Safety 10% Flashcards

1
Q

PPE is ?

A

Personal Protection Equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following items is considered sharp?

Microscopic slides and coverslips
Needles
Scalpels
All are correct

A

All are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is currently the most common chronic blood-borne infection in the United States?

Hepatitis A virus
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis B virus

A

Hepatitis C virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Non-infectious waste would include:

Saliva in dental procedures
Food waste
Cerebrospinal fluid
Amniotic fluid

A

Food waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Electrical safety equipment should be visually inspected:

Daily
Weekly
Monthly
Prior to use

A

Prior to use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which is the “Can’t Let Go” range of current flow?
25-60 ma
9-25 ma
3-9 ma
1-3 ma

A

9-25 ma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which hazard(s) can be present around a bank of batteries?

Shock
All are correct
Explosion
Acid burn

A

All are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following parties is required to furnish Safety Data Sheets (SDSs)?

Importer
Chemical manufacturer
Distributor
All are correct

A

All are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If a chemical is being transferred from a large labeled container to a secondary container like a plastic jug or spray bottle, there is no need of labeling the secondary container.

False
True

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of these is covered in a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?

Firefighting measures
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
Transport information
All are correct

A

All are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If you are exposed to Hepatitis B from a needle stick, your risk of becoming infected is approximately:

A

0.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If a fire alarm is sounded, the fire/smoke zone doors:

A

Close automatically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

All of the following is TRUE regarding regulated and contaminated materials EXCEPT _____.

-At least one door must separate work areas from corridors or contagious areas
-Regulated waste must be incinerated or effectively decontaminated
-Contaminated materials must be placed in durable, labeled, and color-coded containers
-Containers of contaminated materials must be closed prior to being removed from the work area

A

At least one door must separate work areas from corridors or contagious areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Wall gas connections are color coded. Yellow is the color for air, green is the color for oxygen and __________ is the color for medical vacuum.

A

White

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When the facility, building or structure used to house chambers and all auxiliary service equipment for medical applications and procedures are at pressures below atmospheric pressure, the system is?

A

Hypobaric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vegetable oils, olive oil and butter are all common fuels for class ______ fires.

A

K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires an exposure control plan for any site for which conditions?

A

Use of human blood or body fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True or False: A laboratory working with human cell lines must display the biohazard symbol on areas where the work is performed or materials are stored.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In a clinical lab, which of the following pieces of equipment is designed to limit the exposure of personnel to toxic fumes and hazardous vapors?

A

Fume Hood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The basic fire theory says that a fire needs four main elements in order to start: heat, fuel, oxygen, and ______________ .

A chain reaction
Hydrogen sulfide
Benzene
Carbon dioxide

A

A chain reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

.__________ is the lowest temperature at which the vapor from combustible liquid can be made to ignite.

Ignition point
Critical temperature
Event horizon
Flash point

A

Flash point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the maximum strength of magnet approved for medical imaging of patient?
5.0 T
7.0 T
1.5 T
3.0 T

A

7.0 T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The major risk of injury or harm due to a magnet quench is:

There is no danger with a quench. It is how we shut down the machine for repair.

The magnet becomes so warm that it may cause burns to patients in the bore.

A blinding flash of light.

The boiling off of cryogens that creates an asphyxiating cloud.

A

The boiling off of cryogens that creates an asphyxiating cloud.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a quench?

The process of adding cryogen to an MRI to produce magnetism.

An intentional or unintentional release of cryogen from the magnet coils.

Damage to the MRI which causes exponentially increasing magnetic fields that can be very dangerous.

Scanning a patient with an MRI scanner.

A

An intentional or unintentional release of cryogen from the magnet coils.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The appropriate unit for the measurement of absorbed dose in SI units is:
The rad
The gray
Watts per square meter
Coulombs per kilogram of dry air

A

The gray (Gy)
-absorbed dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which one of the following is a stochastic effect? Know “random” effects.

