Samplex 2015 Flashcards

1
Q

True of digoxin

A. Bioavailability is 75%
B. Half life is 40 hours
C. 2/3 is unchanged excreted in kidney
D. Inhibits NA-K ATPase pump

A

D

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2
Q

Study of the the drug effects on population.

A. Biopharmaceutics
B. Pharmacogenetics
C. Pharmacogenomics
D. Pharmacoepidemiology

A

D

Biopharmaceutics deals with the development of new drug delivery systems and new dosage forms.

Pharmacogenetics is a relatively new field. It deals with genetically mediated variations in drug responses.

Pharmacogenomics- the use of genetic information to guide the choice of drug therapy on an individual basis

Pharmacoepidemiology- study of drug effects at the population level. Helps in regulation of drugs.

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3
Q

Compared to the sigmoid curve of a full agonist in the log dose vs. response curve, the curve in the presence of a partial agonist:

A. will shift to the right
B. will shift to the left
C. Emax will be higher
D. Emax will be lower

A

D

The partial agonist has lower Emax than the full agonist. “The partial agonist produces a lower response at full receptor occupancy. The partial agonist’s inability to produce maximal effect, even when present at high concentrations that saturate binding to all receptors, is not due to decreased affinity for binding to receptors but indicated by the fact that partial agonist competitively inhibits the responses produced by full agonists.” (Basic and Clinical Pharmacology 11th ed. By Katzung, page 19)

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4
Q

Compared to the sigmoid curve of a full agonist in the log dose vs. response curve, the curve in the presence of a competitive antagonist:

A. will shift to the right
B. will shift to the left
C. Emax will be higher
D. Emax will be lower

A

A

Reversible competitive antagonism shifts the dose response curve to the right, causing the drug to behave as if it were less pontent. In the presence of a fixed concentration of agonist, increasing concentrations of a reversible competitive antagonist progressively inhibit the agonist response; high antagonist concentrations prevent response completely. Conversely, sufficiently high concentrations of agonist can completely surmount the effect of a given concentration of the antagonist; that is, the Emax for the agonist remains the same for any fixed concentration of antagonist (Figure 2–3A). Because the antagonism is competitive, the presence of antagonist increases the agonist concentration required for a given degree of response, and so the agonist concentration-effect curve is shifted to the right. [Katzung 10th ed]

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5
Q

Compared to the sigmoid curve of a full agonist in the log dose vs. response curve, the curve in the presence of a noncompetitive antagonist:

A. will shift to the right
B. will shift to the left
C. Emax will be higher
D. Emax will be lower

A

D

The presence of a noncompetitive antagonist at a low concentration produces a slight dextral shift in the agonist dose – response curve [looks similar to a competitive antagonist]. As more and more receptors are bound (and essentially destroyed), the agonist drug becomes incapable of eliciting a maximal effect. As more of the noncompetitive antagonist binds to the receptor, the effect is the same as that of a partial agonist. It does not produce the maximal effect. [Trans on Molecular Mechanisms of Drug Action]

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6
Q

Agonist binding has both affinity and efficacy, antagonist binding also has both affinity and efficacy.

A. True
B. False

A

B

Antagonists only exhibit affinity. They do not mimic the effects of endogenous regulatory compounds. By definition, antagonists have no efficacy. Efficacy is a function of receptor activation, and antagonist binding does not change receptor activation in any way

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7
Q

The presence of spare receptors will allow an agonist to achieve full efficacy even in the presence of non-competitive agonists.

A. True
B. False

A

T

The spare receptors are those that do not bind drug when the drug concentration is sufficient to produce maximal effect. Spare receptors are said to exist if the maximal drug response (Emax) is obtained at less than maximal occupation of the receptors (Bmax). The presence of spare receptors increases sensitivity to the agonist because the likelihood of a drug-receptor interaction increases in proportion to the number of receptors available. They allow maximal response without total receptor occupancy, increasing the sensitivity of the system.

In a system with spare receptors, the EC50 is lower than the Kd, indicating that to achieve 50% of maximal effect, less than 50% of the receptors must be activated.

