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SAC for unit 1 specifically Flashcards

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1
Q

What are antigens

A

molecules or parts of a molecule that stimulate immune response through the adaptive immune response.

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2
Q

antibodies definition

A

proteins produced by plasma cells in response to antigens and which react specifically with the antigen that induced their formation

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3
Q

immunoglobulins definition

A

They are another term for antibodies

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4
Q

inflammation definition

A

an innate reaction by the immune response to foreign particles or injury resulting in redness and swelling

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5
Q

what is a vector

A

an agent or vehicle used to transfer pathogens or genes between cells and organisms

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6
Q

Cytotoxic T cell definition

A

T cells that are activated by cytokines to bind to antigen–MHC-I complexes on infected host cells and kill infected body cells

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7
Q

what are the 2 ways antigens can be classified as

A

self or non-self

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8
Q

self antigens are:

A

those that are not foreign and are thus usually tolerated by the immune system

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9
Q

non-self antigens definition

A

Non-self antigens can be identified as invaders and can be attacked by the immune system.

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10
Q

what is the main way for an immune cell to tell self and non-self antigens apart

A

the cell surface receptors that tell them if they are self or non-self (MHC)

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11
Q

what is the major histocompatibility complex

A

receptor proteins on the surface of cells that identify the cells as ‘self’

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12
Q

where are MHC-l markers found

A

all nucleated cells

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13
Q

what do MHC-l markers do

A

provide a site for binding of antigens to occur, that allows cells to be recognised as ‘self’ so they will not be attacked

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14
Q

Where are MHC-II markers found

A
  • mainly on specific white blood cells, including antigen-presenting cells (macrophages and dendritic cells)
  • and helper T cells.
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15
Q

what do MHC-ll markers do

A

the antigen presenting cells present antigens on their surface on these MHC-II markers, which bind to helper T cells to help activate the adaptive immune response.

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16
Q

what is a pathogen

A

A pathogen or infectious agent is a biological agent that causes disease or illness to its host

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17
Q

what are the 2 types of pathogens

A
  • cellular
  • and non-cellular
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18
Q

what are the 4 main cellular pathogens

A
  • bacteria
  • parasites
  • fungi
  • protozoa
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19
Q

what are protozoans (cell info)

A

single-celled eukaryotic cells

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20
Q

what are bacteria (cell info)

A

They are singular chromosome and double stranded DNA, prokaryotic cells

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21
Q

cellular pathogens definition

A

any disease-causing agent made up of cells that can reproduce independently without relying on the host machinery

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22
Q

what type of cell are cellular pathogens

A

can be both eukaryotes or prokaryotes

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23
Q

what is a major reason why bacteria is a pathogen (what do they produce)

A

toxins

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24
Q

what does it mean when said fungi are opportunistic pathogens

A

when it has the chance, bacteria can become a pathogen externally or internally

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25
Q

what do bacteria toxins do

A

damage particular tissues of their host organism and cause disease

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26
Q

main difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells

A

eukaryotic cells have a distinct nucleus containing the cell’s genetic material, while prokaryotic cells don’t have a nucleus and have free-floating genetic material instead

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27
Q

what are the 2 main non-cellular pathogens

A
  • viruses
  • prions
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28
Q

virus definition

A

non-cellular pathogens that use the host cell in order to replicate their genetic material

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29
Q

prions definition

A

infectious particles made of protein that lack nucleic acids (folded proteins)

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30
Q

how can viruses travel to other organisms

A

Virions are the means by which a virus can transfer from one host cell to another

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31
Q

what do all viruses have (structure)

A
  • genetic material, either DNA or RNA, organised as a single molecule or as several molecules
  • a protein shell, known as a capsid, that surrounds the genetic material.
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32
Q

what is lysis

A

destruction of cells by rupturing the membrane of the cell

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33
Q

how do viruses spread (release particles from cell)

A

The mode of release of viral particles from an infected cell may be by budding or by cell lysis.

