S7: Greenlight Exam Missed Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

Which choice BEST describes The Bond Buyer’s Revenue Bond Index?

  1. Average yield on a list of bonds with 30-year maturities
  2. Average yield on a list of 11 bonds
  3. Average yield on a list of 20 bonds
  4. Average yield on a list of new revenue issues
A

The Bond Buyer publishes different indexes. They include:

  • The 20-Bond Index – The average yield to maturity on a particular day of 20 specific GO bonds with 20-year maturities
  • The 11-Bond Index – The average yield to maturity on a particular day of 11 of the 20 specific GO bonds from the 20-Bond Index
  • The Revenue Bond Index (Revdex) – The average yield to maturity on a particular day of 25 specific revenue bonds with 30-year maturities
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2
Q
On September 14, a customer purchases an ABC December 60 call and sells an ABC November 60 call. The customer:
I. Has engaged in a debit spread
II. Has engaged in a credit spread
III. Wants the spread to widen
IV. Wants the spread to narrow
1. I and III only
2. I and IV only
3. II and III only
4. II and IV only
A

To determine whether the customer wants the spread to widen or narrow, it is necessary to determine whether the spread is a debit or credit spread. The premium for an option is determined by two factors: the in-the-money amount of the option (intrinsic value) and the time value. Since both options have the same strike price, the intrinsic values (in-the-money amount) are equal. Therefore, any difference in premium is the result of a difference in time value. Since the December contract has longer to go until expiration than the November contract, it has more time value. Therefore, the premium for the December contract will be larger than for the November contract. Since the customer purchased the December contract (higher premium), it is a debit spread and will profit if the spread widens.

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3
Q

A customer sells short 400 shares and the company declares a 10% stock dividend. When the customer covers the short position, the customer will be required to deliver:

  1. 40 shares
  2. 360 shares
  3. 400 shares
  4. 440 shares
A

When a customer sells short, the brokerage firm borrows stock to deliver it to the buyer. All cash and stock dividends declared are the responsibility of the customer who sold the stock short. In this example, the company declares a 10% stock dividend. Therefore, a customer who sold short 400 shares will be required to deliver 440 shares (400 shares x 10% = 40 additional shares) when he covers the short sale.

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4
Q
A convertible bond has a conversion price of $40 and is currently selling in the market at $950. The conversion ratio is:
A. 25
B. 23.75
C. 40
D. 38
A

To find the conversion ratio of a convertible bond, the bond’s par value ($1,000) is divided by the conversion price ($40). In this question, the conversion ratio is $25 ($1,000 ÷ $40). To calculate the conversion ratio, the market price of the bond is irrelevant.

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5
Q

A customer owns 1,000 shares of LRR preferred stock and the company is in the process of conducting a rights offering for its common stock. Under the terms of the rights offering, two rights are required to buy one new share and the subscription price is $25 (the stock’s current market price is $26.50). This customer would be entitled to which of the following?
A. 1,000 shares if the customer pays $25 per share
B. 500 shares if the customer pays $25 per share
C. 500 shares if the customer pays $26.50 per share
D. No additional shares

A

As far as rights offerings are concerned, preferred stockholders do not have the right to subscribe to the offering. Instead, rights offerings are made available to common stockholders.

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6
Q
Treasury bills are issued to mature in all the following time frames, EXCEPT:
A. One month
B. Three months
C. Six months
D. Nine months
A

Treasury bills mature in one month, three months, six months, or twelve months. They do not have nine-month maturities at issuance.

