SAM midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Hypoglycemia

Endocrine vs Exocrine pancreas

A

Endocrine: islets of langerhans secrete glucagon & insulin to regulate/maintain BG levels

Exocrine: acinar & ductal cells secrete digestive enzymes & bicarb to aid w/ digestion of CHOs, fats, proteins

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2
Q

Hypoglycemia

What 3 things does insulin initiate?

A

Insulin is present in high levels in a “fed state”:

  1. Glucose storage (glycogen/glycogenesis in liver + skeletal mm.)
  2. Protein storage (AAs/proteogenesis in skeletal mm.)
  3. Lipid storage (FFAs, glycerol/lipogenesis in adipose tissue)

promotes glucose uptake into cells -> “BG-lowering”

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3
Q

Hypoglycemia

Which hormone does insulin prohibit?

A

In a “fed state”, insulin PROHIBITS glucagon

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4
Q

Hypoglycemia

What does glucagon do?

A

Glucagon is present in a FASTED state:
- glycogenolysis (release from liver & skeletal mm.) + gluconeogenesis (liver)
- lipolysis (adipose tissue)

Promotes release of glucose out of cells = “BG-elevating”

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5
Q

Hypoglycemia

Role of liver in carbohydrate physiology

A

Hepatocytes (60% liver mass) possess metabolic activity:
- glucose storage (glycogenesis) and release (glycogenolysis + gluconeogenesis)

injury to hepatocytes can cause hypoBG

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6
Q

Hypoglycemia

How much hepatic mass needed intact to maintain euglycemia?

A

> 30%

Hepatocytes make up 60% of mass

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7
Q

Hypoglycemia

Which hormones stimulate gluconeogenesis?

A

Glucagon & cortisol (in liver)

epi triggers glycogenolysis, cortisol triggers gluconeogenesis
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8
Q

Hypoglycemia

Hypoglycemia

A

BG < 60mg/dL

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9
Q

Hypoglycemia

Which hormones (4) are released in response to hypoglycemia/why?

A

1. Glucagon
2. Cortisol
3. Epinephrine
4. Growth Hormone

WHY: glycogenolysis + gluconeogenesis; insulin antagonism/inhibit glucose uptake in peripheral tissues

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10
Q

Hypoglycemia

Causes of hypoglycemia (8)

A

1. Liver failure (hepatocytes)
2. Insulinoma
3. Iatrogenic insulin excess (diabetes medication)
4. Hypoadrenocorticism (cortisol critical for gluconeogenesis + insulin antagonism)
5. Sepsis (incr. glucose consumption + impaired gluconeogenesis)
6. Juveniles; hunting dogs; toy breeds
7. Xylitol toxicity
8. Spurious (red top sits out too long)

Liver failure usually acute hepatic injury; high xylitol dose -> acute liver injury, low xylitol dose -> hypoglycemia

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11
Q

Hypoglycemia

Work-up for the newly dx hypoglycemic patient

A
  1. AUS (adrenals, pancreas, liver; r/o other diseases)
  2. Bile acids
  3. Basal cortisol
  4. Paired BG/insulin
Paired BG + insulin test
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12
Q

Hypoglycemia

How to treat a stable, hypoglycemic toy breed/neonatal patient

A

Diet: small, multiple meals high in fat, protein, and complex carbs

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13
Q

Hypoglycemia

How to treat stable insulinoma dog

A
  1. Dietary (same as toy breeds)
  2. Glucocorticoids (pred)
  3. Diazoxide
  4. Sx

Diazoxide blocks insulin release by pancreas

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14
Q

Hypoglycemia

Acute hypoglycemic crisis treatment:

A

50% dextrose IV diluted 1:4 @ 1ml/kg dose

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15
Q

Hypoglycemia

Prognosis of insulinoma

A
  • Short-term: good (sx 1-2yr, medical 6mo)
  • Long-term: guarded-poor, almost 100% mets
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16
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

Differentials for petechiae (3)

A
  1. Thrombocytopenia
  2. Vasculitis
  3. Thrombocytopathia

Thrombocytopenia: SPUD

S: Sequestration
P: decreased Production
U: Utilization/consumption
D: immune-mediated Destruction

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17
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