Epilation
Erythema
Genetic defects
Reduced blood cell count

A

Genetic defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

An apron with a 0.5 mm lead equivalent thickness typically attenuates the scattered X-rays for tube potentials around 100 kVp by how much:

50%
95%
75%
25%

A

95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The annual effective dose limit for occupationally exposed workers is:
20 mSv
1 mSv
5 mSv
50 mSv

A

20 mSv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The law which states that radiation intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the radiation source and the point of interest is called:

Ohm’s law
Law of conservation of energy
Inverse square law
Proportionality law

A

Inverse square law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A GFCI normally has a trip point of

A. 2 mA

B. 3 mA

C. 4 mA

D. 6 mA

A

D. 6 mA

NFPA 99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

After the loss of electrical power from the outside source how long before the emergency
generators should start?

A

10 seconds or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

According to ANSI standards what is the high frequency cut off for electrical leakage tests
A 60 Hz
B 100 Hz
C 1,000 Hz
D 10,000 Hz

A

C 1,000 Hz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the maximum resistance allowed between the chassis of a device and ground pin of
its power cord?
A 0.5 Ω
B 0.05Ώ
C 0.01Ώ
D 0.10Ώ

A

A 0.5 Ω

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the current level consider the “can’t let go” point?
A 15mA
B 150mA
C 1.5mA
D 15μA

A

A 15mA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the U.S. power cord colors for hot, neutral and ground?

A

Black is Hot
White is Neutral
Green is ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the “pin index” system?

A

Prevents mistakes in using “E” gas cylinders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Can a leakage test be performed on a device if it is plugged into an isolated power system?

A

No because there is no ground reference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What indicates the start of the sterile area in an operating room suite?

A

In most hospitals a red line on the floor or wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A reverse precaution sign on a patient‟s room indicated that the patient is

a infectious and may infect you
b has a compromised immune system and may be infected by you
c is on chemotherapy and cannot be disturbed
d is of no concern to a Biomed

A

a infectious and may infect you

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Oxygen and nitrous oxide compressed gas cylinders should not

a be stored with protective caps in place
b be stored in an area cooler than normal room temperature
c be transported on a cart when secured with a metal chain
d be stored in an area where readily combustible materials are present

A

d be stored in an area where readily combustible materials are present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the typical cause of death in accidents involving electrocution? (2 answers)

a damage to the nervous system
b respiratory paralysis
c surface tissue destruction
d ventricular fibrillation

A

b respiratory paralysis
AND
d ventricular fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

If the internal resistance of the human body is taken to be 500 ohms, how much current could be made to flow through the body from an ordinary 120 volt AC power supply?

a. 4.1 ampere
b. 4.1 milliampere
c. 0.24 ampere
d. 24 milliampre

A

c. 0.24 ampere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Standard color coding of 115 volt AC electrical service wiring calls for the hot,
neutral and ground wires to be colored, respectively as:
a. black, white and green
b. white, green and black
c. black, green and white
d. red, white, and green

A

a. black, white and green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A ground fault interrupter:
a. measures the voltage being consumed
b. isolates the ground against corrosion
c. compares currents in the hot and neutral lines and disconnects power if the
currents are not the same
d. establishes an auxiliary ground if the main ground is interrupted

A

compares currents in the hot and neutral lines and disconnects power if the
currents are not the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The two basic electrical safety tests that should be performed on line powered equipment before
installation or after repairs are

a input isolation and defibrillation protection
b ground wire integrity and ground wire leakage current
c exposed metal leakage and leakage current between leads
d proper polarity and contact tension

A

b ground wire integrity and ground wire leakage current

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What basic electrical characteristic usually causes most leakage currents present in modern
medical equipment?

a capacitive reactance coupling
b inductive reactance coupling
c restive reactance coupling
d defective insulators

A

a capacitive reactance coupling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the safe “direct to the heart” current level?