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34
Q

what do prions do

A

triggers normal proteins in the brain to fold into an abnormal structure

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35
Q

what is an incubation period

A

the time period between infection and the first appearance of the symptoms of a disease

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36
Q

what pathogen has a long incubation period

A

prions

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37
Q

what is an allergen

A

an antigen that elicits an allergic response

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38
Q

what systems do allergic response involve

A

cells from both the innate and adaptive system

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39
Q

innate immunity definition

A

the type of immunity that is present from birth, is fast acting but not long lasting, and produces non-specific (generic) responses against classes of pathogens

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40
Q

adaptive immunity definition

A

an immune response that is specific to a particular antigen and develops through contact with an antigen

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41
Q

immunological memory definition

A

ability of the adaptive immune response to remember antigens after primary exposure

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42
Q

what are the 2 types of actions that the immune system uses to protect against infection

A
  • cell-mediated immunity
  • humoral immunity
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43
Q

cell-mediated immunity definition

A

immune response that is mediated by immune cells

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44
Q

humoral immunity definition

A

immune response mediated by soluble molecules in the blood, lymph and interstitial fluid that disable pathogens

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45
Q

what kinds of cells are all cells in the immune system

A

white blood cells

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46
Q

lymphocytes definition

A

class of white blood cells found in all tissues including blood, lymph nodes and spleen, and which play a role in specific immunity

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47
Q

B cells (B lymphocytes) definition

A

white blood cells that recognise antigens or pathogens and produce a large number of antibodies specific to an antigen

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48
Q

T cells (T lymphocytes) definition

A

white blood cells that mature in the thymus and participate in the adaptive immune response

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49
Q

what happens in the lymph nodes

A

B cells and T cells are activated and adaptive immune responses occur

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50
Q

what is apart of the 1st line of defense

A

a physical, chemical and microbiological barriers to prevent pathogens from gaining entry to the body

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51
Q

what is apart of the 2nd line of defense

A

the actions of immune cells and soluble proteins mounting a rapid but non-specific attack against pathogens that gain entry to the body.

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52
Q

what is apart of the 3rd line of defense

A

the recognition of specific antigens by lymphocytes

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53
Q

what type of immunity do the 1st and 2nd line of defense use

A

innate immunity

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54
Q

what type of immunity does the 3rd line of defense use

A

adaptive immunity

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55
Q

physical barriers definition

A

innate barriers that act to prevent the entry of pathogens into the body

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56
Q

what is 1 example of a physical barrier in plants

A

stomata (close to prevent pathogen entry)

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57
Q

what is 1 example of a physical barrier in animals

A

intact skin

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58
Q

What are the 3 barriers that prevent the entry of pathogens into an organism (1st line)

A
  • physical barriers
  • chemical barriers
  • microbiological (microbiota) barriers
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59
Q

chemical barriers definition

A

a innate barriers that use enzymes to kill pathogens and prevent invasion into a host

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60
Q

what is 1 example of a chemical barrier in animals

A

sweat (with lysozyme)

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61
Q

what is 1 example of a chemical barrier in plants

A

caffeine (Toxic to fungi and insects)

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62
Q

microbiological barriers definition

A

innate barriers involving normal flora in the body

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63
Q

how to chemical barriers (sweat and tears) kill pathogens

A

by an enzyme called lysozyme that kills the pathogens

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64
Q

when does the second and third line of defense start to work

A

when pathogens have entered the body (cut in skin)

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65
Q

phagocytosis definition

A

bulk movement of solid material into cells where the cell engulfs a particle to form a phagosome

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66
Q

what are the 3 key aspects of innate immunity

A
  • soluble proteins
  • inflammation
  • immune cells
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67
Q

what are the 6 main white blood cells (immune cells)

A
  • natural killer cells (NK cells),
  • mast cells,
  • eosinophils
  • macrophages
  • neutrophils
  • dendritic cells
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68
Q

what are two other names for immune cells

A

white blood cells
leukocytes

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69
Q

which of the 6 immune cells are phagocytes

A
  • neutrophils
  • dendritic cells
  • macrophages
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70
Q

where are neutrophils, eosinophils and NK cells found

A

in the bloodstream

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71
Q

what are the 2 granulocytes

A

eosinophils, neutrophils

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72
Q

what are granulocytes

A

a type of white blood cell that has small granules inside their cytoplasm

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73
Q

which immune cells are antigen presenting

A
  • dendritic cells
  • macrophages
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74
Q

simple overview of steps in phagocytosis

A
  • pathogen recognised by pattern recognition receptor
  • pathogen engulfed by phagosome
  • Lysosomes fuse with the phagosome
  • pathogen is destroyed by toxic chemicals and lysosome
  • material is discharged by exocytosis
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75
Q

In these antigen presenting cells what is on their surface (specifically MHC-ll markers) once phagocytosis happens

A

some antigens or sub-units from the digested pathogen on the MHC-ll markers (activating adaptive immune system)

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76
Q

macrophage info (brief)

A

they identify eliminate and engulf pathogens by phagocytosis and clear dead cells and debris. Also antigen presenting (can activate adaptive immune response)

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77
Q

Neutrophils info (brief)

A

Neutrophils are abundant immune cells that are usually the first to the site of an infection, engulfing and destroying pathogens.

