Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

[OS 213] Respiratory E2 > Samplex 2015 Set A > Flashcards

Samplex 2015 Set A Flashcards

1
Q

A 35/F presented with generalized body weakness. Laboratory tests revealed unremarkable result except for the chest radiograph which revealed widening of the mediastinum. Chest CT scan was done and showed a large anterior mediastinal mass. a CT scan-guided biopsy was done. Give the pathologic diagnosis.

A. Teratoma
B. Lymphoma
C. Thymoma
D. None of the above

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The most common source of pulmonary emboli is:
A. Thrombi in the superficial veins of the leg
B. Thrombi in the deep veins of the leg
C. Thrombi in the right atrium
D. Thrombi in the left atrium

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following statements regarding IPF is correct?

A. A restrictive pattern on lung function distinguishes it from other IIPs
B. Bibasilar inspiratory crackles on auscultation are uncommon
C. The insidious onset of symptoms differentiates it from other types of IIPs
D. The 5-year mortality rate is 80%

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A typical lung function finding in IPF is:

A. An elevated residual volume
B. A decreased FEV1/FVC
C. A reduced TLC
D. An increased DLco

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The parameter(s) that is/are useful in monitoring response to therapy is/are:

A. Chest x-rays
B. Forced vital capacity
C. HRCT scan
D. Oxygen saturation

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The histologic manifestation of acute interstitial pneumonia (AIP) is:

A. Mild interstitial chronic inflammation
B. Diffuse alveolar damage
C. Lymphoid hyperplasia
D. Bronchiolocentric alveolar macrophage accumulation

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Among the IIPs, the one with the best prognosis is:
A. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
B. Non-specific interstitial pneumonia
C. Respiratory-bronchiolitis ILD
D. Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is considered a major criterion to make a diagnosis of IPF in the absence of surgical biopsy?

A. Restrictive pattern on lung function
B. 6th to 7th decade of life
C. Symptom duration > 6 months
D. Bibasilar inspiratory crackles

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The typical clinical course of IPF is:

A. Slow and linear decline in lung function
B. Stable with periods of acute worsening
C. Rapidly progressive
D. Gradual spontaneous recovery

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The gold standard in the diagnosis of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is:

A.   	Open lung biopsy
B.   	Chest CT scan
C.    Bronchoalveolar lavage
D.   	Spirometry
E.     Pulmonary angiography
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which environmental/occupational lung disease increases the risk for acquiring both Mycobacterium tuberculosis and atypical mycobacterium infections?

A.   	Asbestosis
B.   	Coal worker’s pneumonia
C.     Silicosis
D.   	Caplan’s syndrome
E.     Berrylliosis
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following occupational lung diseases is associated with lung cancer?

A.   	Silicosis
B.   	Asbestosis
C.     Berylliosis
D.   	Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis
E.     Byssinosis
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

This condition results from exposure to moldy hay containing spores of thermophilic actinomycetes that produce a hypersensitivity pneumonitis:

A.   	Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis
B.   	Byssinosis
C.    Farmer’s lung
D.   	Berylliosis
E.     Caplan’s syndrome
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The presence of asbestos bodies in respiratory secretions

A. Indicated previous asbestos exposure
B. Is an early marker for asbestosis
C. Is associated with an increased risk of lung cancer
D. Is associated with the development of mesothelioma, especially in the presence of pleural plaques
E. May only be an incidental finding and is of no clinical relevance

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The following inorganic dusts are known to cause occupation exposure related to ILD’s EXCEPT:

A. Coal dust (coal worker’s pneumoconiosis)
B. Beryllium (berylliosis)
C. Thermophilic actinomycetes (farmer’s lung)
D. Iron (arc welder’s lung)
E. None of the above

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is/are true regarding radiographic lesions of occupational lung diseases?

A. Small rounded opacities are seen in silicosis
B. Linear opacities are seen in coal worker’s pneumoconiosis
C. Small rounded opacities are also seen in coal worker’s pneumoconiosis
D. Only B and C are true

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding asbestos-related diseases

A. Asbestos is a generic term for several different mineral silicates, including chrysalite, amosite, anthophyllite, and crocidolite
B. Exposure to asbestos is limited to persons who directly handle the material
C. Asbestosis is a diffuse interstitial fibrosing disease of the lung that is directly related to the intensity and duration of exposure
D. Physiologic studies reveal a restrictive pattern with a decrease in both lung volumes and diffusion capacity; there may also be evidence of mild airflow obstruction (due to peribronchiolar fibrosis)

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following occupational exposures is not correctly matched to the nature of respiratory responses?