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7
Q

Which of the following choices BEST describes the Bond Buyer’s Municipal Bond Index?
A. An indication of the average yield on 25 general obligation bonds with 30-year maturities
B. An indication of the average yield on 20 selected municipal revenue bonds with 20-year maturities
C. An estimate of the prices of 40 long-term municipal bonds
D. An indication of the average yield on 11 selected municipal revenue bonds with 20-year maturities

A

The Bond Buyer Municipal Bond Index provides an estimate of the prices of 40 recently issued, long-term general obligation and revenue bonds. Three other Bond Buyer indices provide an indication of the average yield on selected municipal bonds. The 25 Revenue Bond Index shows average yield on 25 revenue bonds with 30-year maturities, the 20 Bond Index shows average yield on 20 general obligation bonds with 20-year maturities, and the 11 Bond Index shows average yield on 11 general obligation bonds with 20-year maturities. These three choices each incorrectly described these other three Bond Buyer indices, which leaves the remaining choice as the correct answer.

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8
Q
Which of the following securities trade without accrued interest?
A. Municipal bonds
B. Treasury bills
C. Debentures
D. Convertible bonds
A

Treasury bills do not trade with accrued interest. They are issued at a discount and mature at par.

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9
Q
A pension fund manager wants to protect the fund's diversified stock portfolio against a market downturn. To best meet this objective, he should write:
A. Yield-based calls
B. Covered puts
C. Uncovered calls
D. Index options
A

Index options will move with the market as a whole and, therefore, provide a better hedge than the other choices.

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10
Q

A branch office has recently hired a group of RRs from another member firm. Some of the clients have mutual funds and annuities that are proprietary products of the carrying firm. If the client chooses to liquidate these assets, who has the responsibility to notify the clients of any surrender fees?
A. The receiving broker-dealer
B. The carrying broker-dealer
C. The mutual fund company
D. The principal located at the branch office

A

Firm-specific or proprietary products, such as mutual funds or annuities, are considered nontransferable assets. When a customer changes broker-dealers, the account is transferred to a new broker-dealer (the receiving firm), and the client may choose to liquidate these assets. Since the asset is a proprietary product, the carrying firm (the former broker-dealer) is required to notify the client of any fees (surrender charges) that may result if the client liquidates the assets.

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11
Q
A client currently has $75,000 in cash that he doesn't envision needing for the next 18 months. He's interested in seeing if he can receive a greater return on this cash than the money market fund in which it's currently invested. Which of the following choices is the MOST suitable?
A. A municipal income fund
B. A GNMA fund
C. A short-term bond fund
D. An equity income fund
A

This question represents one in which there’s not really enough information to answer it properly, at least in real life. So, the best way to answer this type of question is to start by taking apart the question to understand the customer’s intent. Let’s start with the facts.
The customer has $75,000 in cash (i.e., a money-market fund or something similar).
He wants an investment that provides a better yield.
His time horizon is 18 months, which is relatively short.
In this case, let’s immediately eliminate the equity income fund as a choice. Stocks are never a good choice for an investor who has less than a four- to five-year time horizon. The municipal income fund can also be eliminated since there’s no mention of a tax concern or an occupation that implies a large income each year. That leaves the GNMA fund and the short-term bond fund. Both investments involve bond portfolios which subject investors to some principal risk. However, a GNMA fund is typically a better choice for an investor whose time horizon is two or more years. Since this investor’s time horizon is 18 months, the most suitable investment is the short-term bond fund.

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12
Q

Foreign currency options use:
A. European style exercise with delivery in the foreign currency
B. European style exercise with U.S. dollar settlement
C. American style exercise with delivery in the foreign currency
D. American style exercise with U.S. dollar settlement

A

Foreign currency options use European style exercise, which means that a buyer is only able to exercise her option on the day of expiration. Currency options also settle in U.S. dollars, rather than in the foreign currency. Investors who exercise currency options will receive U.S. dollars in an amount that is equal to the intrinsic value of their options on the day of exercise.

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13
Q

A municipal dealer gives another dealer a firm quote of par for a block of municipal bonds. The dealer that gave the quote:
A. Must do the trade at par
B. Must give the other dealer ten minutes to accept the quote
C. Has given a nominal quote to the other dealer
D. Has given a subject quote

A

The dealer that gave the firm quote must do the trade at par.