Morula in monocyte vs. neutrophil

A

MONOCYTE = Canine Monocytic Ehrliciosis (E. canis)
- Ehrlichia canis - target cell = monocytes

NEUTROPHIL = Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis (A. phagocytophilum) / Ehrlichiosis (E. ewingii)
- Morulae CANNOT be distinguished b/w the two!
- granulocytes = neuts, eosins, basos

Blood smear dx sensitivity decreases w/ chronicity

Rickettsial diseases: Ehrlichia cani/ewingii/chafeensis & Rickettsia rickettsii; purebred dogs like German Shepherds more susceptible

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18
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

Canine monocytic ehrliciosis is transmitted by which tick?

A

E. canis = Brown dog tick

- Rhipicephalus sanguineus

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19
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

Clinical features of Acute vs. Chronic phases of E. canis infection

A

Acute (8-20d post inoculation): fever, lethargy, inapp., thrombocytopenia + thrombycytopathia (petechiae)
Chronic: acute plus bone marrow hypoplasia (pancytopenia), marked lymphocytosis, and bone marrow plasmacytosis–>hyperglobulinemia

3rd poss. stage = subclinical

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20
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

What is the gold standard for diagnosing E. canis?

A

Indirect Immunofluorescent Antibody (IFA) test

relies on IgG antibodies

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21
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

E. canis: Whole blood PCR is more sensitive for __?__ infections, while serology is more sensitive for __?__ infections.

A

E. canis: Whole blood PCR is more sensitive for __ACUTE__ infections, while serology is more sensitive for __CHRONIC__ infections.

  • PCR can detect DNA as early as 4-10d post inoculation

Serology: Ab testing, IFA, ELISA (snap 4Dx)

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22
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

Common clinical findings of E. ewingii and A. phagocytophillum

A
  • Fever & lymphadenomegaly
  • Lameness/joint effusion from non-erosive polyarthritis
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23
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

Canine granulocytic ehrliciosis is transmitted by which tick?

A

E. ewingii = Lone Star tick

Amblyomma americanum

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24
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

How do clinical features of E. ewingii differ from E. canis?

A

E. ewingii presents with milder clinical disease/only causes acute disease; clinical signs develop later / 3-4 weeks post inoculation

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25
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

Canine granulocytic anaplasmosis is primarily transmitted by which tick on east coast?

A

A. phagocytophillum = Deer tick/black-legged tick

Ixodes scapularis

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26
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

How does A. phagocytophillum clinically appear in most dogs?

A

No signs; potential ones are non-specific & include polyarthritis

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27
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

Rickettsia rickettsii targets what cells? What tick transmitts it?

A
  • Target cell = endothelial cells of smaller a/v–> vasculitis
  • RMSF = Dermacentor ticks
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28
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

Pathophys of RMSF

A

R. rickettsii replicates in endothelial cells -> vasculitis -> PLT/coag system activated + thrombytopenia (destruction) -> DIC or thrombosis occur

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29
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

Which organs are most adversely affected by RMSF?

A

skin, brain, heart, kidneys

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30
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

Incubation period + clinical findings of RMSF

A
  • 2-14 days
  • joint stiffness/pain (arthralgia) + spinal hyperesthesia
  • thrombocytopenia
  • cutaneous edema + hyperemia
  • Neuro signs (meningitis -> encephalomyelitis)
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31
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

How is RMSF primarily diagnosed?

A

Serologic testing (IFA)

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32
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

American Canine Hepatozoonosis
- Protozoal name
- how is it spread
- common clinpath findings (3)

A
  • Protozoa: Hepatozooan americanum
  • spread via ingestion of Amblyomma maculatum (Gulf Coast tick)
  • Leukocytosis (20,000-200,000 cell/uL), increased ALKP, hypoglycemia
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33
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

American Canine Hepatozoonosis
- clinical findings
- diagnosis
- treatment

A

Clinical findings:
- often a CHRONIC infection!!
- severe muscle wasting, generalized hyperesthesia, stiff gait, purulent ocular d/c
- signs wax/wane in severity
- xrays: periosteal bone proliferation (proximal aspect of limbs)

Diagnosis:
- skeletal muscle biopsy

Treatment:
- TCP combo therapy for 2 weeks (TMS + clindamycin + pyrimethamine), followed by 2 years of decoquinate (anticoccidial drug)
- Does NOT respond to doxycycline!