A. Asbestos – lung adenocarcinoma
B. Silica – fibrosis
C. Cotton dust – byssinosis
D. Agricultural dust – hypersensititivty pneumonitis

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In acute hypercapnic respiratory failure as in narcotic overdose, the alveolar-arterial gradient is:

A. Less than 20
B. Greater than 30
C. The A-a gradient cannot be determined
D. None of the above

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Snoring is a most common observed event in:

A. Central sleep apnea
B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
C. Obesity hypoventilation syndrome
D. Obstructive sleep apnea

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In patients with ARDS, the PO2/FiO2 ratio is:

A. Greater than 500
B. Less than 200
C. Greater than 200 but less than 500
D. It cannot be calculated

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

One can deliver 100% FiO2 to a patient on:

A. Venture mask
B. Partial rebreathing mask
C. Non-rebreathing mask with bag reservoir
D. Mechanical ventilator

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The only intervention which has significantly improved outcomes in ARDS (aside from treating the underlying cause) is to:

A. Give IV steroids within the first 48 hours
B. Hydrate with high amounts of fluid to keep the patient on the :wet” side
C. Give anti-tumor necrosis factor to dampen the inflammatory response
D. Ventilate with low tidal volumes to avoid overstretching the lungs

A

D

24
Q

Which of the following is/are indications for mechanical ventilation?

A. Presence of apnea
B. Respiratory failure responsive to oxygen support via re-breather mask
C. PCO2 of 50

A

A

25
Q

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

A. During normal breathing, the airway is open and air flows freely to the lungs
B. In obstructive sleep apnea, there is airway collapse during sleep, blocking airflow
C. Clinical manifestations of OSA include snoring and daytime somnolence
D. All of the above

A

D

26
Q

Which of the following is the GOLD STANDARD in the diagnosis of OSA?

A. Pulse oximetry
B. CPAP
C. Nocturnal polysomnogram
D. Holter monitoring

A

C

27
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding respiratory distress in neonates?

A. A neonate with a respiratory rate of 50-55 breaths/min is considered tachypneic
B. Respiratory distress in a neonate may be present with or without cyanosis
C. Cyanosis is always present with or without respiratory distress in the newborn
D. Cyanosis without tachypnea is still respiratory distress

A

B

28
Q

Chemoreceptors detect metabolic needs and feed it back to the respiratory center. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about chemoreceptors?

A. Medullary chemoreceptors are peripheral chemoreceptors which are indirectly stimulated bu PCO2, pH
B. Aortic and carotid bodies are central chemoreceptors
C. Aortic chemoreceptors mainly detect changes in PaO2, but to a lesser extent, PCO2 and pH
D. J-receptors are chemoreceptors that also act as sensors of thoracic expansion and alveolar respiration

A

C

29
Q

Which of the following non-pulmonary causes of respiratory distress causes increased blood flow to the pulmonary system?

A. VSD with left-to-right shunting
B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
C. Total anomnalous pulmonary venous drainage
D. AV malformation

A

A

30
Q

Which of the following is NOT TRUE about metabolic acidosis as a cause of respiratory distress in neonates?

A. A compensatory mechanism of the newborn
B. Sequelae of tachypnea
C. Can also be due to mild perinatal hypoxic depression, delayed transition, or other metabolic disorders (i.e. congenital lactic acidosis, organic acidurias)
D. The fastest way to correct acidosis is to induce alkalosis by slow, deep breathing

A

D

31
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding hyaline membrane disease (HMD)?

A. It is a disease and not a developmental disorder
B. Incidence increases with increasing gestational age
C. Quantitative and not qualitative abnormalities are found in surfactant
D. Also known as respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) type I or infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS) – disease of primary surfactant deficiency

A

D

32
Q

The following are reasons why TB infections are difficult to treat except:

A. They grow very slowly, only once in 1-2 days
B. They become dormant and are called persisters
C. Drug reaches the target with difficulty
D. Can multiply in macrophages
E. Its cell wall are the same as gram positive organisms

A

E

33
Q

False statement about streptomycin:

A. It inhibits protein synthesis
B. It has excellent activity against intracellular mycobacteria
C. It must be administered parenterally
D. It may be used for the treatment of streptococcal endocarditis in combination with other beta-lactams

A

D

34
Q

Which is a TRUE statement about isoniazid?

A. It inhibits RNA polymerase
B. Once weekly treatment is acceptable
C. It is bactericidal against actively growing mycobacteria
D. It causes ototoxicity

A

C

35
Q

Which is a FALSE statement about pyrazinamide?

A. It is bactericidal against intracellular mycobacteria
B. Adverse effects include hepatotoxicity and hyperuricemia
C. It is given during the maintenance or continuation phase of treatment
D. It inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

A

C

36
Q

Which statement if TRUE about rifampicin?