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8
Q

The most important concept in pharmacodynamics is the

A. Therapeutic triangle
B. Scatchard plot
C. semi-log dose response curve
D. presence of agonist/antagonist
E. All of the above
A

C

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9
Q

The Scatchard plot

A. Is a graphic representation used in the analysis of binding phenomena in which concentration of bound ligand divided by that of the free ligand bound ligand is plotted against concentration of bound ligand
B. Is a straight line plot for one binding site (may also represent several binding sites) where the x axis intercept is B (bound drug) and the slope is -1/Kd (negative reciprocal of the dissociation/association constant)
C. Defines an equation for calculating the affinity constant of a ligand with a protein or receptor
D. Is a curve of B/F (bound ligand/free ligand) versus B (bound ligand)
E. All of the above

A

E

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10
Q

The three most important properties of a drug product are

A. efficacy, safety, quality
B. efficacy, lack of significant toxicity and quality
C. potency, safety and quality
D. a and b
E. a and c
A

D

(majority (if not all) of the class answered A, but during the feedback, the answer given was D because “safety” in A and “lack of significant toxicity” in B mean the same thing so A and B are both correct)

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11
Q

Factor/s that enhance/s absorption

A. Micronization of drug particles
B. Mechanisms that lead to non-ionized moiety 
C. Organ/tissue perfusion
D. A and B
E. B and C
A

D

Solids must undergo the process of disintegration, degradation, and dissolution before absorption (drugs in aqueous solution absorbed faster than if in a solid state). Only non-ionized forms will be observed (weak acids in acidic urine, weak bases in basic urine). Organ and tissue perfusion is related to distribution, not absorption.

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12
Q

Factors that delay gastric emptying:

A. fasting
B. vigorous exercise
C. Billroth surgery
D. lying on the right side
E. cold meals
A

B

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13
Q

Among the hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes, the one responsible for metabolizing the most number of drugs is:

A. CYP3A
B. CYP2C
C. CYP2D
D. CYP1A
E. CYP2E
A

A

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14
Q

True of the legal requirements for herbal medicines:

a. allowed to have active ingredients, excipients, and isolates from the same plant
b. Plant authentication for the source of the herbal medicine from FDA-recognized taxonomist
c. should abide by the limits set on heavy metals, aflatoxin, pesticide residue, etc.
d. should submit pre-clinical toxicity studies (both short and long term)

A

A

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15
Q

The RA No. 9502, the Universally Accessible Cheaper and Quality Medicines Act of 2008 defines drugs and medicines

A. as any chemical compound and biological substances other than food, intended for use in the treatment, prevention or diagnosis of disease in humans or animals
B. as any article other than food intended to affect the structure or any function of the human body or animals
C. to include herbal and/or traditional drugs which are the articles of plants or animals origin used in folk medicine which are recognized in the Philippines National Drug Formulary
D. All of the above

A

D

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16
Q

Pre-Clinical Testing of drugs and herbal products using animal

A. An Institutional Animal Research Committee should be established to ensure compliance with the ethical and technical requirements.
B. Investigators and other personnel shall be appropriately qualified and experienced for conducting procedures on living animals. The personnel should be given protection from zoonotic diseases and inappropriate exposure to hazardous chemicals and substances.
C. For surgical or other painful procedures, it is no longer needed to give anesthesia on animals paralyzed by clinical agents.
D. a and b only

A

D

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17
Q

The guidance on the Non-clinical safety studies for the conduct of human clinical trials required by the 2009 ICH of technical requirements for registration of pharmaceuticals for human use include:

A. As its specific objective, to reduce the use of animals in accordance with 3R (reduce, replace, re) principles
B. To use new in vitro alternative methods for safety evaluation
C. As its scope assessment of carcinogenicity potential for drugs that have special cause for concern
D. A and B

A

D

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18
Q

Acute toxicity studies based on ICH Technical requirements:

A. Can be derived from single dose toxicity studies from 2 mammalian species using clinical route in humans and 14 days of observation of animals even if lethality is not the intended end point
B. Can be attained from appropriately conducted dose-escalation studies/ short duration dose ranging studies that define max tolerated dose in general toxicity test species
C. Should provide info to predict the consequences of human overdose situations and should be available to support Phase II human clinical trials for which patient population are at higher risk of overdosing
D. Any of the above

A

D

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19
Q

Binding of acetylcholine to nicotinic cholinergic receptors triggers this cellular event:

A. Sodium enters cell.
B. Chloride ion enters cell.
C. Hyperpolarization of the membrane
D. G-protein is activated

A

A

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20
Q

The binding of GABA to its receptor leads to this effect

A. Opening of voltage gated sodium channel
B. Hyperpolarization of plasma membrane
C. Generation of action potential
D. Release of calcium from ER and mitochondria

A

B

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21
Q

Action of mannitol is specific for this receptor:

A. Ionotrophic
B. Metabotrophic
C. GPCR
D. None of the above

A

D

Mannitol is a non-receptor mediated drug.