a 10 uA
b 100 uA
c 500 uA
d 1000 uA

A

a 10 uA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The percentage of an external current flowing in the body from arm to arm that will pass through
the myocardium is about

a 0.1%
b 1.0%
c 10%
d 50%

A

a 0.1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When dealing with the general subject of electrical safety what basic dangers must be considered?

a shock and electrocutions
b explosions
c fires
d all of the above

A

d all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The hospital‟s essential electrical system shall be arranged that in the event of failure of normal
power, from the outside, the alternate source will be connected to the load within

a 1 second
b 10 seconds
c 1 minute
d 3 minutes

A

b 10 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

According to the Life Safety Code in the event of a power failure the emergency power system
shall provide power for

a emergency illumination and services essential to life
b general illumination in all patient areas
c all biomedical equipment in the hospital
d all the above

A

a emergency illumination and services essential to life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

According to the Life Safety Code outlets for emergency power are designated by

a color
b labeled with the letter E
c have two green dots on them
d are twist lock connectors

A

a color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A hospital GFCI

a verifies the bonding ground resistance
b protects the receptacle against corrosion
c compares currents between the hot and neutral lines and disconnects the power if the
currents are different
d establishes an auxiliary ground if the main ground is interrupted

A

c compares currents between the hot and neutral lines and disconnects the power if the

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the primary electrical safety problem present in modern hospitals?

a electrocution and microshock
b tolerating the use of faulty or damage equipment
c insufficient electrical power in patient areas
d isolated power systems in patient care areas

A

b tolerating the use of faulty or damage equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the body‟s first line of defense against electric shock?

a the nervous system
b the reflex system
c the mechanoreceptors
d the skin

A

d the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

In general x-rays are hazardous because they are

a ionizing radiation
b electromagnetic radiation
c longitudinal radiation
d all of the above

A

a ionizing radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Each foot of a power cord typically has leakage currents in the order of

a 1 uA per foot
b 0.5 uA per foot
c 10.0 uA per foot
d 1 mA per foot

A

a 1 uA per foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The major hazard to the body from scattered or reflected laser radiation is
a genetic mutations
b skin damage
c cataract formation
d retinal damage

A

d retinal damage

54
Q

What are the three components of an ordinary fire

a smoke, fuel, heat
b fuel, heat, oxygen
c gas, liquid, vapor
d flames, sparks, explosion

A

b fuel, heat, oxygen

55
Q

What is the approximate current level known to cause ventricular fibrillation in adult humans
with epicardial contact
a 10 uA
b 50 uA
c 200 uA
d 5,000 uA

A

b 50 uA

56
Q

The “threshold of feeling” current level, at 60 Hz hand to hand is about

a 0.1 mA
b 1.0 mA
c 10.0 mA
d 100 mA

A

b 1.0 mA

57
Q

The red light outside an x-ray room is on when

a the tube filaments are on
b the rotor is spinning
c when the kV selected is above 100
d when the mA selected is above 800

A

b the rotor is spinning

58
Q

Where should GFCI‟s be used in hospitals

a in intensive care units
b in operating rooms
c in wet locations
d in all patient areas

A

c in wet locations

59
Q

What is the purpose of the JCAHO?
a to assure that a hospital is cleaned at least every three years
b to establish standards for the operation of a hospital
c to give a reason for QA programs
d to gather data on bad medical practices

A

b to establish standards for the operation of a hospital

60
Q

What is ventricular fibrillation?

a a serious cardiac arrhythmia
b the complete stopping of cardiac activity caused by externally applied electricity
c uncoordinated and random contractions of the heart without any cardiac output
d the rhythms of the ventricles and atria are different

A

c uncoordinated and random contractions of the heart without any cardiac output.

