Samplex 2014 Set A Flashcards

1
Q

Which does not describe a drug?

A. It is a chemical with known structure.
B. It usually binds to regulatory molecules.
C. It is specific with its actions.
D. It activates or inhibits normal body processes

A

C

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2
Q

Which is true of the history of pharmacology?

A. In the 7th century, herbal medicine emerged.
B. Advancements in the knowledge of physiology and chemistry led to better evidence for therapeutic claims.
C. In recent years, biotechnology has emerged as a major basis of pharmacology.
D. Biopharmaceutics is the use of genetic information in the manufacture of drugs.

A

C

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3
Q

Which of the following is correct?

A. Pharmacokinetics is what the drug does to the body.
B. Pharmacodynamics is what the body does to the drug.
C. Selectivity is reciprocal.
D. There are drugs that are completely specific to a particular receptor.

A

C

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4
Q

The WHO defines essential medicines as:

A. All drugs produced by local manufacturers.
B. Drugs that answer the priority health care needs of the community.
C. Drugs intended to be used to modify or to explore physiological system or pathological states fo the benefit of the recipient.
D. All the expensive drugs.

A

B

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5
Q

Which is TRUE of Drug Action?

A. All drug molecules exert a chemical influence on cells initially through receptors.
B. Specificity of drug receptor interaction is reciprocal.
C. Occupation of receptor always transforms the receptor t to an active conformational state.
D. Drug is effective if it affects the most number of tissues and cells as possible.

A

B

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6
Q

Which receptor has the fastest response time?

A. Ion channel
B. G-protein coupled receptors
C. Tyrosine kinase linked receptors
D. Intracellular receptors

A

A

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7
Q

Which one of the following receptors takes hours to days to effect a cellular response?

A. Ion channel
B. G-protein coupled receptors
C. Tyrosine kinase linked receptors
D. Intracellular receptors

A

D

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8
Q

Compared to the sigmoid curve of a full agonist in the log dose vs. effect curve, the partial agonist:

A. will shift parallel to the right
B. will shift parallel to the left
C. Emax will be higher
D. Emax will be lower

A

D

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9
Q

Compared to the sigmoid curve of a full agonist in the log dose vs. effect curve, the presence of a competitive antagonist will:

A. shift to the right
B. shift to the left
C. Emax will be higher
D. Emax will be lower

A

A

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10
Q

Compared to the sigmoid curve of a full agonist in the log dose vs. response curve, the curve in the presence of a noncompetitive antagonist:

A. shift to the right
B. shift to the left
C. higher Emax
D. lower Emax

A

D

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11
Q

Which receptor modulates the allergic receptor

A. Beta adrenergic receptor
B. Histamine-1 receptor
C. Opiate receptor
D. Angiotensin converting enzyme converting receptor

A

B

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12
Q

G-protein coupled receptors are the most common receptor acted on by drugs?

A. True
B. False

A

A

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13
Q

Covalent bonds are usually irreversible.

A. True
B. False

A

A

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14
Q

Agonist binding has both affinity and efficacy, antagonist binding also has both affinity and efficacy.

A. True
B. False

A

B

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15
Q

If spare receptors are present, the agonist can still reach maximum effect in the presence of noncompetitive antagonist.

A. True
B. False

A

A

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16
Q

The first step in the clinical phase drug discovery involves

A. Animal studies
B. In vitro screening
C. Human trials
D. Bioavailability

A

C

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17
Q

Ranitidine was discovered by:

A. random testing
B. chemical modification
C. Serendipity
D. Rational drug design

A

B

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18
Q

A set of standard guidelines in the conduct of human clinical trials

A. GLP
B. GCP
C. GNP
D. IND

A

B

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19
Q

Phase 2 clinical trials mean:

A. The candidate drug is given to thousands of volunteers
B. The candidate drug is tested among patients with disease of interest
C. The candidate drug is tested in 2 rodents and 1 primate
D. The candidate drug undergoes a sequence of chemical modifications for optimization

A

B

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20
Q

The phase that answers the question “how does a candidate drug fare compared to the standard?”

A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4

A

C

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21
Q

Pharmacogenomics is the branch of pharmocology that

a. uses the application of genomic technology to the study of drug discovery, pharmacological function, disposition and therapeutic response
b. operates on the principle of “not one size fits all”
c. emphasizes the importance of individualizing drug therapy for different patient who may have common disorders
d. aota
e. a and c

A

E

22
Q

The log-dose effect relationship shows:

a. a hyperbolic curve
b. a sigmoid curve
c. the four characteristics – potency, efficacy, slope and variability
d. a and c
e. b and c

A

E

23
Q

Classes of drugs are best described according to:

a. source whether natural or synthetic
b. chemical structure
c. therapeutic use and therapeutic effect
d. all of the above
e. b and c

A

C

24
Q

While receptors regulate biochemical and physiological activity, they are themselves subject to regulatory and homeostatic controls like

a. upregulation due to continued stimulation of cells with agonists
b. down regulation due to covalent bonding or relocalization or destruction of receptors
c. upregulation due to synthesis of new receptors
d. aota
e. b and c

A

E

25
Q

True of competitive and noncompetitive agonists

a. reversible and irreversible respectively
b. have intrinsic activity only
c. have affinity only
d. have both affinity and intrinsic activity
e. a and d

A

E

26
Q

The most important properties of any drug product is/are:

a. efficacy and safety
b. efficacy, safety and quality
c. efficacy, potency and safety
d. cost, efficacy, potency, safety, quality