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14
Q

A client creates an opening sale in a LEAP and closes out the position 15 months later by buying back the option. The tax consequence is a:
A. Short-term gain or loss
B. Long-term gain or loss
C. Passive gain or loss
D. Gain or loss that may not offset other trading positions or ordinary income

A

A LEAP is a long-term option that can have an expiration of up to 39 months. The client held the position for more than one year, but any gain or loss on a short position is treated as short-term. The IRS does not recognize a holding period on a short sale of a stock or an opening sale of an option. If the client created an opening purchase by buying a LEAP and held the position for 15 months before closing it out, the resulting gain or loss would be long-term.

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15
Q

A municipality is issuing 40,000 bonds at a public offering price of $1,000. The manager of the underwriting syndicate receives $1.50 per bond. The total takedown is $6.50 per bond and the selling concession is $4.00 per bond.
Assume the entire issue is sold with the selling group distributing 20,000 of the bonds sold. Calculate the amount of compensation the syndicate will receive for its risk on selling group sales.

A. $2.50 per bond for a total of $50,000
B. $2.50 per bond for a total of $100,000
C. $4.00 per bond for a total of $80,000
D. $4.00 per bond for a total of $160,000

A

The members of the syndicate receive $2.50 per bond for their risk. This is the total takedown of $6.50 minus the selling concession of $4.00. Since the selling group sold 20,000 bonds, the syndicate will receive $50,000 for its risk on those bonds ($2.50 per bond on 20,000 bonds).

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16
Q
A registered representative has a dispute with his firm over compensation. This dispute will be resolved by:
A. A federal court
B. The SEC
C. The National Adjudicatory Council
D. An arbitration panel
A

Registered representatives agree to arbitrate any disputes with their employer, with the exception of statutory discrimination and harassment claims.

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17
Q

A municipal bond backed by an insurance company has gone into default. The insurance carrier will provide:
A. Immediate payment of interest and principal
B. Principal payment at maturity only
C. Timely payment of principal and interest
D. Accelerated principal only

A

Municipal bond insurance guarantees the timely payment of principal and interest. If a municipal bond has 10 years to maturity, the insurance company is obligated to make 20 interest payments as they come due and a lump sum at maturity.

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18
Q
State governments receive the LEAST amount of revenues from:
A. Sales taxes
B. Gasoline taxes
C. Excise taxes
D. Property taxes
A

State governments receive the least amount of revenues from property taxes. States raise money primarily from income taxes, sales taxes, excise taxes, and license fees. Very little is raised from property taxes. Local municipalities raise most of their funds from property taxes (real estate taxes).

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19
Q
An investor purchasing a reverse convertible security would be MOST interested in:
A. Preservation of capital
B. High current income
C. Capital appreciation
D. Conservative income
A

An investor purchasing a reverse convertible security is seeking an above-market coupon rate. Reverse convertible securities are short-term notes issued by banks and broker-dealers that usually pay a coupon rate above prevailing market rates. They are considered structured products because, in addition to the coupon rate, the investor may be required to purchase shares of an underlying asset at a fixed price. The underlying asset may be an equity security unrelated to the issuer, or a basket of stock, or an index. The issuer agrees to pay this higher coupon rate since it has an option to sell a security to the investor if the price of the security falls below a specified value known as the knock-in level. If the price of the underlying asset stays above the knock-in level, the investor will receive the high coupon and the full return of her principal (the most beneficial option). The investor will not be able to participate if the underlying asset increased. If the underlying asset falls below the knock-in level, the investor will be obligated to purchase shares of the underlying asset at a fixed price. The price of this asset may have depreciated below the knock-in level and the investor may receive substantially less than the original principal.

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20
Q

Confirmation statements must contain all of the following, EXCEPT the:
A. Date of the transaction
B. Date on which the order was entered
C. Date of settlement
D. Offer to disclose the name of the opposite party involved in the transaction

A

Transaction dates, settlement dates, and the offer to disclose the name of the contra-party in the transaction must be included on the confirmation statement. Although the date on which the order was entered is not required to be disclosed on the confirmation statement, it is included on the order ticket.