61
Q

Which of the following statements are true

a current kills, so high currents are always dangerous
b high voltage kills, so low voltages are not hazardous
c grounding the body is required for electrocution to occur
d current kills, and lethal currents can be caused by both high and low voltages

A

d current kills, and lethal currents can be caused by both high and low voltages

62
Q

According to the Life Safety Code the minimum required retention force for the grounding contact
of power receptacles in patient care areas is

a 4 ounces
b 8 ounces
c 16 ounces
d 500 grams

A

a 4 ounces

63
Q

An AC receptacle that is powered from an isolated power system

a does not have a ground connection
b has AC power not reference to ground
c is not required in a hospital
d all of the above

A

d all of the above

64
Q

A “UL” label on the power cord of the instrument indicates

a that the instrument is tested and approved by UL
b that the instrument was built to UL standards
c that the power cord has been listed by UL
d that the manufacturer is a member of UL

A

c that the power cord has been listed by UL

65
Q

What does NFPA strand for?

a National Fire and Police Association
b National Fire Prevention Agency
c National Fire Preparation Agency
d National Fire Protection Association

A

d National Fire Protection Association

66
Q

Macroshock may be defined as (multiple answers)

a when the current is applied through the skin
b large fault currents from defective equipment
c leakage current from normal equipment
d any of the above

A

a when the current is applied through the skin
b large fault currents from defective equipment

67
Q

According to the Life Safety Code LIM‟S shall have

a red, yellow and green indicator lights
b the ability to alarm at not more than 0.7 mA
c an audible indication whenever an alarm is present
d an audible alarm plus red and green indicator lights

A

d an audible alarm plus red and green indicator lights

68
Q

The GMP (Good Manufacturing Practice) requirements for medical equipment are compiled by

a JCAHO
b ECRI
c International Standards Organization
d USFDA

A

c International Standards
Organization(Internationally)

and

d USFDA (In USA)

69
Q

Film badges in imaging areas are used to monitor a technician‟s exposure to

a alpha radiation
b beta and gamma radiation
c laser radiation
d microwave radiation

A

b beta and gamma radiation

70
Q

What is the basic difference between codes and standards?

a codes are enforced by law, standards are not
b standards are enforced by law, codes are not
c only codes will reflect the current state of the art
d codes are written by voluntary organizations

A

a codes are enforced by law, standards are not

71
Q

The basic rules and provisions for the safe use of electricity in a hospital are promulgated by

a AAMI
b the FDA
c OSHA
d the NFPA

A

d the NFPA

72
Q

The primary cause of hospitals fires is

a flammable anesthetics
b the use of oxygen
c careless smoking and defective electrical equipment
d toasters and microwave popcorn

A

d toasters and microwave popcorn

73
Q

Using JCAHO standards rental and loaner equipment must

a be tested at incoming only
b be tested at incoming and at regular intervals there after
c be tested if found
d no testing required

A

b be tested at incoming and at regular intervals there after

74
Q

What should a BMET do if a device has injured a patient

a do the normal testing and repair
b notify risk management
c call the FDA
d notify risk management and secure the device

A

d notify risk management and secure the device

75
Q

If a circuit breaker is encountered that must be turned on but there is a tag on it, what must be done
a. Remove the tag and reset the circuit breaker to see if it will work
b. Prior to performing any work contact whose name is on the tag
c. Reset the circuit breaker and then contact the person named on the tag
d. Read the tag and then reset the circuit breaker

A

b. Prior to performing any work contact whose name is on the tag

76
Q

Material Safety data Sheets (MSDS) contains instructions on which of the following
a. Use of material
b. Equipment safety
c. Specific hazards associated with material
d. OSHA approval of material

A

C. Specific hazards associated with material

77
Q

What is an acceptable pressure of oxygen available at the wall outlet in a patient room
a. 5psi
b. 50psi
c. 150psi
d. 1,500psi

A

b. 50psi

78
Q
  1. You are doing a PM on a defibrillator on a code cart and notice a kink in the insulation of the power cord. A code happens and the cart is taken by a nurse to respond to the code, what is the most appropriate immediate action.
    a. Take no Action
    b. Remove the equipment from service
    c. Perform a leakage and ground test
    d. Schedule to replace it
A

d. Schedule to replace it

79
Q

A class C fire involves
a. Combustible metals
b. Electrical equipment
c. Flammable liquids
d. Wood, paper, rags, and rubbish

A

b. Electrical equipment

80
Q

Fires involving flammable liquids should only be fought with which of the following fire extinguishers?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D

A

b. Class B

Remember - Barrel, flammable liquid comes in a barrel.

81
Q

What is the cumulative maximum permissible dose (MPD) and annual MPD levels for a 26 year old equipment technician who has never before been occupationally exposed to ionizing radiation?
a. 30 rem cumulative 5/rem annual
b. 40 rem cumulative/5 rem annually
c. 60 rem cumulative/10 rem annually
d. 80 rem cumulative/10 rem annually

A

40 rem cumulative/5 rem annually

-5Rem in any 1 year
-Long term rem accumulation:
N-18x5 where N=age

Thus
26(age)-18=8, 8x5=40rem

82
Q

What is the maximum allowable radiation leakage from a diagnostic source assembly when measured at 100cm from the source assembly?
a. 10mR/min
b. 10mr/hr
c. 100mR/ min
d. 100mR/hr

A

100mR/hr

83
Q

What is the generally accepted maximum allowable chassis leakage current of portable patient care equipment?
a. 50 microamps
b. 300 microamps
c. 500 microamps
d. 1,000 microamps

A

b. 300 microamps

84
Q

What are the basic principles of radiation protection?
A. Time, Distance and dosage
B. Time, shielding and distance
C. Time, dosage and shielding
D. Detection, shielding and distance

A

B. Time, shielding and distance

85
Q

What is the process that makes X rays dangerous?
A. Chelation
B. Dehydration
C. Scintillation
D. Ionization

A

D. Ionization

86
Q

3 components needed to start and sustain a fire?

A

Oxygen, Heat, and Fuel

87
Q

What fire types does Class A contain?

A

Ordinary combustables such as wood, paper, cloth, trash.
remember: trAsh. A=Ash(burns to ash)

88
Q

What fire types does Class B contain?

A

Flammable liquids such as gasoline, paint, propane, and butane.
(NOT cooking oils and grease=K class)
Remember: B=Barrel…gas/liquids come in barrels.

89
Q

What fire types does Class C contain?

A

Energized Electrical Equipment such as motors and appliances. If power is removed, fire becomes another class.
Remember: C=Current (Electrical Current)

90
Q

What fire types does Class K contain?

A

Cooking Oils and Greases.

91
Q

A CO2 fire extinguisher is best for what type of fire?
A Type A, B
B Type B, C
C Type C
D Type D

A

Types B and C
B-Flammable liquids such as gasoline, paint, propane, and butane.
C-Energized Electrical Equipment such as motors and appliances.

92
Q

Blue colored cylinder contains:
A Cyclopropane
B Carbon Dioxide
C Nitrogen
D Nitrous Oxide

A

D. Nitrous Oxide=Blue

 A Cyclopropane-Orange
 B Carbon Dioxide-Grey
 C Nitrogen-Black
93
Q

Ground fault protection for personnel on a 120 volt single-phase circuit is based on which of the following:

-Ungrounded current between conductors
-Excessive voltage in the grounding conductor
-Overload in the current carrying conductor
-Unbalanced current between the grounded and ungrounded
conductor

A

-Unbalanced current between the grounded and ungrounded
conductor

94
Q

The highest field strength permitted for adults in routine clinical practice by the United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is:

7.0 Tesla
8.0 Tesla
11.7 Tesla
3.0 Tesla

A

8.0 Tesla

95
Q

A computer that is burning and shooting out sparks should be sprayed with a _________ .

Class D extinguisher
Bucket of water
Class C extinguisher
Class K extinguisher

A

Class C extinguisher
C-Think Current

96
Q

Which NFPA Code requires that your fire alarm system or sprinkler monitoring system needs to be tested and inspected?

