Safety in Phlebotomy I and II Flashcards

(127 cards)

1
Q

a patient get infected in 48 hours or more after admission or within 30 days after discharge

A

nosocomial infection

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2
Q

nosocomial infection is also known as

A

healthcare-associated infection/hospital acquired infection

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3
Q

it is restricted to one area of the body only

A

local infection

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4
Q

it affects the entire body

A

systemic infection

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5
Q

types of infection

A

nosocomial, local, and systemic

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6
Q

results when a microorganism (microbe) is able to invade body, multiply, and cause injury

A

infection

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7
Q

infection that can spread from person-to-person

A

communicable disease

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8
Q

six components of chain of infection

A

reservoir, susceptible host, means of transmission, portal of exit, portal of entrance, infectious agent

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9
Q

it is the causative agent that causes infection

A

infectious agent

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10
Q

it is the source of an infectious agent and where microbe survives

A

reservoir

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11
Q

used by an infectious agent to leave a reservoir

A

portal of exit/exit pathway

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12
Q

it is the method an infectious agent uses to travel from a reservoir to a susceptible host

A

means of transmission

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13
Q

five means of transmission

A

airborne, contact, droplets, vehicle, vector

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14
Q

contact transmission have two types:

A

indirect and direct contact

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15
Q

it is a type of contact transmission that is transferred via objects

A

indirect

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16
Q

it is a type of contact transmission that is transferred from source to susceptible host

A

direct contact

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17
Q

it is a mean of transmission that infects when you’re in contact with a mucous membrane and only travels by no more than 1 meter