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22
Q

Binding of salbutamol to beta-2 receptors trigger

A. Chloride enters the cell through channel
B. ATP is converted to cAMP
C. Expression of genes for transcription of actin and myosin
D. Activation of Tyrosine kinase

A

B

Salbutamol is a beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonist. It uses the cAMP pathway: G protein activated > conversion of ATP to cAMP> inc cAMP> Inc activity of protein kinase A> lowers intracellular Ca > myosin light chain kinase not activated

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23
Q

Binding of an agonist to the GABA receptor (e.g. gabapentin used in seizures) will result into the cellular response:

A. Opening of sodium channels
B. Hyperpolarization of the cell membrane
C. Generation of a membrane potential
D. Release of intracellular calcium

A

B

GABA receptor is an ionotropic receptor and ligand-gated ion channel. Its endogenous ligandis γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA), the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system. Upon activation, the GABAA receptor selectively conducts Cl- through its pore, resulting in hyperpolarization of the neuron.
Drugs that bind to GABA receptors such as diazepam and gabapentin are agonists that increase chloride conductance into the cell and induce hyperpolarization of the cell membrane. This eventually results into the inhibition of action potentials. (Mechanisms of Drug Action and Signaling Mechanisms SIM Trans, page 2)

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24
Q

Binding of beta blockers (eg. Propanolol) to beta receptors

A. Bronchodilation
B. Bronchoconstriction
C. Tachycardia
D. Positive ionotropic response

A

B

Beta-blockers are drugs that bind to beta-adrenoceptors and thereby block the binding of norepinephrine and epinephrine to these receptors. This inhibits normal sympathetic effects that act through these receptors.
Bronchoconstriction can occur, especially when non-selective beta-blockers are administered to asthmatic patients. Therefore, non-selective beta-blockers are contraindicated in patients with asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Bronchoconstriction occurs because sympathetic nerves innervating the bronchioles normally activate β2-receptors that promote bronchodilation. Blockade of these receptors can lead to bronchoconstriction.
Because there is generally some level of sympathetic tone on the heart, beta-blockers are able to reduce sympathetic influences that normally stimulate chronotropy (heart rate), inotropy (contractility), dromotropy (electrical conduction) and lusitropy (relaxation). Therefore, beta-blockers cause decreases in heart rate, contractility, conduction velocity, and relaxation rate.

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25
Q

Inhibition of estrogen binding to cytosolic receptor is an intervention to achieve this therapeutic goal:

A. Inhibition of cellular division
B. Facilitiation of glucose transport across membrane
C. Triggering of selective gene expression
D. Pleiotropic response

A

A

Tumor cells especially in the breast and uterus are dependent on estrogen for transcription of genes that code for growth factors and other proteins needed for anchorage, growth and proliferation. By inhibiting the binding of estrogen, anti-neoplasm drugs like Tamoxifen then inhibit cellular division and further growth of the tumor

26
Q

The action of this drug is mediated by intracellular nuclear receptors

A. insulin
B. estrogen
C. mannitol
D. salbutamol

A

B

Estrogen is through intracellular receptors, mannitol is not receptor-linked, salbutamol is through GPLR and Insulin is through enzyme linked receptors.

27
Q

Metformin has a half life of 6 hours. If Raymond’s plasma concentration level is 1mcg/L at noon, after how many hours will is plasma concentration level be 0.25mcg/L?

A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 18 hours
D. 24 hours

A

B

At noon, 1mcg/L. 0.5 at 6pm. 0.25 at 12MN.

28
Q

Which of the following assumes drug distribution is instantaneous and even?

A. Non compartmental anaylsis
B. 1 compartmental model
C. 2 compartmental model
D. Physiological analysis

A

B

29
Q

Volume of distribution is:

A. Plasma volume
B. Extracellular fluid
C. Intracellular fluid
D. Total body water
E. None of the above
A

E

“Apparent“ volume

  • Can exceed any physical volume in the body
  • Volume necessary to contain the amount of drug homogenously at the concentration found in the blood or plasma, or water
30
Q

Clearance is decreased by 50%

A. T1/2 will decrease by 1/2
B. T1/2 will be twice longer
C. T1/2 will be decreased by 1/4
D. No effect on T1/2

A

B

Half-life and clearance are inversely proportional.

31
Q

Volume of distribution is decreased by 50%

A. T1/2 will decrease by 1/2
B. T1/2 will be twice longer
C. T1/2 will be decreased by 1/4
D. No effect on T1/2

A

A

Based on the formula in #49, Half-life and Vd are directly proportional.