NFPA 70E (Electrical Safety in Workplace)
NFPA 72 (Fire Alarm and Signaling)
NFPA 18 (Wetting Agents)
NFPA 78 (Electrical Inspections)

A

NFPA 72 (Fire Alarm and Signaling)

97
Q

Which of the following statements is not true:

-The most likely route for evacuation of patients is down stairwells
-The risk of fire is higher when construction activity is present
-Sprinklers are activated automatically by heat
-Elevators may sometimes be used in fire situations, if not located in a zone threatened by fire

A

FALSE->Elevators may sometimes be used in fire situations, if not located in a zone threatened by fire

98
Q

Burning paper would cause a Class ___ fire.
Class A
Class C
Class B
Class K

A

Class A
-Think Ashes are left from burning paper, wood, etc.

99
Q

If you are exposed to Hepatitis C from a needle stick, your risk of becoming infected is approximately:

3%
0.3%
30%
13%

A

3%

100
Q

Some of the differences between a fume hood and a biological safety cabinet (BSC) are that a BSC protects both the user and the material inside the cabinet and that the exhaust is HEPA filtered.

True
False

A

True

101
Q

Which of the following items is considered sharp?

Scalpels
Microscopic slides and coverslips
All are correct
Needles

A

All are correct

102
Q

A laboratory working with human cell lines must display the biohazard symbol on areas where the work is performed or materials are stored.
True
False

A

True

103
Q

UV light can be utilized as the sole form of decontamination in a biological safety cabinet.

False
True

A

False

104
Q

Which of the following is currently the most common chronic blood-borne infection in the United States?

Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis B virus
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Hepatitis A virus

A

Hepatitis C virus

105
Q

All of the following are considered infectious agents EXCEPT _____.

Ebola virus
Variola virus
Ricin toxin
Bacillus anthracis

A

Ricin toxin

106
Q

What is the major advantage of steam sterilization over dry heat sterilization?

It kills a greater spectrum of organisms.
It can be used for the sterilization of anhydrous materials.
It is not as destructive to materials.
It sterilizes in less time.

A

It sterilizes in less time.

107
Q

Employers must provide a vaccination for _____ (if not declined by a worker) to employees who have occupational exposure to human blood or OPIM.
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B and C
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis B

A

Hepatitis B
Hep B is only vaccine REQUIRED.

108
Q

When any blood or other potentially infectious material are present in the work area, where must a hazard warning sign incorporating the universal biohazard symbol be posted?

On all laboratory windows
On all access doors
On all OPIM containers
On all laboratory cabinets

A

On all access doors

109
Q

Employees working in laboratories are permitted to:

-Store food or drink in refrigerators, freezers, shelves, cabinets or on
countertops or benchtops where blood is present.
-Decline the Hepatitis B vaccine
-Perform mouth pipetting/suctioning of blood or other potentially
infectious material;
-Eat, drink, smoke, apply cosmetics or lip balm, or handle contact
lenses in work areas

A

Decline the Hepatitis B vaccine

110
Q

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires an exposure control plan for any site under which of the following conditions?

-Use of human blood or body fluids
-Use of biohazardous materials
-Has research animals
-Has had a spill of biohazardous materials

A

Use of human blood or body fluids

111
Q

If you are exposed to Hepatitis B from a needle stick, your risk of becoming infected is approximately:

0.3%
3%
13%
30%

A

30%

112
Q

One gray is defined as:

0.01 J/kg.
1 J/kg.
100 J/kg.
1 mJ/kg.

A

1 J/kg.

113
Q

For diagnostic X-ray tubes manufactured after July 2006, operated above 70 kVp, the minimum total filtration in the beam is:

3.0 mm Al.
2.0 mm Al.
2.5 mm Al.
1.5 mm Al.

A

2.5 mm Al.

114
Q

Which of the following dose reduction techniques will improve image quality?

Increasing the beam filtration.
Gonad shielding.
Increasing the kV.
Collimating to minimum field size.