"Onion" cysts in muscle
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34
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

What protozoa is primarily transmitted by the brown dog tick (Rhipicephalus sanguineus) in the U.S.?

A

Babesia canis
- strain in U.S. = Babesia canis vogeli
- Large, piriform-shaped protoza living within RBCs

differentiate from Babesia gibsoni, which are small protozoa that exist singly within RBCs w/ ring-like configuration
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35
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

Clinical features of Canine Babesiosis

A
  • US = uncomplicated (non-specific signs, thrombyctopenia, hemolytic anemia)
  • South Africa = complicated (same + acute RF, cerebral signs, hepatic injurt, ARDS, pancreaittis, red biliary syndrome)
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36
Q

Tick-Transmitted Disease

Which dog breeds have high prevalence of sublinical canine babesiosis infection?

A
  1. Greyhounds (B. canis vogeli)
  2. American pit bull terriers (B. gibsoni)
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37
Q

Hypertension

BP = ?

A

CO x SVR
- CO = HR x SV
- BP regulated by RAAS and SNS

SV = end diastolic volume - end systolic volume

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38
Q

Hypertension

Explain RAAS system in relation to hypotension

A

The kidneys detect hypotensive state -> renin released -> renin facilitates angiotensin I conversion in the liver -> ACE converts angiontensin I into II in the lungs -> angiotensin II stimulates adrenals to release aldosterone -> vasoconstriction -> increased SVR

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39
Q

Hypertension

Systemic hypertension

A

Persistent elevation of systemic BP
- Systolic > 160mmHg
- Diastolic > 120mmHg

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40
Q

Hypertension

What is the most common cause of systemic hypertension in dogs/cats?

A

Secondary (to a condition that increases CO or SVR)

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41
Q

Hypertension

BP cuff width should be ____?____ % of the circumference of the chosen site (limb or tail).

A

30-40%

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42
Q

Hypertension

Possible areas of TOD

A

eyes, kidneys, brain, heart & vasculature

Minimal risk: normotensive < 140
Low risk: prehypertensive 140-159
Moderate risk: hypertensive 160-179
High risk: severe ≥ 180

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43
Q

Hypertension

Top causes of hypertension in cats

A

CKD; hyperthyroidism

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44
Q

Hypertension

Top causes of hypertension in dogs

A

Kidney disease (acute & chronic), Cushing’s, DM

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45
Q

Hypertension

When should hypertension be treated?

A
  • Severe hypertension (≥ 180mmHg)
  • Evidence of TOD w/ moderate (160-179mmHg) or severe

If mod-severe with no evidence of TOD, recheck in 1-2 weeks

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46
Q

Hypertension

First line of tx in cats for hypertension

A

Amlodipine
- calcium channel blocker (relax vascular smooth muscle -> vasodilation -> decreased SVR)

used in dogs with severe hypertension

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47
Q

Hypertension

First line of tx in dogs for hypertension

A

ACE-I like enalapril or benazepril
- can be used to also treat associated proteinuria, but can reduce GFR/cause azotemia in some patients
- avoid in dehydrated patients

Are INEFFECTIVE in cats!

ACE-I preferentially vasodilate renal efferent arteriole of glomerulus
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48
Q

Hypertension

When is telmisartan used? What drug class is it?

A
  • Moderate hypertension in cats (< 200 mmHg)
  • Alternative tx for reducing proteinuria compared to ACE-I
  • Is an angiotensin II receptor blocker
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49
Q

Hypertension

How are pheochromocytomas treated?

A

With alpha adrenergic antagonists (prazosin, phenooxybenzamine)

tumor of adrenal glands that results in excess catecholamines release

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50
Q

Hypertension

Goals of treatment for hypertension

A
  1. Avoid or correct TOD
  2. Reach systolic BP b/w 110-140 mmHg

start meds on low end to avoid hypotension

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51
Q

Hypertension

When is spironolactone used to treat hypertension?

