Safety Management Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What two types of work does safety systems cover?

A

Routine and non-routine work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give an example of non-routine work.

A

Maintenance. It can be more dangerous than normal operation. Deviating from normal operation is dangerous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In which three classes do tasks come under the safe system of work umbrella?

A
  • Emergency procedures
  • Operating tasks
  • Maintenance tasks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Give some examples of operating tasks.

A

Start-up, shut down, normal running of the plant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Give some examples of maintenance tasks.

A

Monitoring of equipment, adjustments of equipment, planned maintenance and repairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Give an example of an accident which happened due to maintenance.

A

Piper Alpha, Bhopal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why is training a skilled job?

A

It requires a depth of knowledge about the process and the equipment and the ability to put this into terms which can be appreciated by the operators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why is operator training significant?

A
  • Operators need understanding as well as rules
  • Understanding allows the operators to deal better with the unexpected
  • Minimise human error
  • Understand depth for connection between processes and not just superficial knowledge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the problem with shadowing?

A
  • It is usually insufficient for operators to learn from an experienced operator except for the most trivial tasks. Emergencies are typically rare. Tasks that are performed only rarely will not be covered fully.
  • Simply allowing operators to pass on their own methods of work can perpetuate bad habits and gradually degrade knowledge. Humans can make shortcuts.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If peer training is employed then what must also be enforced?

A

Extensive “training of trainers” so that the whole workforce are taught how to pass on their skills effectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why is refresher training required?

A

It is vital for all operators however experienced to maintain correct procedures. Simulations should be run for emergencies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is included in the operating instructions of operator training?

A
  • Description of the process, equipment, instrumentation, testing of product and intermediates as well as instructions for the operation of the plant.
  • ‘Trouble shooting’ instructions
  • Instructions for start up and shut down
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the phrase ‘Total Quality’?

A

It should improve the maintenance of up to date manuals. It requires updating all documentation when changes are made to equipment or processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does COSHH require?

A

Operators have access to comprehensive operating instructions when these are part of the protection against hazardous substances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are operating procedures?

A

Clear instructions for all expected phases of operation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Give examples of operating procedures.

A

Initial start up, normal and temporary operations, normal and emergency shutdown, emergency operations, start up following turn around.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the requirements of standard operating procedures (SOPs)?

A
  • Readily available for employees
  • Review as needed to ensure they reflect current operating procedures.
  • Certify annually that they are correct and accurate
  • SOPs for all equipment on how to operate safely
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)?

A
  • process chemicals
  • technology and equipment
  • facilities
  • operation phase
  • operational limits
  • health and safety considerations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the purpose of SOPs?

A

We want the same outcome every day, train employees, product consistency, improving operational efficiency, improving product quality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why is start up and shut down hazardous?

A

They are high hazard activities as many things can deviate. Non-routing tasks are performed under time pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Is start up and shut down processes in the hands of the operator or a computer simulation?

A

In the hands of the operators to a much greater extent than normal. Training and supervision are thus vital during the start up and shut down procedures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the most common cause for abnormal conditions of the plant?

A

Maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Give examples of major incidents which have occurred during maintenance.

A

Piper Alpha, Flixborough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why are maintenance systems required?

A
  • Maintenance personnel are less familiar with the plant and its hazards,
  • Containment is lost when equipment is opened up.
  • Sources of ignition may be introduced into areas in which there is typically no ignition.
  • Confined areas may be opened up.
  • Information must be communicated from process to maintenance personnel.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the steps in planning maintenance, similar to other new processes?

A
  1. Identify hazards
  2. Assess risk
  3. Control/ eliminate hazards if necessary
26
Q

To whom are permits to work crucial for safety?

A
  • Those doing it
  • Nearby workers
  • The public
  • The plant itself
27
Q

What type of work is included in the permit to work system?

A
  • Entry into confined spaces
  • Hot work
  • Opening vessels/ pipes which are contained
28
Q

What are essential features of the implementation of permit to work system?

A
  1. Clear definition of people authorised to issue permits
  2. Training in the use and use of permits
  3. Monitoring of compliance with procedure
29
Q

Are there authorities involved in permit to work system?

A

No official authorities

30
Q

What two authorities are in place for the permit to work system in the plant?

A
  • Issuing authority

- Performing authority

31
Q

What is the aim of the issuing authority?

A

Inspect site. Only sign the permit when all hazards have been controlled satisfactorily.

32
Q

What is the aim of the performing authority?

A

Positively identify equipment to be working on. Jobs to be done explicitly specified.

33
Q

What are the duties of both authorities as a collective in permits to work?

A
  • clearly identify work to be done
  • clearly identify the location
  • identify hazards presented by work
  • identify precautions
  • sets out means by which job is done
34
Q

What types of work would require a permit?

