

Spinal

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125
Q

Where is the stimulating electrode placed for MEPs?

A

Centrally (motor cortex, SC)

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126
Q

Use less than ____ MAC for SSEP or MEP

A

0.5

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127
Q

What is avoided for MEPs w/ PPM, bladder/spinal stimulator, previous crani, metal in body?

A

Magnetic stimulation

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128
Q

How to remember anestehtic effects on evoked potentials

A

Very affected
Moderately affected
Somewhat affected
Barely affected

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129
Q

First compensatory mechanism for increased ICP

A

CSF absorption or shunt to SC

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130
Q

What occurs initially when volume compensating mechanisms reach exhaustion in skull

A

Local Ischemia followed by global

131
Q

What cerebri separates L and R hemisphere?

A

Falx

132
Q

What separates the supratentorial and infratentorial space

A

Tentorium Cerebelli

133
Q

What type of herniation occurs at the singulate gyrus under the falx cerebri and causes midline shift?

A

Subfalcine

134
Q

What type of herniation occurs at the uncinate gyrus through the tentorium cerebelli which causes brainstem compression?

A

Transtentorial

135
Q

Altered consciousness, sight and ocular reflex issues, respiratory and cardiac function would b cause when the ______ gyrus goes through the _________

A

Uncinate

Tentorium

136
Q

What subtype of transtentorial herniation is associated with oculomotor nerve dysfunction

A

Uncal

137
Q

What type of herniation results from increased infratentorial pressure causing extension of cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum?

A

Tonsillar herniation

138
Q

Tonsilar herniation would cause _______ instability due to pressure on the _______.

A

Cardiorespiratory

Medulla

139
Q

_______ or _______ herniation is any area beneath a defect of the skull or going through the skull?

A

Transcalvarial

External

140
Q

Gold standard for ICP

A

Intraventricular (ventriculostomy

141
Q

Lumbar drainage of CSF in the setting of brain tumore may lead to ____ herniation.

A

Tonsillar

142
Q

Does lumbar pressure always reflect brain?

A

No

143
Q

Which 2 devices allow monitoring and csf drainage

A

Lumbar SAC

Ventric

144
Q

Ventriculostomy is zeroed _____ with the jugular ______ at the level of the ______.

A

Daily

Foramen

Tragus

145
Q

Can ventrics be set to only drain when pressure gets to a certain value?

A

Yes

146
Q

What type of drain would be used for ICP monitoring for a pituitary surgery with difficult access

A

Lumbar

147
Q

The most common complication of ICP monitoring?

A

Infection

148
Q

Infection is increased when ICP ismonitored more than ___ days

A

5

149
Q

First peak of ICP (P1)

A

Arterial pulse

150
Q

Second peak of ICP (P2)

A

Cerebral Compliance

151
Q

3rd peak of ICP (P3)?

A

AV closure, dicrotic notce

152
Q

P1 is a ____ wave, P2 is a _____ wave, P3 is a _____ wave.

A

Percussive
Tidal
Dicrotic

153
Q

Intracranial HTN is when ____ is greater than P1.

A

P2

154
Q

______ is the inverse of compliance

A

Elastance

155
Q

What is the lundberg A wave?

A

Plateau wave

156
Q

Lundberg A waves last up to ___ minutes with an ICP of _____. They indicate increases ________ or decreased _______.

A

20
20–100
Elastance
Compliance

157
Q

Lunberg A waves have _______ outcomes due to ____________ ischemia.

A

Poor, global

158
Q

What wave would be seen during cushing’s triad?

A

Lundberg A

159
Q

Cushing’s triad?

