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MLS 402 > Safety in Phlebotomy I and II > Flashcards

Safety in Phlebotomy I and II Flashcards

1
Q

a patient get infected in 48 hours or more after admission or within 30 days after discharge

A

nosocomial infection

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2
Q

nosocomial infection is also known as

A

healthcare-associated infection/hospital acquired infection

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3
Q

it is restricted to one area of the body only

A

local infection

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4
Q

it affects the entire body

A

systemic infection

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5
Q

types of infection

A

nosocomial, local, and systemic

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6
Q

results when a microorganism (microbe) is able to invade body, multiply, and cause injury

A

infection

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7
Q

infection that can spread from person-to-person

A

communicable disease

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8
Q

six components of chain of infection

A

reservoir, susceptible host, means of transmission, portal of exit, portal of entrance, infectious agent

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9
Q

it is the causative agent that causes infection

A

infectious agent

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10
Q

it is the source of an infectious agent and where microbe survives

A

reservoir

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11
Q

used by an infectious agent to leave a reservoir

A

portal of exit/exit pathway

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12
Q

it is the method an infectious agent uses to travel from a reservoir to a susceptible host

A

means of transmission

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13
Q

five means of transmission

A

airborne, contact, droplets, vehicle, vector

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14
Q

contact transmission have two types:

A

indirect and direct contact

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15
Q

it is a type of contact transmission that is transferred via objects

A

indirect

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16
Q

it is a type of contact transmission that is transferred from source to susceptible host

A

direct contact

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17
Q

it is a mean of transmission that infects when you’re in contact with a mucous membrane and only travels by no more than 1 meter

A

droplet transmission

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18
Q

droplet transmission can be transferred via

A

sneezing, coughing, or talking

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19
Q

a mean of transmission through contaminated food/water/drugs

A

vehicle transmission

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20
Q

contaminated water causes

A

parasitic/cholera infection

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21
Q

contaminated food causes

A

food poisoning

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22
Q

blood and body fluid contact can cause

A

HIV/AIDs or Hepatitis

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23
Q

common cause of infection for phlebotomist while doing their job

A

accidental needlestick

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24
Q

transmission through insects

A

vector transmission

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25
Q

two types of vector tranmission

A

biological, mechanical

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26
Q

it is a vector transmission through biting

A

biological vector transmission

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27
Q

a vector transmission by landing on food as an example

A

mechanical vector transmission

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28
Q

it is a mean of transmission that spreads droplets by coughing, sneezing, or talking and inhalation of droplets

A

airborne transmission

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29
Q

it is the entry into a susceptible host

A

entry pathway/portal of entry

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30
Q

portal of entry can be exposed by:

A

catheterization, venipuncture, fingerstick, and heel puncture

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31
Q

entry pathway of healthcare workers can be exposed via

A

splash and spill of infectious specimen or by needlestick (most common)

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32
Q

someone with decreased ability to resist infection

A

susceptible host

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33
Q

factors that affect susceptibility

A

age, disease, medication, and immune status

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34
Q

it is an infection that can come from the source’s own flora

A

autogenous infections

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35
Q

it was developed in 1985 by Centers of Disease Control and Prevention as a response to the increase blood-borne diseases (AIDS and Hepatitis B)

A

Universal Precautions

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36
Q

Universal precautions was the basis of what

A

Standard precautions

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37
Q

States that any patient has the potential to be infected with pathogens

A

Universal Precautions

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38
Q

Universal precautions evolved into

A

Body Substance Isolation (BSI)

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39
Q

states that gloves are to be worn when in contact with any body substance

A

BSI

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40
Q

combination of BSI and Universal Precautions

A

Standard Precautions

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41
Q

It states that PPEs and barrier controls are to be maintained

A

standard precautions

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42
Q

goal of standard precautions

A

to reduce the risk of transmission of microorganism from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection

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43
Q

To reduce exposure risk, these are the list of available preventions

A

engineering controls, work practices, housekeeping, HBV vaccination, private rooms, ppe

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44
Q

these are physical and mechanical devices available to reduce/eliminate potential transfer of infectious diseases

A

engineering controls

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45
Q

this engineering control steam-sterilize contaminated materials

A

autoclaves

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46
Q

It is an engineering control that has HEPA filter that intakes and exhaust air and recirculate filtered air into laboratory and ensure sterility