A

Useful w/ hyperaldosteronism
- diuretic that acts as an aldosterone antagonist

52
Q

Hypertension

When to do BP rechecks for hypertension (relative to TOD presence or not)

A
  1. Yes TOD = 3 days
  2. No TOD = 7-10 days
  3. Once stable, q3 months
53
Q

Feline HT4

Describe the thyroid pathway

A

TRh from hypothalmus signals TSH release from pituitary, which signals T4 (and T3) release from thyroid.

54
Q

Feline HT4

Clinical signs and cause of feline hyperthyroidism

A
  • weight loss despite normal appetitie
  • thyroid adenoma

dogs: lymphocytic thyroiditis

HT4 = most common endocrinopathy of cats

55
Q

Feline HT4

Goals of hyperthyroid therapy in cats

A

Achieve euthyroidism (T4 = 1.5-3.0 ug/dL)

RR 0.8-4.0 ug/dL

56
Q

Feline HT4

How to treat HT4 cat with CKD and/or hypertension

A

Prioritize treating HT4
- CKD: once T4 stabilized, true renal values appear
- Hypertension: T4 stabilization usually resolves high BP

57
Q

Feline HT4

Treatment options (4) and which are used for management vs. curative

A
  1. Methimazole - mgmt.
  2. Diet (low iodine, Hill’s y/d) - mgmt.
  3. Sx thyroidectomy - curative
  4. Radioiodine therapy - curative

both curatives can relapse

58
Q

Feline HT4

Benefits of Methimazole (3)

A
  1. Cheap, effective, reversible
  2. Oral or transdermal application
  3. Long-term administration effective

if GI signs develop from PO, can switch to TD

59
Q

Feline HT4

What is the typical starting dose for methimazole? Dosage options?

A
  1. Starting dose = 5mg/day
  2. Dosages: 2.5mg BID; 5.0mg SID

SID may take longer to control HT4 (up to 8 weeks)

If CKD, start at lower doses & titrate to aid with preventing decompensation of cats presenting with azotemia at time of HT4 diagnosis.
- creatinine/azotemia often rise during methimazole therapy since true GFR revealed.

60
Q

Feline HT4

Describe potential consequences of treating HT4 w/ Methimazole long-term in cats (3).

A
  1. Tumor progresses –> increase dosage
  2. thyroid hyperplasia (large goiter) –> difficult to manage
  3. Adenoma transforms into carcinoma –> resistant to antithyroidal drugs
61
Q

Feline HT4

Describe methimazole monitoring once therapy is initiated.

A

Re-check CBC/Chem/T4 and BP in 4 weeks
- want to evaluate for hepatotoxicity, blood dyscrasias, azotemia, T4 progress

Blood dyscrasias: include thrombocytopenia, neutropenia, anemia

62
Q

Feline HT4

The presence of which methimazole side effects should make you stop therapy?

A
  • blood dyscrasias
  • hepatotoxicity
  • facial pruritus
63
Q

Feline HT4

Pros/cons of low-iodine diet for HT4 cats

A
  • Good option for cats who don’t tolerate methimazole and can’t undergo radioiodine therapy due to concurrent diseases
  • Bad option for cats where difficult to control diet (these cats must be exclusively eating y/d)
64
Q

Feline HT4

Pros and cons of radioiodine therapy

A

Pros
- 95% efficacy w/ one treatment
- treatment of choice (destroys abnormal thyroid tissue)

Cons
- requires isolation b/c radioactive ( cats w/ severe, life-threatening diseases not good candidates)
- can cause permanent iatrogenic hypothyroidism (and cat will need to be pilled)

Lower doses of I131 work best

65
Q

Feline HT4

When would surgical thyroidectomy be a good treatment option for cat w/ HT4?