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21
Q
A 1/2-point dealer's concession in a municipal bond equals:
A. .05 on a $1,000 par value bond
B. .50 on a $1,000 par value bond
C. $5.00 on a $1,000 par value bond
D. $50.00 on a $1,000 par value bond
A

A 1/2-point dealer’s concession is the equivalent of 1/2 of 1% of the par value. This is the dollar equivalent of $5.00 on a $1,000 par value bond.

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22
Q
On Wednesday, March 11, a customer purchases 1,000 shares of an OTC equity security in a cash account through an online brokerage firm. The transaction will settle:
A. By the close of business on March 11
B. Immediately
C. On March 12
D. On March 13
A

For corporate securities, regular way settlement is two business days following the trade date. In this question, the settlement occurs on Friday, March 13. The key to this question is understanding that any corporate transactions which are being executed in either cash or margin accounts will settle on a regular way basis (T + 2). However, if a question references a cash trade, a cash transaction, or a trade settling for cash, it has special treatment and will settle on the same day as the trade.

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23
Q
If a customer is short RST call options, what other position would be considered when examining position limits?
A. Long RST calls
B. Long RST puts
C. Short RST puts
D. Long ABC puts
A

If the customer is short RST calls, he anticipates that the market price of RST stock will decline. Since he is bearish on the stock, he could also be long puts on RST. This is considered on the same side of the market.

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24
Q
Which of the following choices need NOT be preapproved by the firm?
A. Sales literature
B. Advertising
C. A public appearance
D. Research reports
A

Unscripted participation in live events is considered a public appearance and is not subject to preapproval or filing with FINRA. Advertising and sales literature is considered retail communication and needs approval by the firm. Research reports also require firm approval.

25
Q
All of the following documents are needed to open a new discretionary margin account, EXCEPT a:
A. New account form
B. Basic customer margin agreement
C. Trust agreement
D. Power of attorney
A

A new account form, a basic customer margin agreement, and a power of attorney are needed to open a new discretionary account. The basic customer margin agreement includes the hypothecation, loan consent, and credit agreements. A trust agreement is needed to open a trust account.

26
Q

An investor purchasing a variable-rate demand obligation seeks:
A. Guaranteed payments of principal and interest
B. A fixed rate of return for the life of the investment
C. Capital appreciation if interest rates decline
D. Capital preservation if interest rates rise

A

The issuer of a variable-rate demand obligation will adjust (reset) the interest rate at specified intervals. The demand feature permits owners of the notes to demand that the issuer purchase the obligations at par on the date that the interest rate is reset.

27
Q

Which of the following CMOs has the MOST prepayment risk?
A. Sequential pay tranches
B. Accrual or Z tranches
C. Planned amortization class (PAC) tranches
D. Support or companion tranches

A

The planned amortization class (PAC) is a type of CMO that is designed for more risk-averse investors and provides a predetermined schedule of principal repayment, as long as mortgage prepayment speeds are within a certain range. This greater predictability of maturity is accomplished by establishing a sinking-fund type of schedule. The PAC tranche has top priority and receives principal payments up to a specified amount. Any excess principal goes to a companion or support tranche that has lower priority. Holders of the companion tranche are generally compensated for this risk with higher yields.

28
Q
According to Regulation T, when purchasing an option contract the transaction must be paid for within:
A. 1 business day
B. 3 business days
C. 4 business days
D. 7 business days
A

According to Regulation T, securities must be paid for within 2 business days of the standard (regular-way) settlement date. Since regular-way settlement is two business days, payment is required within four business days from the trade date. Although option transactions settle next day, the customer has four business days to pay for a purchase.