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78
Q

dendritic cells info (brief)

A

Dendritic cells are professional antigen-presenting cells, engulfing pathogens and presenting their antigens to T cells to activate the adaptive immune response.

79
Q

eosinophils info (brief)

A

assist in defending against larger parasitic agents that are too large to be engulfed by phagocytosis. They contain granules with toxic chemicals and histamine

80
Q

NK cells info (brief)

A

lymphocytes that kill virus-infected cells through apoptosis

81
Q

degranulation info for NK cells

A

There granules contain granzymes and perforin. The perforin makes holes in the cells plasma membrane allowing the granzymes to enter. This enzymes induces apoptosis

82
Q

degranulation definition

A

the process by which immune cells release various chemicals (such as histamine and antimicrobials) stored within secretory vesicles known as granules

83
Q

mast cells info (brief)

A

they are vital in the inflammatory response. As well as releasing histamines that increase vascular permeability, they also release cytokines that attract other immune cells to help destroy the pathogen. (out of granules) (also contain heparin)

84
Q

histamine definition

A

a substance involved in inflammation and allergic reactions that causes blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable to immune cells

85
Q

what is the cell-mediated immunity for the second line of defense

A

the immune cells attacking the pathogen

86
Q

what is the humoral immunity for the second line of defense

A

complement proteins and cytokines

87
Q

what are complement proteins

A

proteins that assist other innate immune cells and can destroy bacterial cells by lysis

88
Q

what are cytokines

A

signalling molecules of the immune system

89
Q

what is an important cytokine in the innate immune system and definition

A

interferons,
proteins secreted by some cells, in response to a virus infection, that helps uninfected cells resist infection by that virus

90
Q

where are complement proteins found

A

dissolved in blood plasma

91
Q

what are the 3 things that complement proteins do

A
  • opsonising pathogens
  • recruiting immune cells involved in an inflammatory response (chemotaxis)
  • destroying bacterial pathogens by lysis
92
Q

opsonisation definition

A

the coating of the surface of pathogen cells by complement proteins, making the pathogens more susceptible to phagocytosis

93
Q

Why does opsonisation make pathogens more susceptible to phagocytosis

A

phagocytes have receptors for complement proteins on their plasma membranes, and these bind to the opsonised microbes. Allowing for direct binding to the pathogen

94
Q

what is chemotaxis

A

movement of a cell or organism in response to a chemical substance

95
Q

how does chemotaxis work for complement proteins

A

Small complement peptides that diffuse from the pathogen surface act as chemical signals, attracting immune cells involved in the inflammatory response

96
Q

how do infereons work

A

Once a body cell is infected with viruses, the cell secretes interferons. That cell is doomed, but the interferons that it secretes into its surroundings act as warning signals to nearby cells so that they can prepare in advance for a possible virus infection

97
Q

what is the membrane attack complex (MAC)

A

one of the defence mechanisms resulting from activation of complement proteins that destroys pathogen cells by osmotic shock

98
Q

how does lysis work with complement proteins

A

complement proteins interact with pathogens allowing for the MAC to form on there plasma membrane. Lysis then occurs

99
Q

how does lysis work

A

The MAC inserts into the plasma membrane of the pathogen and produces a pore that allows fluid to enter, causing the pathogen cell to swell and burst — explosive death by osmotic shock

100
Q

how are complement proteins activated (cascade attached)

A

The activation of a complement protein occurs when the protein is cut (cleaved) into two fragments — a larger activated protein and a smaller peptide fragment. This sequence of reactions starts a cascade that can neither be stopped nor reversed.

Or C3 makes direct contact with molecules on the surface of a pathogen

101
Q

are complement proteins inactive enzymes?