A

B

27
Q

The Quantal dose response curve has the following:

a. usually a Gaussian/ normal curve
b. always shows dose and response
c. affected by frequency, rate and dose of drug
d. describes low, middle, and high dose
e. all of the above

A

E

28
Q

Margin of safety is measured by

a. Therapeutic index which is the ration of toxic dose 50 over effective dose 50
b. Standard safety margin utilizing 100 experimental animals
c. Standard safety margin utilizing 1000 experimental animals
d. Distance between the minimum effective dose and the maximum effective dose which is just a hairline away from the minimum toxic dose
E. AOTA

A

E

29
Q

Of all the different kinds of adverse effects, one or all of those listed below that can be desirable depending on the circumstances surrounding the patient

a. idiosyncracy
b. tolerance
c. side effect
d. tachyphylaxis
e. all of the above

A

C

30
Q

Definition of pharmacokinetics

A. What the living body does to the drug
B. What the drug does to the body
C. Sum total of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion
D. A and B
E. B and C
A

A or C

31
Q

Factors affecting absorption of a drug

A. CO
B. Relative permeability of tissues to drug
C. Degree of ionizability of a drug and lipid solubility
D. AOTA
E. NOTA

A

C

32
Q

Which of the factors affect the absorption of the drug in the stomach?

A. Physical state of the active drug
B. The large area of absorption in the small intestines
C. By the ionization equation by which the non-ionized form of the molecules becomes dominant
D. B and C
E. AOTA

A

E

33
Q

Which will hasten gastric emptying time?

	A. mild exercise
	B. hot and heavy meal
	C. Emotional stress
	D. anticholinergic drugs
	E. AOTA
A

A

34
Q

The oral route of administration

A. Can have aberrant absorption
B. Requires the patient to be awake, oriented, and compliant
C. Is safe, convenient and economical
D. AOTA
E. Only B and C
A

D

35
Q

The apparent volume of distribution is:

A. physiologic parameter
B. pharmacologic parameter
C. high for weakly acidic drugs
D. generally low for weakly basic drugs
E. all but A
A

NA

36
Q

Metabolism or Biotransformation

A. Involves the first-pass effect
B. is part of the mechanism that leads to elimination
C. In special circumstances, converts an inactive pro-drug to its active form
D. Converts an active drug to metabolites through a series of chemical reactions
E. AOTA

A

E

37
Q

Of all microsomal enzymes, the most common cytochrome P450 metabolizing enzyme is:

	A. CYP 3A
	B. CYP 2D
	C. CYP 1A
	D. CYP 2C
	E. CYP 2B
A

A

38
Q

For 99% of the drug to be eliminated from the body in a single dose administration _ no. of half-lives is required

	A. 7
	B. 5
	C. 4
	D. 3
	E. any of the above
A

A

39
Q

Drug-drug interaction…

A. can be due to pharmacodynamic variation
B. can be due to pharmacokinetic variation
C. may have beneficial effects
D. may have harmful effects
E. AOTA
A

E

40
Q

Recognition of herbals embodied by:

A. RA 3720 – Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
B. AOs in 2004
C. Cheaper Medicines Act of 2008
D. AOTA
E. A and B
A

B

41
Q

The ultimate goals of toxicology assessments in animals include the following:

A. To characterize the toxicity of drug in animal models and identification of potential problems in the short and long term studies in man
B. To evaluate the extent to which animal data warrant extrapolation to man
C. To recommend safe levels of exposure or dosage to man
D. To contribute to the decision to test the new drug candidate in humans
E. AOTA

A

E

42
Q

The following adverse drug reactions in humans are predictable from animal studies except:

A. drowsiness, sedation
B. dizziness, diarrhea, anorexia
C. increased energy, weakness
D. hypotension, hypertension
E. headache, tinnitus
A

E

43
Q

Pharmacologic screening of a substance as possible drug can provide the following:

A. Bioavailability or pharmacokinetics of the substance
B. Capacity of the drug to cause tachyphylaxis, tolerance, and drug dependence
C. Determination of ED50
D. Define the activity and selectivity of the drug
E. AOTA

A

E

44
Q

Classes of preparations obtained by extraction except:

A. tincture
B. decoction
C. infusion
D. percolation
E. powdered extracts
A

D

45
Q

The action of this drug is mediated by GPCR

A. insulin
B. estrogen
C. mannitol
D. salbutamol

A

D

46
Q

The action of this drug is mediated by intracellular nuclear receptors

A. insulin
B. estrogen
C. mannitol
D. salbutamol

A

B

47
Q

The action of this drug is mediated by enzyme-linked receptors

A. insulin
B. estrogen
C. mannitol
D. salbutamol

A

A

48
Q

For Epinephrine to achieve ionotropic and chronotropic effects, it must react with which type of receptors?

A. Ion channel-linked receptors
B. GPCR
C. Cytosolic receptor
D. Enzyme-linked receptors

A

B

49
Q

Action of Mannitol is mediated by this type of receptor:

A. Ionotropic
B. Metabotropic
C.GPCK
D. NOTA

A

D

50
Q

Binding of acetylcholine to nicotinic cholinergic receptor triggers this cellular event:

A. Sodium enters the cell.
B. Chloride ion enters the cell.
C. Hyperpolarization of the membrane
D. G-protein is activated.

A

A

51
Q

Binding of Salbutamol to beta-2 adrenergic receptor triggers this intracellular event:

A. Chloride ion enters the cell
B. Conversion of ATP to cAMP
C. Increase membrane conductance to potassium ions
D. Selective gene expression

A

B