A
  • Hot work
  • Excavation
  • Cold Work
  • Electrical work
  • Entry into confined spaces
35
Q

Who are permits issued by in a plant?

A

The plant staff

36
Q

What doe the permits specify?

A
  • the job
  • number of people required
  • time allowed
  • work method described
37
Q

Where are the permits displayed?

A

On site. In the control room. This way then the interactions with other permits can be considered and cross referenced.

38
Q

What is the requirement before work starts on the plant?

A

As far as possible hazards have been removed

39
Q

What are the steps involved in preparing the plant?

A
  1. Depressurisation and cooling
  2. Removal of hazardous liquids
  3. Removal of hazardous gas and vapours
  4. Removal of hazardous solids
  5. Further cleaning
  6. Isolation
  7. Provision of safe access and escape
  8. Testing to confirm absence of hazard
40
Q

How is depressurisation achieved?

A

Gases and vapours can be vented to a lower pressure area of the plant or sent to flare or scrubbing system.

41
Q

How is cooling achieved?

A

This can be natural or forced. Beware of creating a vacuum and avoid relieving the vacuum in air where flammable materials or pyrophoric material are present.

42
Q

How are liquids removed?

A

Pumping downstream. Flushing with neutralising agents, solvent, water or detergent solution may be needed. A safe means of disposing of wash liquids is required.

43
Q

After the liquid has been removed, how should a pipeline be treated to remove vapour and gas?

A

Isolate the pipeline. Flush with liquid may suffice, otherwise steaming or flushing with inert gas may be needed to remove all traces of vapour and gas.

44
Q

How should vessels be treated to remove vapour and gas?

A

Ventilated with air or steam ejectors, expelling the vapour to sage location.

45
Q

How should solids be removed from the process?

A

Passed forward through the process. Catalysts and absorbents should be transferred to containers after liquids and vapours are removed.

46
Q

Why is care required in removal of solids?

A

Prevent the formation of dangerous dust clouds.

47
Q

How should sludges be removed?

A

These should be removed manually

48
Q

What is the care that must be taken for pyrophoric materials?

A

They must be kept wet.

49
Q

What specialised cleaning is required for the system?

A
  • Chemical cleaning
  • High pressure jet washing
  • Blast cleaning
50
Q

In order of decreasing acceptability, how should pipes be isolated?

A
  • Physical disconnection and blocking
  • Spades and blanks
  • Double block and drain
  • Closed and locked valves

Remember that isolation measures must be tagged and numbered and recorded on the Permit to Work

51
Q

How is electrical equipment isolated?

A
  • Must be prevented from starting during work
  • Electrical disconnection
  • Withdrawal of fuses
  • Multiple locking of isolator
52
Q

What does the level of isolation required depend on?

A
  • Activity being undertaken

- Consequence of isolation failure

53
Q

What considerations are required in safe access?

A
  • Vehicles must be kept clear of pedestrians
  • Ramps on doorways
  • Mobile elevating work platforms
54
Q

What considerations are required in escape?

A
  • Plan escape routes and ensure they remain unobstructed and available
  • Signs to escape routes
  • Emergency lighting
  • Escape routes give access to a safe place where people can assemble
55
Q

How should the vessel be cleaned and isolated before entry?

A
  • isolation, disconnection or spading should be used. Closed valve is not sufficient.
  • Electrical equipment -disconnection of agitator is preferred,
  • Vessel should have been purged and cleaned before entry.
56
Q

Why is atmospheric testing required before entry into confined space?

A

To test for the presence of flammable or toxic materials and for oxygen must be made immediately prior to entry.

57
Q

Is breathing apparatus a substitute for reducing hazard presented by atmosphere?

A

No.

58
Q

In which scenarios should entry into vessels be avoided as far as possible?

A
  • Inert or lethal atmosphere
  • Oxygen concentrations below 18 %
  • Flammable vapour exceeds 25 %
59
Q

What are the requirements for the air during confined entry?

A

The air quality must be constantly monitored and adequate ventilation must be maintained. Oxygen must not be used to improve the quality of the atmosphere.

60
Q

What sort of breathing apparatus should be supplied during entry?

A

Emergency breathing apparatus to permit 2self rescue”

61
Q

What are the requirements of other personnel during entry to confined spaces?

A

The individual must be wearing a safety harness and a lifeline. Standby personnel must remain outside to raise the alarm if necessary and effect rescue. These standby personnel should be equipped with breathing apparatus and should be enough of them to pull the men out.

62
Q

What sort of activities require special care for entry into confined space?

A
  • Activities that could result in oxygen depletion or enrichment.
  • Suitable lighting
  • The use of electrical equipment in a conducting environment requires careful consideration. Low voltage equipment should be considered.