A

droplet transmission

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18
Q

droplet transmission can be transferred via

A

sneezing, coughing, or talking

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19
Q

a mean of transmission through contaminated food/water/drugs

A

vehicle transmission

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20
Q

contaminated water causes

A

parasitic/cholera infection

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21
Q

contaminated food causes

A

food poisoning

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22
Q

blood and body fluid contact can cause

A

HIV/AIDs or Hepatitis

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23
Q

common cause of infection for phlebotomist while doing their job

A

accidental needlestick

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24
Q

transmission through insects

A

vector transmission

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25
two types of vector tranmission
biological, mechanical
26
it is a vector transmission through biting
biological vector transmission
27
a vector transmission by landing on food as an example
mechanical vector transmission
28
it is a mean of transmission that spreads droplets by coughing, sneezing, or talking and inhalation of droplets
airborne transmission
29
it is the entry into a susceptible host
entry pathway/portal of entry
30
portal of entry can be exposed by:
catheterization, venipuncture, fingerstick, and heel puncture
31
entry pathway of healthcare workers can be exposed via
splash and spill of infectious specimen or by needlestick (most common)
32
someone with decreased ability to resist infection
susceptible host
33
factors that affect susceptibility
age, disease, medication, and immune status
34
it is an infection that can come from the source's own flora
autogenous infections
35
it was developed in 1985 by Centers of Disease Control and Prevention as a response to the increase blood-borne diseases (AIDS and Hepatitis B)
Universal Precautions
36
Universal precautions was the basis of what
Standard precautions
37
States that any patient has the potential to be infected with pathogens
Universal Precautions
38
Universal precautions evolved into
Body Substance Isolation (BSI)
39
states that gloves are to be worn when in contact with any body substance
BSI
40
combination of BSI and Universal Precautions
Standard Precautions
41
It states that PPEs and barrier controls are to be maintained
standard precautions
42
goal of standard precautions
to reduce the risk of transmission of microorganism from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection
43
To reduce exposure risk, these are the list of available preventions
engineering controls, work practices, housekeeping, HBV vaccination, private rooms, ppe
44
these are physical and mechanical devices available to reduce/eliminate potential transfer of infectious diseases
engineering controls
45
this engineering control steam-sterilize contaminated materials
autoclaves
46
It is an engineering control that has HEPA filter that intakes and exhaust air and recirculate filtered air into laboratory and ensure sterility
Biological Safety Cabinet
47
an engineering control that has no filter and exhaust chemical fumes outside laboratory; suitable for chemicals and non-sterile work; never used for infectious agents
fume hoods
48
an engineering control device that serves as storage for flammable and corrosives; limited to small quantity as possible
chemical storage cabinets
49
an engineering control device that is used when eyes are exposed to chemicals
eyewash station
50
an engineering control device that is used when chemicals are spilled into skin/clothing and should be installed wherever corrosive chemicals are used
safety showers
51
practices that are incorporated to all healthcare associates
work practice controls
52
the most important way to prevent spreading of infection
Handwashing
53
used to clean skin surface in place of hand washing
alcohol-based hand cleaners
54
it is the responsibility of all healthcare associates. Involves cleaning up spills and decontaminating soiled areas immediately with disnfectant
housekeeping
55
it should not be picked up with hands
broken glass
56
reduces the possibility of transmission by separation
private rooms
57
anyone who can enter/leave can wash hands and change into ppe
anteroom
58
used to protect from infectious material and must be provided by employer free of charge
personal protective equipment
59
ppe equipments
gloves, mask, face shield, protective eyewear, lab gown, safety showers, appropriate footwear, eyewash stations
60
ppe equipment that should be worn first
gloves
61
used to prevent transmission of infectious agents through air
face masks
62
necessary when soiling of clothes is possible while taking care of patients and should be fluid resistant
laboratory gowns
63
removal of lab gowns should be
inside out
64
sequence of donning ppe
gown first, mask, goggles, hand-wash, gloves
65
sequence for doffing ppe
gloves, hand-wash, face-shield, gown, mask
66
it limits the amount of time a patient has to spread an infection
isolation techniques
67
In the 1970's, the CDC recommended the hospitals used one of seven isolation categories, this is a practice called?
category-specific isolation
68
this isolation technique would occur after many are exposed
category-specific isolation
69
this category-specific isolation subsection are for patients with a contagious disease like diptheria, chickenpox, and pneumonia
strict isolation
70
this category-specific isolation subsection are or patients with a disease that can be transmitted through direct contact like scabies (caused by mites or Sarcoptes Scabies)
contact isolation
71
a category-specific isolation subsection which are for patients with a disease that can be transmitted through air like mumps, pertussis, and rubella
respiratory isolation
72
this category-specific isolation subsection is also called ACID-FAST BACILLUS (AFB)
Tuberculosis Isolation
73
this categorical-specific isolation subsection is sometimes called wound and skin precaution and is for patients with open wounds
drainage/secretion precautions
74
a category-specific isolation subsection that are for patients with severe diarrhea due to contagious bacteria such as Salmonella, Shigella, Vibrio Cholerae and are transmitted by feces
enteric precautions
75
in this category-specific isolation subsection, patients are protected from healthcare workers
protective/reverse isolation
76
Established in 1983 to overcome the short-comings of category-specific isolation and based on the modes of transmission of common diseases
disease-specific isolation
77
new category that was added in disease-specific isolation
blood and body fluid precaution
78
this category-specific isolation subsection was eliminated in disease-specific isolation because of its inefficiency
protective/reverse isolation
79
in disease-specific isolation, this subsection of category-specific isolation was updated and recommended to use private rooms and air pressure with the use of HEPA filter respirators instead of face mask
tuberculosis isolation
80
isolations were revised again in 1996 and are intended for patients diagnosed with/or specific transmissible diseases
transmission-based precautions
81
three categories of transmission-based precautions
airborne, droplets, contact transmission
82
OSHA stands for
Occupational Safety and Health Administration Standards
83
it investigates the possibility of unsafe practices in the work environment and is the result of Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970
OSHA Standards
84
includes non-intact skin (dermatitis, hangnails, cuts, abrasions, chafing, acne)
exposure incident
85
employer to identify tasks and procedures in which occupational exposure may occur
exposure control plan
86
ratio of bleach solution approved by Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
1:10
87
Bleach solution should be prepared
daily
88
biohazards are considered as
medical waste
89
these are blood samples and other body fluids that are to be collected, transported, and processed using strict precautions
bioahazards
90
employers must establish and implement an
infectious waste program
91
whatto do with contaminated combustible waste?
incinerate
92
glasswares should be
autoclaved
93
4 factors causing fire
heat, oxygen, fuel, and uninhibited reaction
94
it is used to stop small fires and should be placed near exit in laboratories
fire extinguisher
95
fire involving ordinary combustible materials such as cloth, wood, rubber, paper, plastics
A - ordinary combustibles
96
type of extinguisher used for ordinary combustibles
A - Water, AB - Foam, ABC - Dry Chemical
97
fires involving flammable liquid and vapors such as grease, gasoline, oil, and oil-based paints
B - flammable liquids
98
flammable liquid fire extinguishers
AB - foam, ABC - dry chemicals, BC - dry chemicals
99
fires involving electrical equipments
C - electrical equipment
100
electrical equipment fire extinguisher
BC - carbon dioxide, ABC- dry chem, BC - dry chem
101
fires involving combustible, reactive, or flammable metals
D - Combustible Metals
102
fire extinguisher for combustible metals
D - Dry Powder
103
Fires involving high temperature cooking oils, grease or fat in kitchen
K - cooking oils
104
fire extinguisher for cooking oils
K - Potassium-based alkaline liquid
105
Operation PASS in fire extinguisher stands for?
Pull pin, Aim nozzle, Squeeze trigger, Sweep nozzle
106
RACE meas
Rescue, Alarm, Contain fire, Extinguish/Evacuate
107
most common electrical hazard in lab
centriifuge
108
principles of radiation hazards
distance, shielding, and time
109
amount of radiation exposure depends on
how far from source, what protection you were wearing, and how long are you exposed
110
made from rubber of trees
latex
111
can be found in gloves, tourniquet, blood pressure cuffs, IV tubing and bandages
Latex
112
Latex allergies can vary:
itchy irritations, redness and swelling, thickened skin, pimples, skin blisters
113
latex allergies symptoms begins in
24 hours to 72 hours and can continue for several days
114
a latex allergy that i more serious and can cause immunologic reaction and respiratory distress
type 1 latex allergy
115
these must be stored separately
flammable solids, organic acids, oxidizers, water-reactive substances, others
116
what does MSDS stands for?
Material Safety Data Sheets
117
An MSDS lists
``` product identity hazardous ingredients physical data fire and explosion hazard data reactivity data health hazard data precautions for safe handling and use control measures ```
118
two requirements of disposal of used materials
alter the product, waste must be noninfectious
119
three methods of disposal of used materials
incineration, chemical treatment, and autoclave
120
waste is burned to ash and ash is then taken to the municipal disposal area
incineration
121
grinding and chopping of waste into small pellets--pellets are then treated with disinfecting chemical
chemical treatment
122
it is injected with steam under high pressure under 15 minutes to cook the waste
autoclave
123
this should be placed in autoclave to ensure adequacy in the sterilization (change of color)
control tape
124
how much is charged when infrastructure does not follow and are found during OSHA investigation
$7000
125
the most prevalent hazards for phlebotomist is
accidental needlestick
126
a medication or a treatment designed and used to prevent a disease from occurring
prophylaxis treatment
127
This product is used with other HIV medications to help control HIV infection. It helps to decrease the amount of HIV in your body so your immune system can work better
tenofovir plus emtricitabine