A
  • less common due to increasing availability of radioiodine therapy, but good for cats with carcinoma progression
  • risks of hypothyroidism, hypoparathyroidism, recurrence even w/ bilat. thyroidectomy
66
Q

Feline HT4

How to diagnose and treat iatrogenic hypothyroidism

Common post HT4 treatment

A

Diagnosis
- Overt: LT4, HTSH
- Subclinical: L-normalT4, HTSH

Treatment
- treat when persistent signs + new/worsening azotemia
- Rx = Levothyroxine

benefits of tx: increase GFR -> increase survival

Levothyroxine
67
Q

Testing Thyroid Function

Free T4 vs. TT4

A

Thyroxine (T4) - 80% of thyroid hormone produced by thyroid gland.
- 99.9% of circulating T4 = protein-bound
- 0.01% of circulating T4 = free/unbound (free T4) = active form that can enter cells

Free T4 = fT4
- highly sensitive & specific

Total T4 =TT4 measures protein-bound + free T4
- very sensitive (90%) but not specific (prone to false positives)

TT4 inaccurate as stand-alone marker for evaluating thyroid function

68
Q

Testing Thyroid Function

Euthyroid Sick Syndrome

A

suppression of TT4 +/- fT4 in response to clinical illness (e.g., megaE/asp. pneumonia)

69
Q

Testing Thyroid Function

Does presence of thyroid slip indicate hyperthyroid?

A

NO- have to correlate slip with clinical signs.

if the mass will cause HT4, clinical signs arise within 14 months

70
Q

Testing Thyroid Function

Cats and non-thyroidal illness

A

Often, cats with a non-thyroidal illness will have increased TT4

if high-normal TT4, can be early HT4 or NTI

71
Q

Testing Thyroid Function

Clinical signs of hypothyroidism

A
  • decreased activity; exercise intolerance
  • truncal alopecia/hair easily epilated
  • mild obesity
72
Q

Testing Thyroid Function

Which drugs can increase TT4/fT4?

A

phenobarb, clomipramine (TCA), sulfonamides, glucocorticoids, NSAIDs

73
Q

Testing Thyroid Function

50% of hypothyroid cases in dogs are caused by what?

A

Autoimmune thyroiditis
- autoantibodies to T4 or T3
- can falsely elevate values even if truely LT4
- fT4 measured by equilibrium dialysis in unaffected

all other assays for TT4 or fT4 are inaccurate w/ autoantibodies

74
Q

Testing Thyroid Function

How often is levothyroxine dosed?

A

0.022mg/kg once per day
- 4hr post administration should result in high-normal T4

75
Q

Testing Thyroid Function

70% of LT4 dogs have this finding on serum chemistries

A

hypocholesterolemia

76
Q

Testing Thyroid Function

Low++ TT4, low-normal fT4, high++ TSH

A

Most likely hypothyroid
- pituitary releasing TSH to thyroid gland but thyroid not responding

77
Q

Testing Thyroid Function

90% of HT4 cats have this enzyme elevation

A

liver

ALKP (inducible)

78
Q

Testing Thyroid Function

Cat with high-normal TT4, increased fT4, detectable TSH

A

possibly HT4, but assess for non-thyroidal illness

e.g., CKD, DM, neoplasia, heart disease, IBD, hepatic disease

79
Q

Fluid Therapy

Maintenance fluid rate

A

Maintenance = 30-60 ml/kg/day

large breed -> small breed

80
Q

Fluid Therapy

How to calculate hydration deficit

A

BWkg * dehydration decimal = hydration deficit in LITERS

rehydration corrected over 12-24h, faster azotemic, slower heart dz

81
Q

Approach to Anemic Pt

Causes of Loss

Hemorrhage

A
  1. Induced - trauma v. parasites
  2. Spontaneous - thrombocytopenia (SPUD) v. coagulopathy v. DIC
  • See decreased plasma protein!

Acute: trauma, coag., cancer. Chronic: parasites, ulcers, cancer

82
Q

Approach to Anemic Pt

Causes of Destruction

Hemolysis

A

Infectious (mycoplasma spp.) v. immune-mediated (IMHA) v. drugs v. DIC (fragmentation)

  • See icterus/hyperbilirubinemia! (bilirubin = by-product of Hg breakdown)

Also: oxidative (zine, acetaminophen), fragmentation (iron deficiency)

Intravascular hemolysis: direct lysis from shear stress, toxin, complement autoantibody in the blood vessels

Extravascular hemolysis: macophages destroy damaged/abnormal RBCs in the spleen, liver, bone marrow