A

HTN (wide PP)
Bradycardia
Irregular respirations

160
Q

Sharp brief P2 spikes when ICP is 20–50

A

Lundberg B

161
Q

Rhythmic benign short duration spikes when ICP is less than 20

A

Lundberg C

162
Q

ICP is treated when it reaches____

A

20

163
Q

Primary symptom of IC HTN

A

HA

164
Q

When ICP exceeds 30, CBF _____ which can lead to brain herniation vicious cycle

A

Decreases

165
Q

3 ways tumors increase ICP

A

Size
Edema
Obstructed CSF flow

166
Q

Congenital narrowing of the cerebral aqueduct of sylvius between the 3rd and fourth ventricle

A

Aqueductal stenosis

167
Q

Main sx or aqueductal stenosis

A

Seizure

168
Q

For aqueductal stenosis, CT or MRI will show enlarged ______ ventricle and normal ____ ventricle due to hydrocephalus

A

3rd

4th

169
Q

Treatment for aqueductal stenosis

A

Ventricular Shunting

170
Q

Pseudotumor cerebri?

A

Benign intracranial HTN

171
Q

Obsese women w/ menstrual irregularities, SLE, PCOD, addison’s or hypoparathyroidism, during pregnancy?

A

Benign ICH

172
Q

Acute treatment of benign ICH?

A

CSF removal
acetazolamide
Corticosteroids

173
Q

How much CSF do you remove for benign ICH (pressure over 20)

A

20–40cc

174
Q

2 symptoms of benign ICH

A

HA, visual change

175
Q

Side effect of acetazolamide ICH treatment

A

Acidemia

176
Q

Is acetazolamide a good drug for acute benign ICH treatmetn?

A

No, more chronic

177
Q

Avoid ____ and _____ when treating benign ICH

A

Hypoxia and hypercarbia

178
Q

If a patient has benign ICH w/ lumboperitoneal shunt, what type of anesthsia is avoided?

A

Spinal (less effective_

Epidural (dangerous)

179
Q

4 subcompartments of intracranial space

A

Cellular (surgeon)
CSF (drainage)
Fluid (Osmotics, diuretics, steroids)
Blood (venous and arterial)

180
Q

Not recommended to remove CSF in patients with risk of ____ or _____ herniation

A

Transtentorial

Tonsillar

181
Q

What intracranial subcompartment can we control most during surgery

A

Venous blood

182
Q

All volatile agents ______ ICP, CBV, and CBF

A

Increase

183
Q

Because volatiles causes systemic vasodilation and increased CBF, what will happen to CPP?

A

Decreased!

184
Q

CMRO2 is decreased and autoregulation is impaire around _________ MAC.

A

1

185
Q

CMRO2–CBF uncoupling occurs at _____ MAC

A

0.6–1ish

186
Q

Order the volatiles that increase CBF from greatest to least?

A

Des Sevo Iso

187
Q

What gas increases absorption of CSF

A

Iso

188
Q

Volatile agents are _____ in global ischemia

A

Beneficial

189
Q

Volatile agents are _______ in focal ischemia due to steal phenomenon

A

BBad

190
Q

Iso breaks the rule because it affects CBF the least, but it double CBF if you get to _____ MAC

A

1.5

191
Q

True or false: N2O increases CBF and CMRO2

A

TRUE

192
Q

N2O doubles CBF at ___ MAC

A

0.5

193
Q

What gas causes •Prolongedaccumulation of metabolic breakdown products can lead to megaloblastic anemia,leukopenia, impaired fetal development, and a depressed immune system (inhibitionof methionine synthase co–factor ofvit B12)

A

N2O

194
Q

Does N2O impair autoregulation on its own?

A

NO. Only when with gas

195
Q

N2O is ___ soluble than nitrogen

A

More

196
Q

All agents excepts ketamine ________ CMRO2, CBF, and ICP

A

Decrease

197
Q

Good drug for wake up tests

A

Dex

198
Q

What induction drug decreases production and enhances absorption of CSF

A

Etomidate

199
Q

Why does etomidate maintain CPP better than prop

A

Less MAP decrease

200
Q

Most widely used induction agent in neuro anesthesia

A

Propofol (Seizure suppression)

201
Q

When is etomidate not your first choice in TBI

A

Adrenal supression

202
Q

Do opioids mess with CMRO2, CBF, ICP?