A

yes

102
Q

process involved in complement activation (2 steps)

A
  1. The activation of an initial complement protein (known as C3) starts a sequence of reactions that take place on the surface of a pathogen. The first protein in the series enzymatically alters the next protein in the series.
  2. The product of the first reaction then activates the next enzyme in the series, which, in turn, activates the next protein, and so on.
103
Q

what are the 5 main symptoms of inflammation

A
  • redness
  • pain
  • heat
  • swelling
  • pus
104
Q

what are the 4 functions of the lymphatic system

A
  • production and maturation of immune cells
  • the removal of excess fluids from body tissues
  • absorption and transportation of fatty acids to the digestive system
  • allowing for the process of antigen recognition by T and B lymphocytes
105
Q

what 4 things does the lymphatic system have in it (structure)

A
  • lymph
  • lymphatic vessels
  • primary lymphoid organs
  • secondary lymphoid organs
106
Q

what are the primary lymphoid organs

A

bone marrow and thymus

107
Q

what are the secondary lymphoid organs

A

lymph nodes and spleen

108
Q

what happens in the bone marrow

A
  • source of pluripotent stem cells (where immune cells originate)
  • and site of maturation of B cells
109
Q

what is lymph

A

is the fluid in the lymphatic system that gets squeezed out of blood vessels

110
Q

what happens in the thymus

A

site where T cells mature after being released from the bone marrow

111
Q

3

what happens in the spleen

A
  • filters the blood passing through it, clearing the blood of bacteria and viruses as well as worn-out red blood cells
  • contains T cells and B cells that detect and respond to infectious agents in the blood
  • contains other immune cells
112
Q

what are lymph nodes

A

Lymph nodes are the sites in which antigen recognition occurs

113
Q

what is antigen recognition

A

This is where antigen-presenting cells display their antigens to their specific T and B lymphocytes, leading to expansion of the appropriate lymphocytes for adaptive immunity

114
Q

what do the helper T cells cytokines do to other cells

A

These can initiate either the humoral adaptive immune system (through stimulating the clonal selection and clonal expansion of B cells) or the cell-mediated immune system (through stimulating the clonal selection and expansion of cytotoxic T cells).

115
Q

6 steps involved with antigen presenting and initiation of immune response (adaptive immune response)

A
  1. pathogen is engulfed by APCs
  2. pathogen is degraded into fragments (my fusion with lysosome)
  3. some of the fragments are presented on MHC-II markers
  4. They present these fragments to helper T cells by moving to the lymph nodes (antigen presentation)
  5. Helper T cell binds to the antigen (via receptors) and activates the helper cell
  6. Helper T cells release cytokines (interleukins) that activate B or T cells
116
Q

where does antigen presentation happen

A

lymph nodes

117
Q

what are the 3 functions of helper T cells

A
  • activate cytotoxic T cells
  • activate B cells into becoming antibody-producing plasma cells
  • activate macrophages to remove - antibody-coated pathogens by phagocytosis
118
Q

what is the two main features of the adaptive immune response

A
  • specificity
  • Immunological memory
119
Q

what is specificity (adaptive response)

A

the ability to recognise and respond to specific antigens

120
Q

3 key components of adaptive immune response

A
  • T cells and B cells
  • antibodies, also known as immunoglobulins
  • lymph nodes, organs where B cells and T cells meet foreign antigens and are activated
121
Q

what are the 2 types of B cells

A
  • B plasma cells
  • B memory cells
122
Q

what is the humoral immune response for the adaptive response

A

Involves the actions of antibodies that identify and bind to extracellular pathogens, to toxins and to other extracellular foreign antigens. Antibodies are products of special B plasma cells.

123
Q

where do B cells develop

A

bone marrow

124
Q

what is the cell-mediated immune response for the adaptive response

A

involves various actions of T cells. Cytotoxic T cells eliminate body cells that are infected by pathogens or have abnormal or missing self markers. They eliminate intracellular pathogens.