A

Biological Safety Cabinet

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47
Q

an engineering control that has no filter and exhaust chemical fumes outside laboratory; suitable for chemicals and non-sterile work; never used for infectious agents

A

fume hoods

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48
Q

an engineering control device that serves as storage for flammable and corrosives; limited to small quantity as possible

A

chemical storage cabinets

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49
Q

an engineering control device that is used when eyes are exposed to chemicals

A

eyewash station

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50
Q

an engineering control device that is used when chemicals are spilled into skin/clothing and should be installed wherever corrosive chemicals are used

A

safety showers

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51
Q

practices that are incorporated to all healthcare associates

A

work practice controls

52
Q

the most important way to prevent spreading of infection

A

Handwashing

53
Q

used to clean skin surface in place of hand washing

A

alcohol-based hand cleaners

54
Q

it is the responsibility of all healthcare associates. Involves cleaning up spills and decontaminating soiled areas immediately with disnfectant

A

housekeeping

55
Q

it should not be picked up with hands

A

broken glass

56
Q

reduces the possibility of transmission by separation

A

private rooms

57
Q

anyone who can enter/leave can wash hands and change into ppe

58
Q

used to protect from infectious material and must be provided by employer free of charge

A

personal protective equipment

59
Q

ppe equipments

A

gloves, mask, face shield, protective eyewear, lab gown, safety showers, appropriate footwear, eyewash stations

60
Q

ppe equipment that should be worn first

61
Q

used to prevent transmission of infectious agents through air

A

face masks

62
Q

necessary when soiling of clothes is possible while taking care of patients and should be fluid resistant

A

laboratory gowns

63
Q

removal of lab gowns should be

A

inside out

64
Q

sequence of donning ppe

A

gown first, mask, goggles, hand-wash, gloves

65
Q

sequence for doffing ppe

A

gloves, hand-wash, face-shield, gown, mask

66
Q

it limits the amount of time a patient has to spread an infection

A

isolation techniques

67
Q

In the 1970’s, the CDC recommended the hospitals used one of seven isolation categories, this is a practice called?

A

category-specific isolation

68
Q

this isolation technique would occur after many are exposed

A

category-specific isolation

69
Q

this category-specific isolation subsection are for patients with a contagious disease like diptheria, chickenpox, and pneumonia

A

strict isolation

70
Q

this category-specific isolation subsection are or patients with a disease that can be transmitted through direct contact like scabies (caused by mites or Sarcoptes Scabies)

A

contact isolation

71
Q

a category-specific isolation subsection which are for patients with a disease that can be transmitted through air like mumps, pertussis, and rubella

A

respiratory isolation

72
Q

this category-specific isolation subsection is also called ACID-FAST BACILLUS (AFB)

A

Tuberculosis Isolation

73
Q

this categorical-specific isolation subsection is sometimes called wound and skin precaution and is for patients with open wounds

A

drainage/secretion precautions

74
Q

a category-specific isolation subsection that are for patients with severe diarrhea due to contagious bacteria such as Salmonella, Shigella, Vibrio Cholerae and are transmitted by feces

A

enteric precautions

75
Q

in this category-specific isolation subsection, patients are protected from healthcare workers

A

protective/reverse isolation

76
Q

Established in 1983 to overcome the short-comings of category-specific isolation and based on the modes of transmission of common diseases

A

disease-specific isolation

77
Q

new category that was added in disease-specific isolation

A

blood and body fluid precaution

78
Q

this category-specific isolation subsection was eliminated in disease-specific isolation because of its inefficiency

A

protective/reverse isolation

79
Q

in disease-specific isolation, this subsection of category-specific isolation was updated and recommended to use private rooms and air pressure with the use of HEPA filter respirators instead of face mask

A

tuberculosis isolation

80
Q

isolations were revised again in 1996 and are intended for patients diagnosed with/or specific transmissible diseases

A

transmission-based precautions

81
Q

three categories of transmission-based precautions

A

airborne, droplets, contact transmission

82
Q

OSHA stands for

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration Standards

83
Q

it investigates the possibility of unsafe practices in the work environment and is the result of Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970

A

OSHA Standards

84
Q

includes non-intact skin (dermatitis, hangnails, cuts, abrasions, chafing, acne)

A

exposure incident

85
Q

employer to identify tasks and procedures in which occupational exposure may occur

A

exposure control plan

86
Q

ratio of bleach solution approved by Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

87
Q

Bleach solution should be prepared

88
Q

biohazards are considered as

A

medical waste

89
Q

these are blood samples and other body fluids that are to be collected, transported, and processed using strict precautions

A

bioahazards

90
Q

employers must establish and implement an

A

infectious waste program

91
Q

whatto do with contaminated combustible waste?