32
Q

The equation for half-life for a first order

A. ln 2 / CL
B. ln 2 / Vd
C. CL / Vd
D. ln 2/ K
E. ln 2 / (0.693 * K)
A

D

33
Q

Given: 2.4 g for 24 hours with maximum dosing interval of 7.5 hours

A. 800 mg every 8 hours
B. 600 mg every 6 hours
C. 600 mg every 4 hours

A

B

800mg3 doses (in 24hrs) = 2400mg
600mg
4 doses (in 24 hrs) = 2400mg
600mg*6 doses (in 24 hrs) = 3600mg

A. cant be the answer because it exceeds the maximum dosing interval (8>7.5hrs). C. can’t be the answer because its more than the needed dose.

34
Q

[T/F] Relative bioavailability always compares a drug bioavailability to its intramuscular mode of administration.

A

F

Relative bioavailability is the ratio of the bioavailability of a drug to a certain drug of reference, which means a value of 1 showed that this drug’s bioavailability is similar to the reference drug, which can have varying bioavailabilities (which may not be 100%). Not all reference drugs are IM.

35
Q

[T/F] Oral bioavailability solely depends on hepatic metabolism

A

F

gastric emptying rate, intestinal transit time, hepatic first pass metabolism, and gastrointestinal and hepatic blood flow etc. apart from these factors, disease conditions, diet and dosage form.

36
Q

[T/F] Three half lives is an adequate washout period for a drug

A

F

37
Q

[T/F] Among the cytochrome P450 enzymes, CYP (unreadable) is the most important because it metabolizes 80% of all drugs that are metabolized

A

F

Basta CYP3A yung pinaka-used

38
Q

[T/F] Elimination and excretion are interchangeable terms.

A

F

elimination = metabolism and excretion

39
Q

[T/F] If Drug X is metabolized to an inactve metabolite, then excreted via the kidney, the mode of elimination is excretion.

A

F

Metabolized kasi. So not excretion. Elimination is metabolism + excretion.

40
Q

[T/F] In non-compartmental analysis, Cmax and Tmax are obtained from a complex equation.

A

F

Noncompartmental analysis reduces the assumptions that must be made in modeling concentration versus time data: An advantage of noncompartmental analysis is that it requires fewer assumptions than that which is necessary with compartmental analysis. It also avoids some of the common problems seen with compartmental analysis.

41
Q

[T/F] In a first-order, two-compartment equation, drug distribution is immediate and instantaneous within the compartment.

A

T

42
Q

[T/F] In therapeutic drug monitoring, it is standard to obtain plasma sample as at the estimated time peak.

A

T

43
Q

Drug elimination is classified as first order if

A. the amount of drug eliminated is a constant fraction of the remaining drug
B. the amount of drug eliminated is constant
C. the log concentration-time curve is linear
D. all of the above
E. a and b only
F. a and c only

A

F

LINEAR KINETICS (FIRST ORDER)
• Constant fraction of total drug stores eliminated in a given time
• Almost all drugs follow linear kinetics (except in overdose situations)‏
• Dose increases result in proportional increases in serum levels

44
Q

The apparent volume of distribution of the drug

A. Is the volume that appears to contain the drug equal to the plasma concentration after equilibriation has been attained
B. Equal to the plasma volume if all the drug is bound to plasma proteins
C. Equal to the total body water volume if the drug is not accumulated in tissues
D. All of the above
E. A and B
F. A and C

A

E

45
Q

One compartment model

A. Follows first order rate 
B. Distributes to single compartment 
C. Applies zero order kinetic input rate
D. All of the above
E. A and B
F. A and C
A

F

46
Q

Most relevant

A. Cmax
B. Tmax
C. AUC total

A

A

47
Q

The following statement is INCORRECT

A. Absolute bioavailability is measured by comparing the respective AUCs after extravascular and intravascular administration
B. The oral formulation of Propanolol that undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism must be administered in much larger doses than the equivalent IV formulation of the same drug
C. A relative bioavailability of 100 means that a drug is completely absorbed
D. The rate of absorption is determined by the route of administration and the drug formulation

A

C

48
Q

Parameter 90%CI
Cmax 84.3-110.7
AUC 0-30 90.2-111.1
AUC 0-infinity 77.4-120.7

Drug A: generic Drug B: Branded (same formulation)
Based on the table above, choose the BEST answer.

A. Drug A is Pharmaceutically Equivalent but NOT Bioequivalent to Drug B
B. Drug A is Pharmaceutically Equivalent and Bioequivalent to Drug B
C. Drug A is a Theraputic Equivalent and Bioequivalent to Drug B
D. Drug A is a Pharmaceutical Alternative to Drug B.

A

B

The 90% Confidence Intervals should never be below 80 for bioequivalence to hold.