125
Q

where do T cells develop

A

thymus

126
Q

what are the 5 steps of activation of humoral response

A
  1. After the helper T cell activates the interleukins they naive B cells are activated
  2. The B cells undergo clonal expansion to produce clones of B cells
  3. These clones differentiate into plamsa B cells or memory B cells
  4. plasma B cells secrete antibodies to the antigen, memory B cells remain in the lymphoid tissue
  5. then PIANO occurs via antibodies
127
Q

what are naive B and T cells

A

B and T cells that haven’t been activated

128
Q

what is precipitation (antibodies)

A

they bind to soluble antigens, making them insoluble, causing them to precipitate out of the solution, creating a solid (more visible)

129
Q

what is in clonal selection

A

when the correct naive B or T cell binds to the antigen

130
Q

what is in clonal expansion

A

when the naive B or T cell differentiates

131
Q

what are the chains of an antibody

A

light and heavy chains (light short, heavy long)

132
Q

what are the 2 regions of an antibody

A
  • variable region (ends that bind to antigens)
  • constant region (most of the antibody)
133
Q

what is acronym to remember what antibodies can do to pathogens and what does it stand for

A

PIANO
precipitation
inflammation
agglutination
neutralisation
opsonisation

134
Q

what is agglutination (antibodies)

A

they bind to the surface antigens on pathogens to form antigen–antibody complexes, causing them to clump together (more visible)

135
Q

inflammation (antibodies)

A

they release histamine, triggering inflammation

136
Q

what is neutralisation (antibodies)

A

they bind to surface antigens on pathogens and form a coating that neutralises pathogens by blocking their receptors so that the pathogens cannot attach to healthy body cells and infect them

137
Q

what is opsonisation (antibodies)

A

they bind to the surface antigens on pathogens to form antigen–antibody complexes and tag the pathogen for destruction. This activates phagocytes and complement proteins

138
Q

cell-mediated adaptive response definition

A

a specific response in which cytotoxic T cells destroy virus-infected cells using perforin and granzyme B

139
Q

how do cytotoxic T cells recognise and bind to infected cells

A

the MHC-I marker

140
Q

what happens in the 4 steps of activating the cell-mediated adaptive response

A
  1. After the helper T cells release interleukins it will activate naive T cells
  2. They then undergo clonal expansion to produce these T cell clones
  3. These clones differetiate into cytotoxic T cells and memory T cells
  4. The cytotoxic T cells release perforin and granzyme B, destroying the infected cell via it intiating apoptosis
141
Q

how do cytotoxic T cells do apoptosis

A
  1. release perforin, making a hole in the cell
  2. secrete granules (granzyme B) enter the cell and initiate apoptosis
142
Q

what are the two ways we can gain immunity depending on the source of the antibody

A
  • actively (active immunity)
  • passively (passive immunity)
143
Q

what happens in active immunity

A

antibodies are produced by a person’s own adaptive immune system

144
Q

why and how does natural immunity occur

A

occurs naturally, without deliberate intervention

145
Q

what are the two means of gaining immunity

A
  • naturally
  • artificially
146
Q

how does artificial immunity occur

A

is induced through a deliberate intervention

147
Q

what is natural active immunity

A

a type of immunity in which the body produces antibodies in response to a normal infection by a pathogen

148
Q

what does artificial active immunity involve

A

the deliberate and artificial introduction of a disabled pathogen or its toxin to the body (vaccination)

149
Q

what happens in passive immunity

A

antibodies are acquired by a person from an external source

150
Q

what is natural passive immunity

A

a form of immunity in which an individual receives antibodies from a natural source, such as through breastfeeding

151
Q

what is artificial passive immunity

A

the injection of antibodies, providing immediate response, (antivenom)

152
Q

disease definition

A

a condition in a living animal or plant body that impairs the normal functioning of an organ, part, structure or system

153
Q

what are the 2 types of diseases

A
  • non-infectious
  • infectious
154
Q

what are emerging diseases

A

a disease caused by a newly identified or previously unknown agent

155
Q

what is re-emerging disease

A

reappearance of a known disease after a significant decline in incidence

156
Q

what are pandemics

A

a situation when, over a relatively short time, many people worldwide contract a specific disease as it spreads from a region of origin

157
Q

what are epidemics

A

the widespread occurrence of an infectious disease in a community or in a restricted geographic area at a particular time

158
Q

impacts of european settlement on aboriginals

A
  • brought disease foreign to them, causing lots of spread (death)
  • such as smallpox
159
Q

what can we identify to quickly stop the spread of the disease

A

the host or the pathgoen

160
Q

what are the 2 modes of transmission

A
  • direct transmission
  • indirect transmission
161
Q

what is direct transmission

A

mechanism of transmission of pathogenic agents that involves direct person-to-person contact, such as by kissing or sexual contact

162
Q

what is indirect transmission

A

mechanism of transmission of pathogenic agents that does not involve direct person-to-person contact, such as by airborne droplets or by ingestion of contaminated food

163
Q

what are asymptomatic carriers

A

a person with an infectious disease showing no symptoms but able to infect others

164
Q

what is the R0 value?