29
Q

If a municipal bond is selling at a discount and is callable at par, the customer’s confirmation will disclose which of the following?
A. The greater of the yield-to-maturity or yield-to-call
B. The yield-to-maturity
C. The fact that if rates decline, the bond will most likely be called
D. The yield-to-call

A

MSRB rules require dealers to quote the lower of the yield-to-call (YTC) or the yield-to-maturity (YTM). If the bond is selling at a discount, the bond will be quoted on a yield-to-maturity basis (since the YTM is lower than the YTC). On the other hand, if the bond is selling at a premium and is callable at a premium, the bond will be quoted on the basis of yield-to-call or yield-to-maturity, whichever is lower. The yield for a municipal bond that is selling at a premium and is callable at par is calculated to the call date. The yield-to-call measures the yield that will be earned if the bonds are called at the call price and not held to the maturity date.

30
Q

An investor purchased a municipal bond at a discount. If the investor holds the bond to maturity, a gain will be considered:
I. Tax-free interest if the bond is an OID
II. A capital gain if the bond is an OID
III. Ordinary income if the bond is not an OID
IV. Tax-free interest if the bond is not an OID
A. I and III only
B. I and IV only
C. II and III only
D. II and IV only

A

For an OID (original issue discount), the discount is considered interest. Because this is a municipal bond, the interest is tax-exempt. For a non-OID (a secondary market discount), the discount is reported as ordinary income.

31
Q
Tactical asset allocation is a type of:
A. Buy-and-hold strategy
B. Systematic rebalancing strategy
C. Illegal scheme used to gather assets
D. Active asset allocation
A

In tactical asset allocation, an investment adviser changes a portfolio’s asset mix in an attempt to time the market. This is considered an active asset allocation strategy. Buy-and-hold and systematic rebalancing are passive asset allocation strategies.

32
Q
An individual owns an ARF corporation 8% convertible debenture. The debenture is convertible at 20 and is currently selling in the market at 97 1/2. If ARF common stock is trading in the market at 18, at what price should the debenture sell to be at a 10% premium to parity with the common?
A. $900.00
B. $965.25
C. $975.50
D. $990.00
A

Since the conversion price is $20 per share, the debenture can be converted into 50 shares ($1,000 par divided by $20 per share). If converted, the stock will have a total value of $900 (50 shares x $18 per share market price). To be at a 10% premium to parity, the debenture should be trading at $990 ($900 parity plus 10% of $900).

33
Q

Section 1035 of the Internal Revenue Code:
A. Permits the tax-free exchange of one annuity contract for another
B. Forbids the tax-free exchange of an insurance policy for a new life insurance policy
C. Forbids the tax-free exchange of an insurance policy for a new annuity contract
D. Permits the tax-free exchange of an annuity contract for a life insurance policy

A

1035 exchanges permit an individual to exchange one variable annuity contract for another, during the accumulation period, without tax consequences.

34
Q

Foremost Corporation has declared a quarterly dividend of 25 cents payable to stockholders of record on Friday, December 1.
An owner of Foremost Corporation who sold the stock on November 30 for regular-way settlement:

A. Would be entitled to receive the dividend
B. Would not be entitled to receive the dividend
C. Would be entitled to receive the dividend only if the stock was delivered before the ex-dividend date
D. None of the above

A

The record date is given as December 1. The ex-dividend date is on the first business day preceding the record date. Therefore, anyone who owned Foremost Corporation and sold it on November 30 for regular-way settlement, is entitled to receive the dividend because the stock is selling ex-dividend (without the dividend) and the buyer is not entitled to the dividend.

35
Q

Which of the following items is NOT approved by a municipal securities principal?
A. A research report sent to a customer regarding municipal securities
B. Each account engaging in municipal securities transactions
C. All advertising relating to municipal securities
D. All orders to buy municipal bond funds

A

A municipal securities principal must promptly approve (i.e., initial) all transactions for municipal securities, except municipal bond funds because they are not defined as municipal securities. Municipal bond funds require approval by a different category of principal.
A municipal securities principal is also required to approve municipal advertising and the opening of each customer account related to municipal securities. Research reports are considered advertising.