A. Rifampicin inhibits cell wall synthesis
B. May be used for monotherapy for mild MRSA infections
C. Rifampicin is a CYP450 enzyme inhibitor
D. Increases isoniazid toxicity

A

D

37
Q

All of the following are first line drugs, EXCEPT:

A. Isoniazid
B. Pyrazinamide
C. Rifampicin
D. Kanamycin

A

D

38
Q

This is the first anti-TB drug discovered in 1943 by Selmann Waksman:

A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Streptomycin
D. Ehtambutol

A

C

39
Q

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the treatment of PTB?

A. Treatment depends on the prevailing resistance patterns of the country
B. Treatment depends on location of the disease
C. Monotherapy is encouraged in the treatment of PTB
D. The maintenance phase lasts for 6 months regardless of the location and severity of the infection
E. All of the above

A

A

40
Q

True regarding pleural effusions:

A. Pleural fluid is removed via the lymphatics in the parietal pleura
B. In transudative pleural effusions local factors that influence the formation and absorption of pleural fluis are altered
C. Left ventricular failure, pulmonary embolism, and cirrhosis are causes of exudative pleural effusion
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A

A, B

41
Q

True regarding parapneumonic effusions:

A. If the free fluid separates the lung from the chest wall by more than 5mm on the decubitus radiograph, a therapeutic thoracentesis should be performed
B. Presence of free pleural fluid can be demonstrated with a lateral decubitus radiograph
C. Pleural fluid pH more than 7.5 indicates the likely need for chest tube insertion
D. Empyema refers to a grossly bloody effusion
E. None of the above

A

A

42
Q

A 40-year-old female with pneumonia underwent thoracentesis. Pleural fluid analysis revealed:
pleural fluid protein/serum protein = 0.7,
pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH = 0.3,
pleural fluid pH above 7.8,
gram positive cocci organisms on gram stain.

Which of the following is/are true?

A. The patient should undergo close tube thoracostomy
B. The pleural fluid is a transudate
C. Empyema refers to a grossly bloody effusion
D. The patient should undergo CT-scan to rule out pulmonary embolism
E. All of the above

A

A

43
Q

Which of the following is true regarding pleural effusion?

A. Best treatment for pleuyral effusion secondary to heart failure is CTT insertion
B. Exudates have pleural fluid protein/serum protein ration >0.5
C. Transudates are secondary to local factors such as malignancy or infection
D. Most common cause of exudative pleural effusion is renal failure

A

B

44
Q

In patients with congestive heart failure and pleural effusion, diagnostic thoracentesis should be done in the presence of the following except:

A. Bilateral effusion
B. Febrile
C. Pleuritic chest pain
D. Non-resolution despite diuretic therapy

A

A

45
Q

This is the most common cause of pleural effusion

A. Pneumonia
B. Renal failure
C. Liver cirrhosis
D. Left ventricular failure

A

B

46
Q

The following tumors cause approximately 75% of malignant pleural effusions:

A. Lung carcinoma
B. Breast carcinoma
C. Lymphoma
D. All of the above

A

D

47
Q

Pulmonary vasculitis should be considered in the presence of:

A. Alveolar hemorrhages
B. Multiple lung nodules
C. Mononeuritis complex
D. All of the above

A

D

48
Q

The most common pulmonary manifestation of microscopic polyangitis (MPA) is:

A. Alveolar hemorrhage
B. Pulmonary nodules
C. Asthma
D. Thromboembolic disease

A

A

49
Q

Churg-Strauss vasculitis is most commonly associated with:

A. Sinus ulcerations
B. Pulmonary cavities
C. Asthma
D. COPD

A

C

50
Q

Thromboembolic disease is most commonly found in:

A. Wegener granulomatosis
B. Churg-Strauss vasculitis
C. Microscopic polyangitis
D. Pulmonary embolism

A

D

51
Q

The gold standard in the diagnosis of pulmonary vasculitis is:

A. HRCT scan of the chest
B. Pulmonary angiography
C. Surgical lung biopsy
D. ANCA testing for antiproteinase-3 (PR3)

A

C

52
Q

Pulmonary hypertension due to respiratory system disorders or hypoxemia include the following EXCEPT:

A. COPD
B. Sleep disordered breathing
C. Chronic exposure to high altitude
D. ARDS

A

D

53
Q

Cor pulmonale usually shows an enlarged main pulmonary artery segment on chest x-ray of:

A. >10mm
B. >12mm
C. >14mm
D. >16mm

A

D

54
Q

The most common cause of cor pulmonale in more than 80% of cases is:

A. Chronic interstitial lung disease
B. Sleep disordered breathing
C. COPD
D. Chronic exposure to high altitude

A

C

55
Q

The best predictor of survival in cor pulmonale is:

A. FEV1
B. PaO2
C. PaCO2
D. Pulmonary artery pressure

A

D

56
Q

Cardiovascular findings in cor pulmonale include the following EXCEPT:

A. P pulmonale on ECG
B. RVH on ECG
C. Poor RV contractility with low EF
D. None of the above

A

D

[OS 213] Respiratory E2 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions