Sample Test Flashcards

1
Q

Chapter 1: The greatest legal concerns for a personal trainer are:

A

Pre-activity health screening of clients Interpreting the results The development of physical activity recommendations and parameters for training The instruction and Supervision of physical activity Emergency preparations Timely fulfillment of such services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Chapter 1: (T/F) A failure to screen or even perform screening which results in client injury may actually increase the likelihood of legal claims and suits based upon negligence.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Chapter 1: (T/F) Employers may not be responsible for the actions of their employees.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Chapter 1: (T/F) It is recommended to utilize applicable protective documents such as waivers, releases and informed consents to meet their legal duties.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Chapter 1: (T/F) It is not recommended to obtain liability insurance when working as an independent contractor.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Chapter 1: (T/F) Professionalism has nothing to do with punctuality, appearance, presentation, knowledge or hygiene.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Chapter 1: (T/F) A client complains about back pain. You should tell them to take NSAIDS and rest.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Chapter 1: (T/F) A client tells you they’re thinking about refinancing their home. You should tell them to re-modify their loan.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Chapter 1: (T/F) A client tells you they’re concerned about their child who is taking drugs. You should return the focus back to the workout.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Chapter 1: (T/F) A client makes a sexual innuendo towards you; you should either report them to your manager or inform them you feel uncomfortable with sexual comments.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Chapter 2: Name the four chambers of the heart.

A

Left and Right Ventricles, Left and Right Atriums.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Chapter 2: Name the three energy systems.

A

ATP/Creatine-Phosphate, Glycolysis, Aerobic Oxidation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Chapter 2: What is the prime mover, antagonist and stabilizers for the bench press?

A

Pectoralis Major (middle and upper fibers emphasized). Rhomboids, Trapezius, Posterior Deltoid. Rotator Cuff Musculature: Supraspinatus, Infaspinatus, Teres Minor, Subscapularis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Chapter 2: What causes post exercise soreness and what do you do about it?

A

Microtrauma to the muscle tissue. PRICE, light stretching or active rest and hydrate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Chapter 2: Describe what occurs during the systolic and diastolic phase of blood pressure. What is considered a normal reading?

A

Systolic is the pressure in the arterial walls during ventricular contraction. Diastolic pressure is the pressure in the arterial walls during ventricular filling. 120/80 is considered a normal reading.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Chapter 2: What is the difference between slow and fast twitch muscle?

A

Slow twitch muscle fibers have slow shortening velocities, are red, endurance and resistant to fatigue, large mitochondria, high myoglobin, rich capillary supply, primarily postural, tonic. Fast twitch muscle fibers have high shortening velocities, fatigue rapidly, have large numbers of actin and myosin filaments which are larger in diameter, are white, prime mover/strength/power, phasic musculature, easily inhibited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Chapter 2: What might be the fat burning target heart range for a 45-year old individual with a resting heart rate of 60 bpm?

A

Using the Karvonen formula and calculating the training heart rate based on Zone 1 (40-65%), the answer is 220 – 45 - 60 x.4 + 60 =106 bpm and 220 – 45 - 60 x.65 + 60 = 135 bpm or 106 -135 bpm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Chapter 2: What is the all or none theory?

A

When a myofiber is innervated by a nerve cell, it contracts totally or not at all.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Chapter 2: Explain the difference between concentric and eccentric in resistance training.

A

A concentric contraction is the shortening of the muscle fibers. An eccentric contraction is the lengthening of the muscle fibers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Chapter 2: Name two functions of blood.

A

Transport oxygen and nutrients to the cell and removes wastes and carbon dioxide from the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Chapter 2: What is the definition of OBLA?

A

Onset of Blood Lactate Accumulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Chapter 2: How could you determine maximum heart rate and training heart rate when designing a cardiovascular workout for a client?

A

VO2 Max test, 220 - age x % = THR, 220 - age - RHR x % + RHR = THR (Karvonen), or 220 - age x % x 1.15 = THR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Chapter 2: Discuss the concept of periodicity.

A

The gradual cycling of specificity, intensity, volume, duration, and frequency to achieve a specific goal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Chapter 2: What is the Valsalva Maneuver?

A

Exhaling forcibly with the glottis closed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Chapter 2: What does the abbreviation ATP mean?

A

Adenosine Triphosphate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Chapter 2: With exercise lasting longer than ten seconds what system kicks in to provide ATP?

A

Glycolytic System.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Chapter 2: How long does Glycolysis last?

A

From ten seconds to three minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Chapter 2: Define reciprocal inhibition.

A

When an agonist or prime mover is called upon to perform a desired motion, the antagonist are neurologically inhibited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Chapter 2: What is a Co-contraction?

A

When the agonist and antagonist contract simultaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Chapter 2: What is a spurt muscle? Give an example.

A

Muscles that have their distal tendon close to the joint axis. Biceps Brachii.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Chapter 2: What is a double-jointed muscle?

A

A muscle in the body that crosses two joints and is able to produce motion at more than one joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Chapter 2: Define the term reversibility.

A

A major decrease in strength and aerobic capacity are apparent after two weeks without exercise, and a major decrease in aerobic capacity after three weeks without exercise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Chapter 2: What would afferent information be?

A

Afferent information is nerve impulses from receptors or sense organs toward the central nervous system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Chapter 2: What is a motor unit?

A

A single a-motor neuron and all of the corresponding muscle fibers it innervates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Chapter 2: Janda suggested there is a group of postural muscles involved in static tasks such as standing or sitting that have a tendency to become overactive. The muscles are referred to as:

A

Tonic muscularature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Chapter 2: What body type is characterized by a muscular build?

A

Mesomorph.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Chapter 2: When a client has a decrease in appetite, inability to sleep and elevated rate heart, they may be:

A

Overtraining.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Chapter 2: The fascia that surrounds bundles of muscle fibers is called?

A

Fasiculi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Chapter 2: Which contraction is the strongest; concentric, eccentric or isometric?

A

Eccentric.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Chapter 2: Define Visceral or smooth muscles.

A

Visceral or smooth muscles operate blood vessels and tubular organs such as the stomach and uterus. Smooth muscle gets its name because there are no striations visible in them. Smooth muscle is autonomous or doesn’t require conscious thought to be stimulated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Chapter 2: Define the origin of a muscle.

A

Is the attachment nearest the midline of the body and/or the end attached to the least
movable bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Chapter 3: List three reasons why eating 5 - 6 meals a day is more effective.

A

Thermogenic effect of food, steady supply of nutrients, and smaller amounts do not encourage fat storage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Chapter 3: What is the ACSM recommended intake of carbohydrates, proteins and fats for health?

A

58% Carbohydrates, 30% or >30% fat, and 12% protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Chapter 3: What are vitamins?

A

Vitamins are organic food substances found only in living things, such as, plants and animals, are required by the body in minute amounts for physiological maintenance and growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Chapter 3: How much water should a person drink a day?

A

For men 125oz, for women 91oz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Chapter 3: How many calories are in: One gram of fat: One gram of carbohydrates: One gram of protein: One gram of vitamins:

A

Fat: 9 Carbohydrate: 4 Protein: 4 Vitamins: 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Chapter 3: The essential Amino Acids are:

A

Phenylalanine
Valine
Threonine
Methionine
Tryptophan
Histidine
Isoleucine
Leucine
Lysine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Chapter 3: Define basal metabolic rate.

A

BMR is the amount of energy expended to support the ongoing metabolic work of the body’s cells at rest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Chapter 3: What major role does potassium play in the body?

A

Production of energy
Muscle contraction
Beating of the heart
Synthesis of protein
Nerve tranquilization
Kidney function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Chapter 3: What is the Institute of Medicine’s recommended intake of carbohydrates, proteins and fats?

A

Carbohydrates 45-65%
Fats 20-35%
Protein 10-35%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Chapter 3: What hormone does the pancreas release in response to high concentration of blood sugar?

A

Insulin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Chapter 3: What macronutrient provides the majority of the energy used by muscles in the first three minutes of an activity?

A

Carbohydrate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Chapter 3: Give an example of a saturated fat.

A

Any fat that is solid at room temperature and/or palm and coconut oil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Chapter 3: According to the Food Guide Pyramid which category of foods offer high-quality protein?

A

Meats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Chapter 3: Which type of vitamins may have a risk for toxicities?

A

Fat-soluble vitamins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Chapter 3: According to the American Dietetic Association, a person should drink _____ 8 oz glasses of water.

A

8 8 oz glasses of water (64 oz).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Chapter 3: What is the acronym RDA stand for?

A

Recommended Dietary Allowance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Chapter 3: Give examples of a disaccharide.

A

Maltose, lactose or sucrose are a few examples.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Chapter 3: Name the essential fats.

A

Linolenic and linoleic acids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Chapter 3: List some of the benefits of vitamin C.

A

Helps to maintain collagen, can reduce histamines and is an antioxidant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Chapter 3: What vitamin is most affected by the industrialization of our food supply?

A

B vitamins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Chapter 3: How many calories are in a food that contains 20 grams of carbohydrates, 42 grams of protein and 12 grams of fat?

A

80 calories from carbs (20x4)
168 calories from protein (42x4)
108 calories from fats (12x9)
356 total calories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Chapter 3: The recommended intake for dietary fiber is:

A

25-30 grams.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Chapter 3: .8 grams per kilogram is the RDA recommendation for healthy adults for which macronutrient?

A

Protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Chapter 3: Galactose and glucose make up the disaccharide:

A

Lactose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Chapter 3: While the body is at rest, what percentage of fat is utilized for fuel?

A

60%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Chapter 3: Glucose and fructose are examples of:

A

Monosaccharides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Chapter 3: Which vitamin helps maintain collagen?

A

Vitamin C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Chapter 4: What is collagen?

A

The most abundant protein in the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Chapter 4: Define the term Golgi Tendon Organ.

A

A sensory organ situated at the musculotendinous junction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Chapter 4: What is a dynamic stretch?

A

The body’s own movement causes the stretch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Chapter 4: What is ballistic stretching?

A

Uncontrolled bouncing, jerking, bobbing or pulsing to achieve greater ROM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Chapter 4: What are the dangers of hyper flexibility?

A

May cause joint instability and precautions during pregnancy would include moderate stretching.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Chapter 4: What sensory receptor activates the stretch reflex mechanism?

A

Muscle spindle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Chapter 4: What can you do to increase the efficiency in the process of reciprocal innervation?

A

A good warm up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Chapter 4: Flexibility around a joint is affected by:

A

Bone structure, ligaments, elasticity of skin, muscles, tendons and fascia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Chapter 4: Tendons are resistant to what kind of force?

A

Tensile forces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Chapter 4: Define the term elastic.

A

The ability to return back to their original shape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Chapter 4: The “ability to return to its original shape” is the definition of:

A

Elastic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Chapter 4: The sensory receptor involved in the stretch reflex mechanism is called:

A

Muscle Spindle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Chapter 5: What percent of body fat for men and women is considered obese?

A

Men 25%
Women 32%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Chapter 5: What is a form of treatment for Osteoarthritis?

A

A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory or some form of analgesic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Chapter 5: What is Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

An autoimmune process resulting in inflammation of the synovial fluid contained in the burs sacks of the joint surfaces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Chapter 5: What is Hypertension?

A

High Blood Pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Chapter 5: Name two things a trainer should pay attention to if working with someone with Hypertension.

A

The client should never do exercises with their head below the level of their heart and they should avoid lifting heavy weights over their heads.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Chapter 5: What should a trainer pay attention to when working with a pregnant client in the first trimester?

A

Heart rate, core temperature, and making sure the client is not exercised to exhaustion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Chapter 5: How often should a pregnant woman consume water when exercising? How much water should be consumed in a hour long training session?

A

At least every ten minutes. 16 to 32 ounces during a one hour session.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Chapter 5: How many tender points must a person have to be diagnosed with Fibromyalgia?

A

11 out of 18 tender points for three months or longer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Chapter 5: What is the primary symptom of Fibromyalgia?

A

Muscle soreness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Chapter 5: What problems can Multiple Sclerosis cause?

A

Muscle control, strength, vision, balance, sensation and mental functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Chapter 5: What causes Multiple Sclerosis?

A

Multiple Sclerosis is the process of demyelination and subsequent disruption of the nerve impulse flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Chapter 5: What should be avoided in an exercise program for someone with Multiple Sclerosis?

A

Exercise programs should be designed to avoid over heating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Chapter 5: What response during exercise can you suspect from a client who is taking a Beta Blocker?

A

A client taking Beta Blockers can have a decreased exercise heart rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Chapter 5: What response during submaximal testing can you suspect from a client who is taking a Calcium Channel Blocker?

A

A client taking a Calcium Channel Blocker can have a lower blood pressure when performing a sub-maximal exercise test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Chapter 5: What considerations should you take when training someone with cancer?

A

Avoid high impact aerobic activity due to risk of bone fractures and avoid pressure or friction on the skin during exercise, because bruising can easily occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Chapter 5: What are some recommendation you might make to a client with osteoporosis?

A

Avoid high impact aerobics, uncontrolled spinal flexion, decrease caffeine intake, increase weight bearing activities and insure and adequate intake of calcium and vitamin D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Chapter 5: When training a client with AIDS/HIV, why is it important to wash your hands?

A

To protect them from being exposed to other infections.

98
Q

Chapter 5: Are sit ups a recommended exercise for a pregnant woman in her second trimester?

A

No.

99
Q

Chapter 5: What can cause Exercise Induced Asthma (EIA)?

A

Cold air and specific intensities and durations. Going too hard too fast.

100
Q

Chapter 5: Define diastasis.

A

Diastasis is the separation of the rectus abdominis muscle.

101
Q

Chapter 5: What are some of the considerations when training someone with cancer?

A

General weakness, nausea, risk of bone fractures and bruising from pressure or friction on the skin.

102
Q

Chapter 5: When training a client with osteoporosis, is it better to perform weight-bearing or non weight-bearing exercise?

A

Weight-bearing exercise.

103
Q

Chapter 5: Considerations when training someone with AIDS/HIV include:

A

Washing your hands to protect the client from exposure to other infections.

104
Q

Chapter 6: What is an anatomical position?

A

In this position the body is in an erect stance, facing forward, arms at the side of the trunk with palms facing forward and the legs together with the feet pointing forward. All joints are in anatomical neutral with the exception of full supination at the radio-ulnar joint.

105
Q

Chapter 6: Define the term supination.

A

Movement in which the palms face forward in anatomical position.

106
Q

Chapter 6: Define the term external.

A

Refers to a segment rotating around a vertical axis so that the anterior surface of the segment moves away from the midline of the body.

107
Q

Chapter 6: What is circumduction?

A

An imaginary “O”. Actually a combination of four movements: flexion, adduction, extension, and abduction.

108
Q

Chapter 6: Define the term Cephalic.

A

Pertaining towards the head.

109
Q

Chapter 6: What is Caudal?

A

Pertaining to the tail end.

110
Q

Chapter 6: (T/F) The term bilateral refers to both sides.

A

True.

111
Q

Chapter 6: (T/F) The terms posterior/dorsal both refer to the back of the body.

A

True.

112
Q

Chapter 6: What means do the anatomical planes provide?

A

They are means of communication or describing motion.

113
Q

Chapter 6: Define the term flexion. Give one example.

A

Flexion occurs when the joint motion is moving away from neutral in the sagittal plane, or if past neutral in a position of extension, is moving back to neutral. Elbow Flexion - curl.

114
Q

Chapter 6: Define the term extension. Give one example.

A

Extension occurs when the joint motion is moving from a position of flexion back to, or past anatomical neutral in the sagittal plane. Elbow extension / triceps push-down.

115
Q

Chapter 6: Name the three planes of motion.

A

Sagittal or Median; Frontal or Coronal; Horizontal or Transverse planes of motion.

116
Q

Chapter 7: Which muscles flex the elbow joint?

A

Biceps Brachii, Brachialis, an Brachioradialis.

117
Q

Chapter 7: The Pes Anserinus consists of:

A

Latin for “Gooses Foot.” The insertion of the Gracilis, Semitendinosus, and the Sartorius.

118
Q

Chapter 7: An example of a closed kinematic exercise chain exercise would be?

A

The bench press.

119
Q

Chapter 7: Name the four muscles of the Rotator Cuff.

A

S.I.T.S. - Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Minor and Subscapularis.

120
Q

Chapter 7: What are the five main spinal regions?

A

Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacral, Coccyx

121
Q

Chapter 7: Name the origin and insertion of the rectus abdominis muscle. What action does it accomplish?

A

Origin: Pubic Crest or Pubic Symphysis. Insertion: Xiphoid Process and the Costal Cartilages of the fifth through seventh ribs. Compresses the abdominopelvic cavity and flexes the vertebral column.

122
Q

Chapter 7: What muscle plantar flexes the foot?

A

Gastrocnemius.

123
Q

Chapter 7: What muscles dorsiflexes the ankle?

A

Tibialis Anterior

124
Q

Chapter 7: What type of joint allows flexion and extension?

A

A ball and socket or a hinge joint.

125
Q

Chapter 7: Give an example of a fusiform muscle.

A

Fusiform muscle: A muscle that has a shape of spindle, which is being wider in the middle and narrowing towards both ends.
Biceps brachii, sartorious, brachialis, rectus femoris and rectus abdominis.

126
Q

Chapter 7: What makes up the shoulder girdle?

A

The clavicle and the scapula.

127
Q

Chapter 7: What does the triceps surae consist of?

A

The two heads of the gastrocnemius and the soleus.

128
Q

Chapter 7: Name the muscles of the quadraceps.

A

Vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus inermedius and rectus femoris.

129
Q

Chapter 7: What is the longest muscle in your body?

A

Sartorius.

130
Q

Chapter 7: What is the longest bone in your body?

A

Femur.

131
Q

Chapter 7: Define a sesamoid bone.

A

A bone embedded within a tendon or a muscle. An example would be the bones found in the base of the first metatarsal in the foot, or of course the largest example would be the patella.

132
Q

Chapter 7: What are the three basic body types in Somatotyping?

A

Ectomorph, mesomorph and endomorph.

133
Q

Chapter 7: What types of muscles maintain a joint in a static position?

A

Stabilizers.

134
Q

Chapter 7: Name the thee heads of the triceps brachii.

A

Long, lateral and medial.

135
Q

Chapter 7: How many vertebrae are found in the cervical region of the spine?

A

Seven.

136
Q

Chapter 7: What is the origin and insertion for the pectoralis major?

A

Origin: Medial half of the clavicle, the sternum, the costal cartilages of the upper six ribs and the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle. Insertion: Greater tubercle of the humerus.

137
Q

Chapter 7: The deltoids and the gluteus maximus are examples of:

A

Penniform muscles: pertaining to the shape of a feather, especially the patterns of muscular fasciculi that correlate with the range of motion and the power of muscles.

138
Q

Chapter 7: Give an example of a Class II lever system.

A

A wheel barrow, can opener or the MTP joint in plantar flexion.

139
Q

Chapter 7: Which muscle dorsiflexes the ankle?

A

Tibialis anterior.

140
Q

Chapter 7: What motions are performed by the iliopsoas?

A

Hip flexion and external rotation concentrically, hip extension and internal rotation eccentrically.

141
Q

Chapter 7: What are the names of the three heads of the triceps brachii?

A

Long, lateral and medial.

142
Q

Chapter 8: What are the six questions you should address to determine the effectiveness of any exercise?

A

Determine the motion
Determine the direction of resistance
Determine the starting position
Monitor joint position stabilization continually
Monitor the path of motion continually
Determine and monitor the range of motion

143
Q

Chapter 8: What do the trunk muscles consist of?

A

Back extensors that bend the trunk backward, lateral flexors that bend it sideways and anterior abdominals that bend it forward.

144
Q

Chapter 8: Movement from the extremities originate and emanate from?

A

The Core.

145
Q

Chapter 8: How should a client position themselves for the supine pelvic hold level 1?

A

Lying with back arched naturally. Feet portioned as close to buttocks as possible.

146
Q

Chapter 8: What percentage of the adult population will experience low back pain?

A

80%.

147
Q

Chapter 8: What is the starting position for the back extension machine?

A

Seated in ideal alignment with arms crossed, line up hip joint with axis of machine.

148
Q

Chapter 8: What are the mechanical points for the reverse crunch?

A

Do not throw the legs, placing arms above head will help with balance, do not move legs passed the point of full abdominal contraction, as this strains the neck.

149
Q

Chapter 8: What is considered to be normal ROM in horizontal abduction?

A

30 - 45 degrees.

150
Q

Chapter 8: What is the motion in a seated cable row? Direction of resistance?

A

Shoulder extension concentrically. Outward.

151
Q

Chapter 8: How can you make the dumbbell pullover a safer exercise?

A

Decline bench makes a better shoulder position, alter speed, bend elbows, or, apply resistance via a cable crossover.

152
Q

Chapter 8: What is the risk/benefit of the butt blaster machine?

A

Risk: body weight plus resistance is resting on one knee, really tough to stabilize spine, room in hip extension beyond neutral = 10-30 degrees, limited range to work glutes.
Benefit: minimal gluteus stimulation.

153
Q

Chapter 8: What is a Q angle?

A

Is formed by the longitudinal axis of the femur and the line of pull of the patellar ligament.

154
Q

Chapter 8: An individual’s mechanical ability to perform under load is primarily based upon what?

A

The length of the levers or segments connecting these joints.

155
Q

Chapter 8: When performing a prone leg curl the pivot point of the machine should be lined up with the:

A

Axis of rotation of the knee.

156
Q

Chapter 8: List two machines that train the latissimus dorsi?

A

Pull up bar, lat-pulldown machine or a row machine.

157
Q

Chapter 8: What is a Carrying Angle?

A

The angle formed between the humerus and the forearm.

158
Q

Chapter 8: What are the prime movers in a squat?

A

Quadraceps at the knee and the Gluteus maximus at the hip.

159
Q

Chapter 8: What muscles are antagonists at the hip in hip extension?

A

Hip Flexors.

160
Q

Chapter 8: What are the agonists in a preacher curl?

A

Biceps brachii, brachioradialis and brachialis.

161
Q

Chapter 8: How much does the intradiscal pressure increase when we are in a seated flexed position?

A

30-40%.

162
Q

Chapter 8: What is the normal range of motion in shoulder flexion?

A

160-180 degrees.

163
Q

Chapter 8: In a seated position, intradiscal pressure increases:

A

30-40%.

164
Q

Chapter 8: What are some of the risks when performing an upright row?

A

Excessive internal rotation during abduction.

165
Q

Chapter 8: When a multi-joint, compound exercise is executed immediately after a single joint exercise, what type of training is this an example of?

A

Pre-exhaustion.

166
Q

Chapter 8: What muscles must be stretched when a client has a protracted shoulder girdle?

A

Pectoralis major, pectoralis minor, subscapularis and anterior deltoid.

167
Q

Chapter 8: A squat, bench press, barbell curl and a leg press are examples of:

A

A closed kinetic chain exercise.

168
Q

Chapter 8: What are the prime movers in a leg press?

A

Vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius and rectus femoris.

169
Q

Chapter 9: What is the difference between muscular strength and muscular endurance?

A

Muscular Strength is the ability of a muscle to exert a force. Muscular Endurance is the ability of a muscle to exert a force over a period of time.

170
Q

Chapter 9: If you train the bench press and the triceps push-down which would usually be trained first?

A

The bench press.

171
Q

Chapter 9: Define the term volume.

A

Volume can be measured by the total amount of work performed in a training session. This can be measured by the amount of repetitions completed or the total amount of weight lifted. This can be measured by each set, workout, day, week, month etc.

172
Q

Chapter 9: Define the term intensity.

A

Intensity is a measure of one’s applied strength relative to their current level of maximum strength. Intensity is most easily represented as a percentage of one’s repetition maximum.

173
Q

Chapter 9: When do type 2A muscle fibers fatigue?

A

Begin at six seconds and fully fatigue at 30-120 seconds.

174
Q

Chapter 9: How much time under tension is needed to receive an Aerobic/Muscular Endurance training effect?

A

Greater than 70 seconds.

175
Q

Chapter 9: What is absolute strength?

A

The maximum amount of force an individual can produce, irrespective of body weight and time of force development. This type of strength is important for shot putters, and football lineman where body weight has a high correlation to an increase in performance.

176
Q

Chapter 9: When working with loads under 60% of maximum how long should the rest periods be?

A

Approximately 45 seconds to two minutes.

177
Q

Chapter 9: What is the double double training technique?

A

In this technique the user performs two different double jointed exercises for the same muscle group back to back.

178
Q

Chapter 9: What are the four components of a fitness routine?

A

Flexibility, stabilization/balance, strength/hypertrophy, cardiovascular.

179
Q

Chapter 9: Define unilateral training.

A

Training one side of the body at a time.

180
Q

Chapter 9: For a hypertrophic effect to occur the repetition range should be:

A

Six to twelve repetitions per set.

181
Q

Chapter 9: Using the Karvonen formula, calculate the training heart rate (THR) of 70% for a 40-year old male with a resting heart rate of 30bpm. Do it again for a 40-year old male with the same %, but a resting heart rate of 72.

A

For the 40-year old with a resting HR or 30 bpm, a THR of 70% = 135bpm. For the 40-year old with a resting HR of 72 bpm; a THR of 70% = 148 bpm.

182
Q

Chapter 9: Normal resting heart rates are:

A

60-100 beats per minute (bpm).

183
Q

Chapter 9: A normal blood pressure reading is:

A

120/80 mm/Hg

184
Q

Chapter 9: Dividing the body weight in kilograms by the height in meters squared (kg/m2) equals:

A

Body Max Index (BMI).

185
Q

Chapter 9: Force times distance divided by time equals? (F x D÷T=)?

A

Power

186
Q

Chapter 9: The stretch shortening cycle is the sequence of:

A

Eccentric action followed by a concentric action.

187
Q

Chapter 10: For how long should you take someone’s pulse after the step test?

A

One Minute.

188
Q

Chapter 10: What are two purposes of fitness testing?

A

To provide information that is helpful in prescribing an exercise program. Educating participants about physical fitness and individual fitness status. List any from page 10-2.

189
Q

Chapter 10: What are two reasons an accurate resting heart rate measurement is important?

A

It is used for the calculation of exercise target heart rate, exercise test, and exercise prescription. It provides baseline information for comparison as cardiovascular fitness levels improve. List any of the four found on page 10-3.

190
Q

Chapter 10: What is considered to be an optimal blood pressure reading?

A

120 systolic and 80 diastolic.

191
Q

Chapter 10: How long does the push-up test last?

A

Until the client can no longer complete another repetition or correct alignment can no longer be maintained

192
Q

Chapter 10: What are the standard sites for women from the 3-site skinfold formula?

A

Triceps brachii, suprailiac and thigh.

193
Q

Chapter 10: What does the acronym BMI stand for?

A

Body Mass Index.

194
Q

Chapter 10: A BMI measurement of 32 may be considered:

A

Class 1 obesity

195
Q

Chapter 10: What is the metronome setting for the 3-minute step test?

A

96 bpm.

196
Q

Chapter 10: What fitness assessment measures the endurance capabilities of the rectus adominis, internal and external obliques?

A

The sit-up test.

197
Q

Chapter 10: What is Upper Cross Syndrome?

A

Forward head posture. Muscles short and facilitated: neck extensors, upper trapezius, sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major and minor. Muscles elongated and inhibited: deep neck flexors, lower, middle trapezius, rhomboids, serratus anterior and rectus abdominis.

198
Q

Chapter 10: Normal range of motion for hip extension is:

A

15 – 30 degrees

199
Q

Chapter 10: Upper Cross Syndrome is characterized by:

A

Short cervical extensors and pectoralis major. Long rhomboids, mid trapezius and cervical flexors.

200
Q

Chapter 10: Which method of assessing body fat has a lower estimated accuracy range; hydrostatic weighing or Bio-Impedance Analysis (BIA)?

A

Hydrostatic weighing is plus or minus 2.5% and BIA is plus or minus 4%.

201
Q

Chapter 10: How many beats per minute should you set the metronome at for the YMCA 3-minute step test?

A

96 beats per minute (bpm).

202
Q

Chapter 10: Normal range of motion for shoulder flexion is:

A

160 – 180 degrees.

203
Q

Chapter 10: Subcutaneous fat levels in individuals are affected by:

A

Gender, body type, age and activity levels.

204
Q

Chapter 11: In the treatment for common injuries, what does the acronym P.R.I.C.E. mean?

A

Protect, Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation.

205
Q

Chapter 11: List two reasons why you should call 911.

A

If the victim is unconscious, is bleeding severely. Any from the list on page 11-2.

206
Q

Chapter 11: How do you treat heat cramps?

A

Rest, gentle stretches, ice, re-hydrate.

207
Q

Chapter 11: What are the symptoms of a sprain?

A

Swelling, limitations of ROM, discoloration, soreness

208
Q

Chapter 11: How do you treat a contusion?

A

Apply Ice.

209
Q

Chapter 11: What are the symptoms of cardiac arrest?

A

Heart stops beating, no pulse, no breathing, ischemia (lack of oxygen to the heart).

210
Q

Chapter 11: How do you treat a blister?

A

If punctured, cleanse blister, protect with pad and dressing.

211
Q

Chapter 11: What are the symptoms of fainting?

A

Light headedness, dizziness, paleness, light sweating.

212
Q

Chapter 11: What is the treatment for heatstroke?

A

Call 911 and try to cool the person down.

213
Q

Chapter 11: What is the treatment for an epileptic seizure?

A

Remove objects that might injure them. Protect their head. Do not place your finger, hand or hard object between their teeth. Don’t restrain, slap or douse them with water. Once the seizure has ended move them to a comfortable place.

214
Q

Chapter 11: What are signs of heat exhaustion?

A

Pale, clammy skin, rapid weak pulse, weakness, headache or nausea.

215
Q

Chapter 11: (T/F) When someone suffers from an epileptic seizure you should place a hard object between the person’s teeth.

A

False

216
Q

Chapter 11: What are some signs of hypoglycemia?

A

Excessive hunger, dizziness or weakness.

217
Q

Explain the difference between using free weights and selectorized equipment

A

Free weights are functional, real life, easy to transport and require technique. Machines require less technique and less stabilization from the user. Because of the guided path of motion and the outside support mechanisms or the machine, more weight may be lifted. However, machines might not fit everyone.

218
Q

Chapter 12: What are the concerns to be aware of when using free weights?

A

Awkwardness, potential danger to the body from lack of control, skill needed, momentum.

219
Q

Chapter 12: How much does a Cybex hack squat carriage weigh?

A

65 pounds.

220
Q

Chapter 12: What is the weight of a 7-foot Olympic bar?

A

45 pounds.

221
Q

Chapter 12: What is the weight of an E-Z curl bar?

A

25 pounds.

222
Q

Chapter 13: (T/F) Lack of physical activity is a risk factor for heart disease.

A

True.

223
Q

Chapter 13: How many deaths in the U. S. per year are attributed to lack of physical fitness?

A

250,000

224
Q

Chapter 13: Of people age 55 and older, what percentage report essentially sedentary lifestyles?

A

38 percent.

225
Q

Chapter 14: How many minutes should you arrive before your training appointment and what should you do when you get there?

A

10 - 15 minutes.

226
Q

Chapter 14: What are the five most important points to look for on a client profile?

A

Goals, Experience, Medical History, Career or Job and Signature.

227
Q

Chapter 14: What are the four key points of a sale?

A

Acknowledge, Isolate, Overcome, Close.

228
Q

Chapter 14: After performing an intro, what should you do with the client’s workout card and their client profile?

A

Keep the signed Client Profile Sheet and give them their workout card.

229
Q

Chapter 14: How often should you call back your intros?

A

At least once.

230
Q

Chapter 14: What are the three means of communication?

A

Visual, auditory and kinesthetic.

231
Q

Chapter 14: (T/F) It is important for clients to use the mirrors to monitor technique.

A

True.

232
Q

Chapter 14: Which two subjects should you refrain from speaking with your clients?

A

Religion and politics.

233
Q

Chapter 14: A claims made policy is an example of what kind of insurance?

A

Liability insurance.

234
Q

Chapter 14: What is the most important aspect to focus on when trying to sell services to a potential client?

A

Their goals.

235
Q

Chapter 2: What is a myofibril? What are the two myofilaments that compose a myofibril?

A

Myofibril—the smallest unit of a muscle cell. Actin (thin) and myosin (thick) filaments.

236
Q

Chapter 2: What are the three types of connective tissue that encompass muscle?

A

Endomysium, Perimysium, Epimysium.

237
Q

Chapter 2: Intrafusal muscle fibers:

A

Intrafusal muscle fibers are skeletal muscle fibersthat serve as specialized sensory organs (proprioceptors) that detect the amount and rate of change in length of a muscle.

238
Q

Chapter 2: Extrafusal muscle fibers:

A

Extrafusal muscle fibers are the skeletal standard muscle fibers that are innervated by alpha motor neurons and generate tension by contracting, thereby allowing for skeletal movement.

239
Q

Chapter 2: Law of Facilitation:

A

When an impulse passes once through a given set of neurons to the exclusion of others, it will tend to do so again; and each time it transverses this path, the resistance will be smaller. Facilitation is defined as the enhancement or reinforcement of a reflex or other nervous system activity by the arrival of other nervous activity at the reflex center of other excitatory impulses. Remember, perfect practice makes perfect performance!

240
Q

Chapter 2: What is the ideal body fat percentage for men and women?

A

Men: ASCM 8%-22% (NCCPT 10%-15%)

Women: ASCM 20%-35% (NCCPT 15%-20%)

241
Q

Chapter 2: Heart Rate Zones

A
Zone 1: 40-65% MHR
Zone 2 ("aerobic endurance” zone): 65-85%
Zone 3 ("peak zone"): 85%+