36
Q
What is meant by 4.50% less 3/4 for a municipal bond selling in the secondary market?
A. $1,000 bond at 4.50 yield less $0.75
B. $1,000 bond at 4.50 yield less $7.50
C. $5,000 bond at 4.50 yield less $0.75
D. $5,000 bond at 4.50 yield less $7.75
A

Quotes for serial municipal bonds are usually per $1,000 and on a yield-to-maturity basis. The less 3/4 represents the concession or discount offered to another dealer (3/4 point = $7.50)

37
Q
An investor buys a 4.5% municipal bond at 103 1/4. The bond has a yield-to-maturity of 3 3/4%. If the investor holds the bond to maturity, he will have a loss for tax purposes of:
A. 0
B. $25
C. $50
D. $100
A

The IRS requires that a premium paid for a municipal bond be amortized (written-off) over the life of the bond. At maturity, the investor will have an adjusted cost (after amortization) of par ($1,000). Since this is the amount received at maturity, there is no loss for tax purposes.

38
Q
An investor purchases 10 two-year ABC puts @ 12.25. The dollar amount the investor will pay is:
A. $122.50
B. $1,225.00
C. $12,250.00
D.$122,500.00
A

The cost of a long-term equity option is found by multiplying the premium quote by $100. The cost of 10 puts quoted at 12.25 is, therefore, $12,250 (12.25 x $100 x 10 = $12,250).

39
Q
A customer's margin account has a market value of $40,000 and a debit balance of $10,000. What value of securities may the broker-dealer rehypothecate?
A. $10,000
B. $14,000
C. $26,000
D. $40,000
A

A broker-dealer may use a customer’s securities valued at 140% of the debit balance as collateral for the customer’s loan at a bank. Therefore, the amount is $14,000 ($10,000 debit balance x 140%).

40
Q
A corporation has $10,000,000 of a 5% preferred stock issue outstanding. If the corporation is able to replace the preferred stock with $10,000,000 of 5% subordinated debentures, what effect will it have on earnings per share (EPS)?
A. EPS will increase
B. EPS will decrease
C. EPS will remain the same
D. The effect cannot be determined
A

The company will pay the same amount ($500,000) whether it was interest on the subordinated debentures or dividends on the preferred stock. However, interest is deducted before taxes while dividends are taken from net income. Therefore, there will be a tax savings if the $500,000 payment is bond interest, which will result in higher earnings per share.

41
Q

Who is responsible for certifying that a broker-dealer has compliance and supervisory procedures in place?
A. The chief executive officer
B. The chief compliance officer
C. The financial and operations principal
D. The general securities principal

A

The chief executive officer (or an equivalent officer) of the firm is required to certify annually that the firm has compliance and supervisory procedures in place.

42
Q

If a Kingdom of Sweden Eurobond is purchased by a U.S. citizen, which TWO of the following statements are TRUE?
I. Interest is subject to income taxes
II. Interest is exempt from income taxes
III. Gains are subject to capital gains treatment
IV. Gains are exempt from capital gains treatment
A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

Eurobonds (bonds issued outside the country of the issuer) are subject to full taxation if purchased by a U.S. citizen. However, if foreign taxes are withheld on the interest, they may be claimed as a credit against U.S. tax liability.

43
Q
Which of the following ratios would be used by an analyst examining the capital structure of an industrial corporation?
A. The current ratio
B. The dividend payout ratio
C. The price/earnings ratio
D. The debt-to-equity ratio
A

The capital structure of a corporation is the dollar amount of the corporation’s capitalization (equity and debt securities). An analyst will, therefore, be interested in the debt-to-equity ratio. This is actually the ratio of those securities creating fixed charges (bonds plus preferred stock) to common stock.