A

Not too much

203
Q

Which opioid can activate sizures, decrease MAP and CPP

A

Alfentanil

204
Q

Which opioid to not use in neuro surgery because it causes seizure

A

Meperidine

205
Q

Large doses of flumazenil cause _____

A

Seizures

206
Q

Do benzos reduce CBF, ICP?

A

Dose dependent

207
Q

Opioids are mild cerebral ________

A

Vasoconstrictors

208
Q

How do you reverse demerol seizures?

A

Slow narcan

209
Q

Ketamine won’t increase ICP if given with GABA agonist like prop or midazolam?

A

TRUE

210
Q

Is ketamine a good sole agent in neuro

A

No

211
Q

Do NDNMB affect brain

A

No

212
Q

Does sux increase ICP, CBF, CMRO2?

A

Yes

213
Q

What 2 NDNMBs to avoid in neuro

A

Panc, atracurium

214
Q

Are sodium NTP and NTG safe in pateitns with abnormal elastance?

A

NO, avoid

215
Q

Inhalation agents _____ CBF, IV agents ________ CBF

A

Increase

Decrease

216
Q

All anesthetics/opioids ___________ CPP

A

decrease (or stay the same)

217
Q

Inhaltion agent ______ ICP, while IV ________

A

Increase

Decrease

218
Q

First line goal value of hypocapnea

A

30–35

219
Q

2nd line goal of hypocapnea

A

25-30

220
Q

Does ICP decrease more when you decrease CO2 below 20?

A

No

221
Q

You can’t do hyperventilation and hypocapnea within 24 hours of ________

A

TBI

222
Q

When you hyperventilate and decrease PaCO2, CBF returns to it’s starting value after about ______ hours.

A

8

223
Q

What alters the concentration of bicarb in the CSF and brain ECF to cause pH to normalize?

A

Carbonic Anhydrase

224
Q

Communicate BP goals with _____ prior to surgery.

A

Surgeon

225
Q

Clinical improvement of steroids is usually seen within ____ hours.

A

24 hours

226
Q

True or false: ICP may not be reduces until 2–3 days after you start steroids?

A

TRUE

227
Q

Start steroids _______ hour priop to reduce edema formation and improve conditions

A

48 hours

228
Q

Most common dosing for decadron preop

A

4mg Q6hours

229
Q

Steroids for TBI patients is _______

A

Contraindicated

230
Q

Can you decrease intra–op edema by giving the first dose of steroids on induction

A

No

231
Q

Most common and effective osmotic diuretic

A

Mannitol

232
Q

Mannitol dose range

A

0.25–1g/kg over 10–15 minutes

233
Q
Manittol
Removes \_\_\_ ml
Decreases ICP in \_\_\_ minutes
Max effect \_\_\_\_ hours
Duration \_\_\_\_ hours
UOP \_\_\_\_\_
A
100ml
30
2
6
1–2L/hr
234
Q

True or false: Give mannitol rapidly

A

False, causes vasodilation and increased ICP

235
Q

What do you give mannitol with to increase excretion of water from intravascular space and decrease rate of CSF formation

A

Loop diuretic

236
Q

When does mannitol make ICP worse?

A

Ruptured BBB

237
Q

What type of patient would you give lasix with mannitol

A

CHF

238
Q

What metabolic state does mannitol cause

A

Hypokalemic Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

239
Q

Make sure you monitor ____ when on mannitol

A

Electrolytes

240
Q

What % of saline has similar effects on iCP at 2 hours?

A

3%

241
Q

You usually give 3% as a infusion, but what dose can you bolus over 5 minutes?

A

1–2ml/kg

242
Q

What happens if you raise Na more than ___ meq in 24 hours?

A

9

Central pontine myelinolysis

243
Q

Keep serum osmolarity under ________

A

320

244
Q

What can be done to manage ICH refractory to other methods because it decreases CMRO2, hyperthermia, and convulsions?