Heinz bodies -> oxidative HA
Spherocytes -> IMHA
Hemoparasites -> infectious HA

83
Q

Approach to Anemic Pt

Causes of Hypoplasia

Decreased production

A
  1. Refractory - anemia of chronic disease v. renal failure
  2. Bone marrow - aplastic anemia v. pancytopenia v. drugs
  3. Bone marrow - immune-mediated v. neoplasia v. idiopathic
84
Q

Approach to Anemic Pt

Common PE findings for anemia

A

pale gums, tachycardic, bounding or weak pulses, dullness/collaspe, icterus, petechiae, effusion

85
Q

Approach to Anemic Pt

Leukogram pattern for IMHA

A

profound inflammatory leukogram

86
Q

Approach to Anemic Pt

1º vs. 2º IMHA

A

- idiopathic
- drugs, neoplasms, infection

Rule out 2º via infectious disease testing and imaging (neoplasia)

2º to infection: Babesia (dog), FeLV or Mycoplasma (cat)

87
Q

Approach to Anemic Pt

IMHA treatment

A

Prednisone(-olone), Clopidogrel

want to prevent thrombotic complications

88
Q

Approach to Anemic Pt

Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity causes what type of anemia? How is it treated?

A
  • Loss
  • Anticoag. rodenticide interferes with vitamin K metabolism
  • Clotting factors 2, 7, 9, and 10 require Vitamin K to be functional (present in all 3 arms of cascade)
  • Tx –> fresh frozen plasma OR fresh whole blood

Need to replace functional clotting factors

Dx: increased PT/PTT

  • Fresh frozen plasma = clotting factors, plasma proteins (albumin, immunoglob, fibrinogen)
  • Whole blood contains = RBCs, WBCs, PLTs, plasma
89
Q

Approach to Anemic Pt

Iron deficiency anemia
- characterize type
- common cause
- PE and clinpath findings

A
  • CHRONIC, external blood loss
  • Gastrointestinal (parasitism, ulceration, neoplasia)
  • Animal has learned to compensate for anemia
  • Non-regenerative; microcytic, hypochromic

RBC loss continues -> bone marrow regen weak to absent

90
Q

Approach to Anemic Pt

Which anemias are regenerative v. non-regenerative?

A

Regenerative: blood loss, destruction

Non-regenerative: hypoplasia

If you suspect loss or destruction, but non-regen, may be pre-regenerative or long-term chronicity.

1º bone marrow disease: primary failure of erythropoiesis (pure RBC aplasia). Can be immune-mediated (idiopathic), drugs (chemo, methimazole, pheno, sulfonamides, chloramphen, estrogen)

91
Q

Approach to Bleeding Pt

Ddx for increased PT/PTT

A
  1. VitK absence or antagonism
  2. DIC
  3. Hepatic failure

liver makes coag factors

92
Q

Approach to Bleeding Pt

Common findings with IMTP and what to transfuse

A
  • Non-regen. anemia, severe thrombocytopenia (PLT 0-20,000/uL)
  • Splenomegaly
  • Treat with either fresh whole blood or packed RBCs. Usually the latter due to immediate destruction of PLTs in the whole blood.

Most common cause = immune-mediated

IMTP = 'D' in SPUD

initial therapy includes immunosuppressants

93
Q

Approach to Bleeding Pt

Clinical evidence of failure of 1º vs 2º hemostasis

A

1º = PLTs
- Mucosal surface bleeding, multi-focal (epistaxis, petechiae, hematuria, melena or hematochezia)

2º = clotting factors
- Body cavity bleeding, localized (hemothorax/abd; hemarthrosis)

94
Q

Approach to Bleeding Pt

Why is total protein WNL with acute HGE?

A

The vasculature has not yet responded quickly enough to fluid loss from v+/d+

95
Q

Immunosuppressive Therapy

Glucocorticoids
- MoA
- Side effects
- Contraindications

A
  • First-line therapy
  • Prednis(ol)one, dexamethasone
  • MoA: inhibits before arachidonic acid (gets inflammatory mediators and prostaglandins)
  • Side effects: PU/PD, panting, polyphagia, muscle atrophy/weakeness, vaculoar hepatopathy, GI ulceration, can facilitate DM development in cats, steroid hepatopathy
  • Contraindications: DM, infections, Cushing’s, NSAIDs
  • MUST BE TAPERED OFF! (decrease dose by 25% of original dose every 2-4 weeks once 1-2 weeks beyond resolution)
96
Q