44
Q

A doctor receives an inheritance of $250,000. She is concerned how this may affect her tax situation. The doctor inquires about where she should park the money while she obtains professional tax advice. Which of the following recommendations is the MOST appropriate?
A. A short-term municipal bond fund
B. A money-market account
C. A municipal money-market mutual fund
D. A U.S. government inflation-protected bond fund

A

Whenever a person is looking to park her cash, the most viable option is some form of money-market account. Parking implies a very short-term time horizon (perhaps as little as a few weeks), so the short-term municipal bond fund and the U.S. government inflation-protected bond fund are poor selections. In both cases, those choices involve a fund that purchases bonds and, therefore, is subject to principal fluctuation. This would not suit her needs. However, this question also has an extra dimension to it. The person in this question is a doctor, which implies a high income level. Furthermore, she is inheriting a large sum of money and expressly states she is worried about taxes. These are trigger phrases, which means you should be looking for something that provides some tax relief. In this case, the municipal money-market mutual fund is the BEST answer. It provides both the safety of principal and tax relief the doctor needs. The tax relief comes from the short-term municipal (federally tax-free) securities in the account. The money-market account, only offers principal safety.

45
Q

Which of the following securities would you LEAST likely recommend to an investor requiring a fixed sum of funds to be received in 10 years?
A. A zero-coupon municipal bond
B. A high-yield corporate bond
C. Collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs)
D. Treasury Inflation-Protected Securities (TIPS)

A

The risk that an investor will receive her principal earlier than projected instead of at one time (i.e., prepayment risk) is the most important risk pertaining to mortgage-backed securities such as CMOs. Since the investor wants to receive a fixed amount of funds in 10 years, a CMO would be the least suitable of the securities listed.

46
Q

An investor has annuitized a variable annuity and has realized that the payments he’s receiving are falling below market return. If the investor wants to reallocate a portion of the investment portfolio within the separate account, which of the following statements is TRUE regarding this situation?
A. The investor is permitted to change the allocation of the investments within the separate account.
B. The investor is not permitted to change the allocation of the investments within the separate account.
C. The investor can only change the allocation to a fixed-income portfolio.
D. The investor can only change the allocation to an equity growth portfolio.

A

Although some limitations may apply, the investor is permitted to reallocate their investments within the separate account. Keep in mind, both the decision to annuitize and the chosen settlement option are final.

47
Q
A member firm's response to a customer complaint may be:
A. In written form only
B. In oral form only
C. In either written or oral form
D. Unnecessary
A

The member’s response to a customer complaint may be in either written or oral form.

48
Q

A member firm is required to send duplicate account statements to FINRA:
A. Under no circumstances
B. If the customer is an insider of a publicly traded company
CI. f the customer is a principal of a member firm
D. If the customer is an employee of FINRA

A

A member firm is required to send duplicate account statements to FINRA when a customer of the firm is an employee of FINRA. The member firm would need written instructions from the employee of FINRA when opening an account in order to send the duplicate account statements.

49
Q

A customer is considering the purchase of a bond fund in hopes of profiting from appreciation in the bond market. The customer is LEAST likely to receive a capital gain distribution if:
I. The bonds in the portfolio have short maturities
II. The bonds in the portfolio have long maturities
III. Interest rates are rising
IV. Interest rates are falling
A. I and III only
B. I and IV only
C. II and III only
D. II and IV only

A

A bond fund investor is MOST likely to receive a capital gain distribution when bonds are appreciating substantially in value. This would occur if interest rates were falling. When rates fall, long-term bonds appreciate more than short-term bonds. Therefore, the investor is LEAST likely to receive a capital gain distribution if rates are rising and the portfolio contains short-term bonds.

50
Q

The relative of an 85-year-old account holder contacts the registered representative of the account and requests that funds be transferred to her account which is also held at the same firm. If the RR suspects financial exploitation, which of the following is the BEST course of action?
A. Process the transaction since both accounts are held at the same firm.
B. Attempt to resolve the matter with the customer prior to placing a temporary hold.
C. Immediately place a temporary hold on the account.
D. Contact the attorney for the 85-year-old account holder.