A

Barbituate Coma

245
Q

First line therapy for barbituate coma hotn?

A

Volume followed by pressors

246
Q

What is high anion–gap metabolic acidosis caused by?

A

Propofol infusion syndrome

247
Q

Barbituate coma interferes with neuro eval and causes ________ on EEG

A

Burst suppression

248
Q

BG goal

A

140–180

249
Q

Injuyred brains often become _____ due to localized hyperglycolysis.

A

Hypoglycemic

250
Q

Should patients get tight blood sugar control in acute severe injury?

A

Nah

251
Q

Hyperglycemia ______ ischemic insult

A

Worsens

252
Q

In TBI, you should only really treat if over 250 or 200 consistently ok?

A

Ya dog

253
Q

_______ is best utilized in patietns at high risk of intraop ischemia due to quesitonable efficacy

A

Mild hypothermia (34–36)

254
Q

2 risks of controlled hypothermia

A

Coagulopathy

Dysrhythmia

255
Q

Esophageal, tympanic, PA, and jugular venous bulb are good for _______ monitor

A

Deep brain temp

256
Q

NS osmolarity and side effect

A

308, hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

257
Q

LR osmolarity and side effect

A

274, can cause cerebral edema by lowering osmolality

258
Q

Plasma osmolariy

A

290

259
Q

You basically want to maintain normovolemia and MAP during surgery ok

A

OK

260
Q

UOP goal

A

0.5–1ml/kg/hr

261
Q

Maintain Hct above _____

A

28%

262
Q

Dextran interferes with ____ function

A

Platelet

263
Q

Hetastarch causes dilutional reduction of coagulation factors, inhibiton of platelets and factor ______

A

8

264
Q

10–20 degree semilateral table tilt with shoulder roll?

A

Jannetta position

265
Q

What position is used for access to posterior parietal and occipatal lobes and lateral posterior fossa?

A

Axillary (use ax roll to prevent BP injury)

266
Q

You should avoid neck ____ during surgery.

A

Flexion

267
Q

Concorde position?

A

Prone

268
Q

Most frequent cause of prone POVL?

A

Ischemic optic neuropathy (central retinal vessel occlusion)

269
Q

Wilson frame, low ABP, low Hct, male, obese, long surgery, large volume leads to increased _____ risk

A

POVL

270
Q

Why can prone position cause increased bleeding during spine surgery

A

IVC compression, epidural engorgement

271
Q

In the sitting position, pressure transducers should be referenced at the ____

A

External auditory meatus

272
Q

Macroglossia, quadriplegia, and pneumocephalus are exacerbated by what position

A

Sitting

273
Q

1cm difference in height = _________ mmHg change in BP when in the sitting position

A

0.78

274
Q

Distance from heart to EAM in sitting position

A

15cm

275
Q

CPP should be maintained at _________ in healthy patients in sitting position

A

60

276
Q

CPP should be at least ______ in elderly, HTN, CVD, cervical dz, decreased spinal cord perfusion, sustained retractor pressure

A

70

277
Q

Chronic HTN cause ______ shift on autoregulation curve

A

Right

278
Q

Sustained _______ pressure is an opposing force to blood flow

A

Retractor

279
Q

PA cath is used ________.
A–line is used _____.
CVC is used ______.

A

Rarely
Always
Usually

280
Q

Complsitting position that occurs secondary to stretching or compression of the cerpinal cord that may warrant the use of SSEP monitoringication of

A

Unexplained quadriplegia

281
Q

What is the absolute contraindication to sitting position?

A

Intracardiac shunt (PFO, VSD)

282
Q

Unexplained quadriplegia is caused by neck _______

A

Flexion

283
Q

Relative contraindication of sitting positions?

A

Degenerative cervical spine/CVD

284
Q

What happens during posterior fossa surgeries in the head up position when air enters the supratentorial space? An air pocked in the skull.