Immunosuppressive Therapy

Azathioprine
- MoA
- Side effects
- Contraindications

A
  • Second line therapy
  • MoA: inhibits purine synthesis//lymphocyte proliferation
  • Side effects: cytopenias, hepatotoxicity, chronic subclinical anemia
  • Contraindications: CATS (myelosuppression), already on glucocorticoid
97
Q

Immunosuppressive Therapy

Cyclosporine
- MoA
- Side effects
- Contraindications

A
  • Second line therapy
  • MoA: Impairs T-cell function//lymphocytes
  • Side effects: Primarily GI
  • Contraindications: long list of drug interactions

Atopica®

98
Q

Immunosuppressive Therapy

Chlorambucil
- MoA
- Side effects

A
  • Second line drug in cats; chronic PLE in dogs
  • MoA: Antineoplastic (lymphoma!)
  • Side effects: GI, myelosuppression, neuro signs, alopecia
99
Q

Immunosuppressive Therapy

Leflunomide
- MoA
- Side effects
- Contraindications

A
  • Add-on (w/ pred) or stand-alone
  • MoA: reduces lymphocyte proliferation
  • Side effects: well-tolerated; GI, myelosupp.
  • Contraindications: liver disease, pregnant/nursing, kidney disease
100
Q

Immunosuppressive Therapy

Mycophenolate mofetil
- MoA
- Side effects
- Contraindications

A
  • Lone agent in “stable” disease, or combo w/ pred
  • MoA: Reduces lymphocyte proliferation
  • Side effects: GI
  • Contraindications: current infections, liver or kidney disease
101
Q

Immunosuppressive Therapy

What is human intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) used for?

A

Adjuncrtive treatment
- Rapidly stops RBC destruction
- Used for short-term stabilization of IMHA or IMTP patients

102
Q

Immunosuppressive Therapy

What is vincristine used for?

A

Adjunctive tx for ITP
- increases megakarycytopoiesis (PLT precursor)
- increases thrombopoiesis
- reduces PLT destruction

103
Q

Immunosuppressive Therapy

Anti-PLT vs. anti-coagulent therapy

A

Anti-PLT: clopidogrel (1-3 mg/kg/day)
Anti-coagulent: heparin

104
Q

Immunosuppressive Therapy

Treatment plan for dog w/ IMTP

A
  1. Primary tx. = prednisone or dexamethasone
  2. Adjunctive (to improve PLT recovery time) = vincristine or IVIG
  3. Add on second-line drug if inappropriate response to therapy

Overall tx likely 3-6 months (includes taper)

Melena = poor prognostic indicator b/c suggests significant upper gastrointestinal bleeding

105
Q

Icterus

Describe bilirubin physiology

A

When RBC dies, its hemoglobin is also broken down. Produces waste product = indirect bilirubin. Converted into direct bilirubin in the liver prior to excretion in the gallbladder (and stored as bile). Later used to aid with digestion of fatty foods in duodenum.

106
Q

Icterus

3 categories of hyperbilirubinemia

A

Pre-hepatic (hemolysis)
Hepatic (liver failure)
Post-hepatic (biliary obstruction)

107
Q

Icterus

Examples of pre-hepatic hyperbilirubinema (3)

AKA Hemolysis

A
  1. IMHA
  2. Toxic (zinc, onions, garlic)
  3. Post-transfusion (alloautoantibodies)
108
Q

Icterus

Examples of hepatic hyperbilirubinema (5)

AKA liver failure

A
  1. Toxin (xylitol, blue-green algae, sago palm)
  2. Hepatitis (viral)
  3. End-stage PSS
  4. Microvascular dysplasia
  5. Hepatic lipidosis
109
Q

Icterus

Examples of post-hepatic hyperbilirubinema (4)

AKA biliary obstruction

A
  1. Gall bladder mucocele
  2. Pancreatitis
  3. Cholelithiasis
  4. Tumors
110
Q