A

the basic reproduction number that identifies the expected number of individuals a person with a certain disease will infect

165
Q

what are the 6 methods of disease control

A
  • prevention
  • vaccination
  • medication
  • surveillance
  • modification of environment
  • infection control standards
166
Q

example of modification of environment

A

spraying chemicals to eliminate breeding of the pathogens

167
Q

example of infection control standards

A

washing hands

168
Q

what are antibiotics

A

a class of antimicrobial drug used in the treatment and prevention of bacterial infections that act either by killing pathogenic bacteria or by inhibiting their growth

169
Q

what are vaccination programs

A

mandated programs that set a schedule in which vaccinations against specific diseases should be administered

170
Q

what is herd immunity

A

indirect protection, at the population level, against an infectious disease; the protection is created by the presence in the population of a high proportion of individuals who are vaccinated against the particular disease

171
Q

what are the 3 ethical approaches

A
  • consequences-based
  • duties or rules-based
  • virtues-based
172
Q

what is the consequence based approach

A

this approach places important on the consideration of the consequences of an action, with the aim to get the most positive outcomes and least negative ones

173
Q

what is the rules/duties-based approach

A

places importance on the idea that people have duty to act in a particular way (follow the rules)

174
Q

what is the virtues-based approach

A

consideration is given to the virtue or moral character of the person carrying out the action (did they try to do the right thing)

175
Q

what are the 5 ethical concepts

A
  • integrity
  • non-maleficence
  • justice
  • beneficence
  • respect
176
Q

what is integrity

A

commitment for searching for knowledge and understanding that they have to share all their results

177
Q

what is justice

A

moral obligation to ensure that there is fair consideration of all competing claims; no unfair burden on specific group

178
Q

what is beneficence

A

maximising benefits and minimising risks

179
Q

what is non-maleficence

A

involves avoiding the causations of harm

180
Q

what is respect

A

consideration that all living things have intrinsic value (need to consider everything, animals, plants, etc.)

181
Q

what are 2 ways to identify pathogens

A
  • ELISA
  • microscope
182
Q

elisa definition

A

a technique known as enzyme linked immunosorbent assay, which can detect specific antigens or antibodies

183
Q

what are monoclonal antibodies

A

specifically designed antibodies used in the treatment of some diseases such as cancer and autoimmune disease

184
Q

how are mAbs made

A
  • a mouse is injected with antigens, allowing for their B cells to produce and antibody which is withdrawn (from spleen)
  • then they are fused with collected tumor cells in suspension
  • they make hybrid cells (hybridomas)
  • these cells are isolated to grow separately
  • they then grow many of these mAbs
185
Q

what can mAbs be used for

A
  • treat cancer
  • treat autoimmune disease
186
Q

what are the types (forms) mAbs can be in

A
  • naked
  • conjugated
187
Q

what is a naked mAbs

A

mAbs that dont have any molecules attached

188
Q

what is a conjugated mAbs

A

mAbs that have other molecules attached

189
Q

what are the 4 modes that mAbs can be used to treat cancer

A
  • stop growth of blood vessels
  • signal immune attack
  • block growth factors
  • deliver anticancer or radioisotopes to the cancer cells
190
Q

what 3 things can naked mAbs do to treat cancer

A
  • block signalling to prevent growth by inhibiting blood vessels (bind to growth factor)
  • they block signals for cell division (cant replicate cancer cells)
  • they can bind to tumor cells to signal attack from immune system
191
Q

what does conjugated mAbs do to treat cancer

A

they bring the anticancer and radioisotopes to the cancer cells (kill the cells)

192
Q

what is autoimmune disease

A

a disease where antibodies attack self cells

193
Q

how can mAbs be used to help treat autoimmune disease

A

alter the course of an autoimmune disease by directing the antibodies against major histocompatibility antigens to prevent them triggering an autoimmune response

Biology 3&4 (7 decks)

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