A

incinerate

92
Q

glasswares should be

A

autoclaved

93
Q

4 factors causing fire

A

heat, oxygen, fuel, and uninhibited reaction

94
Q

it is used to stop small fires and should be placed near exit in laboratories

A

fire extinguisher

95
Q

fire involving ordinary combustible materials such as cloth, wood, rubber, paper, plastics

A

A - ordinary combustibles

96
Q

type of extinguisher used for ordinary combustibles

A

A - Water, AB - Foam, ABC - Dry Chemical

97
Q

fires involving flammable liquid and vapors such as grease, gasoline, oil, and oil-based paints

A

B - flammable liquids

98
Q

flammable liquid fire extinguishers

A

AB - foam, ABC - dry chemicals, BC - dry chemicals

99
Q

fires involving electrical equipments

A

C - electrical equipment

100
Q

electrical equipment fire extinguisher

A

BC - carbon dioxide, ABC- dry chem, BC - dry chem

101
Q

fires involving combustible, reactive, or flammable metals

A

D - Combustible Metals

102
Q

fire extinguisher for combustible metals

A

D - Dry Powder

103
Q

Fires involving high temperature cooking oils, grease or fat in kitchen

A

K - cooking oils

104
Q

fire extinguisher for cooking oils

A

K - Potassium-based alkaline liquid

105
Q

Operation PASS in fire extinguisher stands for?

A

Pull pin, Aim nozzle, Squeeze trigger, Sweep nozzle

106
Q

RACE meas

A

Rescue, Alarm, Contain fire, Extinguish/Evacuate

107
Q

most common electrical hazard in lab

A

centriifuge

108
Q

principles of radiation hazards

A

distance, shielding, and time

109
Q

amount of radiation exposure depends on

A

how far from source, what protection you were wearing, and how long are you exposed

110
Q

made from rubber of trees

111
Q

can be found in gloves, tourniquet, blood pressure cuffs, IV tubing and bandages

112
Q

Latex allergies can vary:

A

itchy irritations, redness and swelling, thickened skin, pimples, skin blisters

113
Q

latex allergies symptoms begins in

A

24 hours to 72 hours and can continue for several days

114
Q

a latex allergy that i more serious and can cause immunologic reaction and respiratory distress

A

type 1 latex allergy

115
Q

these must be stored separately

A

flammable solids, organic acids, oxidizers, water-reactive substances, others

116
Q

what does MSDS stands for?

A

Material Safety Data Sheets

117
Q

An MSDS lists

A 
product identity
hazardous ingredients
physical data
fire and explosion hazard data
reactivity data
health hazard data
precautions for safe handling and use
control measures
118
Q

two requirements of disposal of used materials

A

alter the product, waste must be noninfectious

119
Q

three methods of disposal of used materials

A

incineration, chemical treatment, and autoclave

120
Q

waste is burned to ash and ash is then taken to the municipal disposal area

A

incineration

121
Q

grinding and chopping of waste into small pellets–pellets are then treated with disinfecting chemical

A

chemical treatment

122
Q

it is injected with steam under high pressure under 15 minutes to cook the waste

123
Q

this should be placed in autoclave to ensure adequacy in the sterilization (change of color)

A

control tape

124
Q

how much is charged when infrastructure does not follow and are found during OSHA investigation

125
Q

the most prevalent hazards for phlebotomist is

A

accidental needlestick

126
Q

a medication or a treatment designed and used to prevent a disease from occurring

A

prophylaxis treatment

127
Q

This product is used with other HIV medications to help control HIV infection. It helps to decrease the amount of HIV in your body so your immune system can work better

A

tenofovir plus emtricitabine

MLS 402 (3 decks)

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