Icterus

Clinpath findings with hepatobiliary diease

A

1. Elevated liver enzymes
- Hepatocellular: ALT > ALKP
- Cholestatic: ALKP > ALT

2. Decreased Alb, Chol, Gluc, BUN

111
Q

Pancreatitis

What is pancreatitis

A

Inappropriate or early activation of the digestive enzymes released by exocrine pancreas –> INFLAMMATION due to “auto-digestion” of pancreas

Presence of AAs & fat in duodenum stimulate acinar cells of exocrine pancreas

112
Q

Pancreatitis

Clinical signs of pancreatitis

A
  • Dogs: vomiting, painful abdomen
  • Cats: lethargy, anorexia
113
Q

Pancreatitis

Clinpath findings that help support pancreatitis dx

A
  • Elevated hepatic enzymes
  • Inflammation
  • Hyperbilirubinemia (esp. cats)
114
Q

Pancreatitis

Serological test to aid in dx pancreatitis

A

Pancreatic Lipase Immunoreactivity snap test

Pancreatic Lipase Immunoreactivity (PLI)
Source: Pancreas
Clearance: Kidneys
Measures: Pancreatic lipase (specific for lipase originating from the pancreas)
Available for both dogs (Spec cPL) & cats (Spec fPL)

Increased fPLI—Diagnostic utility in cats: improved sensitivity and specificity over TLI in cases of pancreatitis. (NOTE: chronic pancreatitis and mild pancreatitis may still be missed!!)

Increased cPLI—Diagnostic utility in dogs: Most sensitive and specific test for canine pancreatitis but likely some overlap with other diseases

Decreased PLI—Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, but lower sensitivity than TLI

115
Q

Pancreatitis

Why is low-fat diet paramount for treating pancreatitis?

A

B/c pancreas is responsible for releasing digestive enzymes in response to presence of FAT in the duodenum -> want to MINIMIZE pancreatic enzyme release so it can heal

116
Q

Increased Liver Enzymes

Hepatocellular vs cholestasis induction enzymes

A

Hepatocellular: ALT, AST
Cholestatic: ALKP, GGT

Persistent ALT elevation indicates continued hepatocyte injury

117
Q

Increased Liver Enzymes

Decreases in which values on chemistry indicate impaired liver function?

A
  • Cholesterol
  • Albumin
  • Glucose
  • BUN

All above DECREASE; Bilirubin increases

Protein breakdown -> ammonia produced -> transformed into urea in liver

118
Q

Increased Liver Enzymes

On chemistry, ALKP (ALP) is the combined measurement of…

A

3 isoenzymes
1. Liver
2. Corticosteroid (dogs)
3. Bone (young growing dogs)

half life: 70h (D), 6h (C)

119
Q

Increased Liver Enzymes

Half life of ALT

A

2.5 days in dogs, shorter in cats

120
Q

Increased Liver Enzymes

Most common cause of abnormal liver enzymes = ?

A

2º to non-hepatic disease

PU/PD, hyperthyroid signs, cushing’s signs, GI upset, cough/dyspnea

  • A moderate-to-marked increase din ALKP w/out concurrent hyperbilirubinemia is most compatible with drug induction (glucocorticoids) or adrenal function
121
Q

Increased Liver Enzymes

When should you further investigate elevated liver enzymes?

A
  • Showing clinical signs
  • ALT > 2x RI over several months
  • Non-hepatic causes have been r/o
122
Q

Increased Liver Enzymes

What are the 2 breed-associated hepatitis conditions?

A

1. Idiopathic (Chonic Hepatitis)
- labs, cocker spaniels, dobermans, westies

2. Copper-Associated Hepatitis
- labs, dalmations, dobermans, Westies, skye & bedlington terriers

123
Q

Increased Liver Enzymes

Obvious indicators of 1º liver disease

A
  • icterus
  • ascites
  • hepatic encephalopathy
  • liver mass
  • abnormal bile acids

next steps: imaging, FNA/cytology, biopsy, copper staining or quant.

124
Q

Increased Liver Enzymes

What does an abnormal bile acids test indicate? When is this test contraindicated?

A
  • indicates decreased bile flow in biliary tract -> accumulated in liver & causing damage (> 25umol/L)
  • contraindicated in icteric patients due to cholestasis, or in patients with evidence of cholestasis (hyperbilirubinemia)

bile acids cannot give info on liver function or PSS with cholestasis