A

Collimating to minimum field size.

115
Q

The radiation risk to a patient can be reduced by using a grid. Is this statement:

True
False

A

False

116
Q

Radiation dose limits set by bodies such as the ICRP are set at such levels that, if all personnel were exposed at these levels for a 50 year working life:

-The risk of death or injury would be very much greater than the risk of death or injury from other occupations.
-We could expect detrimental effects in about 5% of the exposed personnel.
-The risk of death or injury is comparable to that from any other risk of life.
-About 5% of the personnel exposed would die due to radiation.

A

-The risk of death or injury is comparable to that from any other risk of life

117
Q

The appropriate unit for the measurement of absorbed dose in SI units is:

The gray.
The rad.
Watts per square meter.
Coulombs per kilogram of dry air.

A

The gray.

118
Q

The sievert is a unit of:

Absorbed dose.
Exposure.
Intensity.
Effective dose.

A

Effective dose.

119
Q

The radiation risk to a patient can be reduced by increased beam filtration. Is this statement:

True
False

A

True

120
Q

An occupationally exposed person undergoing fluoroscopy of their abdomen has inadvertently left their personnel dosimeter on in such a way that it is at the point of entry of the primary beam. It would take how many minutes of screening time for the dosimeter to record his annual maximum permissible whole body dose?

~20.
more than 60.
~10.
less than 5.

A

less than 5.

121
Q

A fluoroscopic system has automatic brightness control in which the kV is adjusted manually and the mA varies as a function of patient thickness. For a given patient thickness, as the kV is decreased:
The mA decreases and patient entrance skin dose increases.
The mA increases and patient entrance skin dose decreases.
The mA increases and patient entrance skin dose is constant.
The mA increases and patient entrance skin dose increases.

A

The mA increases and patient entrance skin dose increases.

122
Q

Gloves used for electrical protection must be electrically tested every:

6 months
3 months
12 months
Never

A

6 months (Osha and NFPA 70)

123
Q

Which organization is NOT a source of regulations or standards?
NFPA
OSHA
NIOSH
IEEE

A

NIOSH -(research arm of Fed Gov)

124
Q

Work performed on an electrical system within reaching distance of energized components is ________ work.
Unavoidable
Essential
Safe
Energized

A

Energized

125
Q

The secondary of a current transformer must never be ____________ while energized.

Examined
Grounded
Shortened
Opened

A

Opened (NFPA 70)

126
Q

The grounded circuit conductor (neutral) should be bonded to the equipment ground on the _______ side of the service.

Load
Right
Line
Left

A

Line

127
Q

When installing or removing breakers from a cubicle, the breaker must be in the __________ condition.

Closed
Pristine
Charged
Open

A

Open

128
Q

Which hazard/s can be present around a bank of batteries?

Explosion
Acid burn
Shock
All are correct

A

All are correct

129
Q

The available fire extinguisher can only be used for a duration of:
30 - 60 seconds
15 - 30 seconds
3 - 4 minutes
5 - 10 minutes

A

15 - 30 seconds (average extinguisher last less than 30 seconds)

130
Q

The energy required to ignite combustible material is know as:
Heat
Oxidizer
Fuel
Fire

A

Heat

131
Q

The primary cause of workplace fires is:
Electricity
Arson
Smoking
Natural gas leaks

A

Electricity

132
Q

Fire detection systems are the ______________ line of defense in any fire protection program.

Second
Last
Third
First

A

First

133
Q

A liquid solvent fire would be a Class ___ fire.
K
D
B
A

A

B

134
Q

What is the required retention force for receptacles throughout the environment of care?

A

4 oz

135
Q

When using a fire extinguisher, the first step in PASS is:

A

Pull the Pin

136
Q

Subatomic particles or electromagnetic wave packets that have sufficient energy to detach electrons from atoms or molecules are known as:

A

Ionizing

137
Q
A
138
Q
A