A

Pneumocephalus

285
Q

Delayed awakening after posterior fossa or supratentorial surgery can be cause by ________

A

Pneumocephalus

286
Q

Pneumocephalus dx

A

Brow up lateral CT/XR

287
Q

Pneumocephalus treatment?

A

Drill hole and needle puncture of dura

288
Q

2 times VAE most commonly occurs

A

Posterior Fossa
Upper cervical spine
(in sitting position)

289
Q

40% of ______ patients get VAE

A

Posterior fossa

290
Q

12% of ____ pateitns get VAE

A

Cervical spine

291
Q

It is a good idea to lower the patient out of the sitting position _________ you take them out of the head holder.

A

Before

292
Q

2 most common sources of critical venous air entry

A

Sigmoid and Sigittal sinus

293
Q

VAE results from _____ pressure gradient between the operative site and right side of the heart

A

Negative

294
Q

Venous pressure at wound level is usually ______

A

Negative

295
Q

Most common way VAE travels?

A

Into pulmonary circulation, diffuses out of alveloi and is exhaled

296
Q

VAE may collect at the _____________

A

Cavoatrial junction

297
Q

VAE will rarely transverse the pulmonary capillaries and enter ________ circulation.

A

Systemic

298
Q

What percent of patients have PFO

A

30%

299
Q

Paradoxical air embolus occurs when _______ heart pressure exceeds __________

A

Right, Left

300
Q

What should you do for patients who have a murmur and are gonna have sitting position

A

Echo

301
Q

Avoid the use of ____ in patients with VAE

A

PEEP

302
Q

VAE endothelial mediators produce a reflex pulmonary ______.

A

Vasoconstriction

303
Q

What causes RV failure and decreased CO in VAE

A

Air–lock

304
Q

Obstructed pulmonary blood flow causes what kind of VQ deal

A

Dead Space Ventilation

305
Q

Air that enters the PA can trigger reflex ________ and pulmonary ______.

A

Bronchospasm

Edema

306
Q

Air in alveoli may be detected by presence of ET _______

A

Nitrogen

307
Q

How much VAE causes decreased ETCO2, Increased ETN2, oxygen desaturation, AMS, and wheezing?

A

Less than 0.5 ml/kg

308
Q

What amount of VAE causes difficulty breathing, wheezing, hypotension, ST changes, peaked P waves, JVD, MI, bronchonstriction?

A

0.5–2ml/kg

309
Q

What amount of VAE cause CP, RV failure, CV collapse, pulmonary edema

A

Greater than 2ml/kg

310
Q

Hypotension, tachycardia, dysrhythmia are ______ signs of VAE

A

Late

311
Q

Order of sensitivty for VAE detection

A
TEE
Doppler
PA/ETCO2
CO/CVP
BP, EKG, Precordial detection
312
Q

Where is the precordial doppler placed for VAE

A

R sternal border between 3–6th ICS

313
Q

Late sign of air entrainment on precordial doppler

A

Mill–wheel

314
Q

PA cath is slightly more sensitive than ETCO2 when _____ is greater than _______

A

RAP > PCWP

315
Q

Doppler can detect as small as ______ml/kg air for VAE

A

0.002

316
Q

How to check for proper VAE doppler position

A

Inject 10ml in CVC and listen

317
Q

The first sign of VAE for patients on controlled ventilation when they suddenly attempt to breathe spontaneously?

A

Gasp Reflex

318
Q

What increases cerebral venous pressure and induces bleeding when treating VAE (good)

A

Bilateral jugular compression

319
Q

Position for VAE treatment?

A

Durrant

Trendelenber, left lateral

320
Q

50% N2O will ____ an air bubble size

A

Double

321
Q

70% N2O will ________ an air bubble size

A

Quadruple

322
Q

True or false: PEEP and Valsalva are recommended to treat VAE?

A

FALSE. They are bad

323
Q

Durrant position traps air in the __________.

A

RA