49
Q

[T/F] Bioequivalence of generic drug to innovator drug is enough to ensure good quality manufacturing of the generic drug.

A

F

50
Q

[T/F] Bioequivalence studies are not recommended for IV, gases and powder or reconstitution as solution.

A

F

51
Q

The Nature of toxic action of hazardous substances include:

A. The mechanism of toxic action in acute exposure is the same from those in chronic exposure.
B. Toxic action of a drug is an exaggeration of its therapeutic action.
C. A chemical may be converted to a toxic metabolite which is more toxic than the parent compound.
D. All of the above

A

C

52
Q

The following statement(s) is/are true of the distribution factors affecting the toxicity of substances.

A. Protein-bound drug produces toxic effects.
B. The organ in which a drug is most concentrated is always the site where most tissue damage occurs.
C. A chemical may be converted to a metabolite more toxic than the parent drug.
D. A chemical may pass through the blood-brain barrier or placenta.

A

D

53
Q

Important levels in the development of toxicity

A. Delivery
B. Interaction with the target molecule
C. Cellular dysfunction/injury
D. Dysrepair

A

B

54
Q

Which is part of cell dysregulation?
A. Oxidative stress
B. Gene expression
C. All of the above

A

B

Dysregulation of gene expression - dysregulation of transcription resulting to alteration in protein produced will result to cell dysregulation.

55
Q

Enzyme that inhibits/stimulates is an example of this mechanism of action:

A. Impairment of intracellular maintenance
B. Impairment of extracellular maintenance
C. Dysregulation of gene expression
D. Dysregulation of ongoing cellular management

A

D

56
Q

Spectrum of toxic effects include:

A. Delayed reaction after initial exposure
B. Idiosyncratic reactions, immunologically modulated
C. Allergies, genetically-determined
D. AOTA

A

D

Chemical allergy is an adverse reaction mediated by IgE, which it is genetic in origin. Delayed reaction is an extension of the immediate effects of the drugs. Substances can have either local or systemic effect but not both.

57
Q

True of pharmacokinetic drug interactions:

A. Affect the site of action
B. Affect the activity of metabolic enzyme systems
C. IV incompatibility
D. AOTA

A

D

58
Q

Which of the conditions listed below is Pharmacogenetic?

A. Malignant Hyperthermia
B. Oligodontia
C. Waardenburg syndrome
D. Treacher Collins syndrome

A

A

Malignant hyperthermia - is a rare life-threatening condition that is usually triggered by exposure to certain drugs used for general anesthesia; specifically, the volatile anesthetic agents and the neuromuscular blocking agent, succinylcholine

Oligodontia - a genetically determined dental defect characterized by the development of fewer than the normal number of teeth.

Waardenburg Syndrome - is a rare genetic disorder most often characterized by varying degrees of deafness, minor defects in structures arising from the neural crest, and pigmentation anomalies

Treacher collins syndrome - is a rareautosomal dominant congenital disorder characterized by craniofacial deformities, such as absent cheekbones.

59
Q

[Identify] Drug used as a probe to study CYP2D6 polymorphism

A

Debrisoquin

A patient’s CYP2D6 phenotype is often clinically determined via the administration of debrisoquine (a selective CYP2D6 substrate) and subsequent plasma concentration assay of the debrisoquine metabolite (4-hydroxydebrisoquine). More recently, a “DNA microarray” has been developed, known as the AmpliChip, which allows the automated determination of a patient’s CYP2D6 (and CYP2C19) genotype.

60
Q

Increased risk of cancer

A. TMPT
B. NAT2

A

B

Many of the aromatic and heterocyclic amine carcinogens are both activated and deactivated by acetylation reactions catalyzed by NAT2. Epidemiological studies show an association between acetylation polymorphism and both urinary bladder and colorectal cancers.

61
Q

[Identify] Enzyme deficiency involved in causing hemolytic anemia following administration of anti-malarias like primaquine

A

G6PD

Hemolytic anemia in a patient with G6PD deficiency after primaquine therapy

62
Q

An atypical ADH (alcohol dehydrogenase) variant of the beta 2 subunit is responsible for:

A. a lower ethanol Vmax for the atypical enzyme
B. a lower plasma level of the acetaldehyde metabolite
C. a higher Km for homozygous B2B2
D. a higher intracellular activity of the alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme

A

C

The atypical B2 subunit differs from the typical by CGC to CAC transition resulting in an Arg47His substitution in beta 2 subunit (B2)

This mutation is responsible for:
○ A higher ethanol Vmax of the atypical enzyme
○ A higher Km for the homozygous B2B2