A

According to FINRA, if an RR suspects financial exploitation of a senior investor, he should first attempt to resolve the matter prior to placing a temporary hold on the account. The fact that both accounts are held at the same firm is irrelevant.

51
Q
According to the Customer Identification Program, broker-dealers are required to verify each customer's identity:
A. Before the account is opened
B. Before the privacy notice is given
C. Before the first trade
D. Within a reasonable period
A

The Customer Identification Program (CIP) is part of a broker-dealer’s overall anti-money laundering compliance program. Under this program, a customer’s identity must be verified within a reasonable period following the opening of the account.

52
Q
An investor purchases stock at $21 and pays a $1.05 commission. The stock is later sold for $19, paying a $.95 commission. In order to determine a gain or loss, the investor will use proceeds of:
A. $18.05
B. $19
C. $21
D. $22.05
A

In order to determine a gain or loss on an investment, you must determine the cost basis and the proceeds. The proceeds are equal to what the stock was sold for less any commission. In this example, the proceeds would be $18.05 = $19.00 - $.95.

53
Q

A customer is concerned about an investment in his portfolio. He will be traveling for the day and wants his registered rep to sell 500 shares of the stock whenever the rep feels the time is right. Which of the following is true regarding these instructions?
A. The registered rep can determine the time to sell the shares.
B. The registered rep must have written discretionary authority in order to decide the time to sell.
C. The registered rep can determine the time to sell, but a principal must approve the transaction prior to execution.
D. The registered rep must have written permission from the customer before making the decision.

A

Once verbal authorization is received from a customer, an RR may select the price and/or time of execution if the customer has specified (1) whether to buy or sell, (2) the specific security, and (3) the amount to be bought or sold. Without these three details, written discretionary authority is required. However this only applies to transactions on one day. In order to initiate transactions for more than one day the registered representative would have to have written discretionary authority.

54
Q
Mrs. Jones owns stock from which she received $3,000 in cash dividends. Mr. Jones owns stock from which he received $400 in cash dividends. How much of the cash dividends received are Mr. and Mrs. Jones liable for when filing their joint return?
A. 0
B. $400
C. $2,600
D. $3,400
A

Cash dividends received by individuals are fully taxable and, therefore, the entire $3,400 total of dividends is liable for taxes.

55
Q

Based on the size of the issue, which of the following issuers could seek a registration exemption under Regulation A?
A. A $60,000,000 aggregate offering of common stock, that includes $15,000,000 sold on behalf of existing shareholders
B. A $100,000,000 offering of newly issued common stock
C. A $50,000,000 offering of newly issued common stock and a $15,000,000 sale on behalf of existing shareholders
D. A $45,000,000 aggregate offering of common stock, that includes $12,500,000 sold on behalf of existing shareholders

A

The maximum size of an offering under a Regulation A exemption is $50,000,000 as an aggregate offering, with no more than $15,000,000 of the $50,000,000 being sold on behalf of existing shareholders. If the $15,000,000 is being sold on behalf of existing shareholders is in addition to the $50,000,000 new shares being offered by the company, the exemption would not apply.

56
Q

Which of the following securities are based on the credit rating of the issuer?
A. An exchange-traded fund (ETF)
B. A mutual fund that contains only non-investment-grade securities
C. A closed-end bond fund
D. An exchange-traded note (ETN)

A

Exchange-traded notes (ETNs) are a type of unsecured debt security. ETNs carry issuer risk that is tied to the creditworthiness of the financial institution backing the note. If the issuer’s financial condition deteriorates, it can impact the value of the ETN negatively, regardless of how its underlying index performs. The credit rating of the securities included in a mutual fund, closed-end bond fund company, or ETF has an impact on these types of securities. These securities are not affected by the ratings of the company that is issuing the fund or ETF.

57
Q

A customer will receive a prospectus on a recently purchased IPO:
A. When requested
B. No later than the completion of the transaction
C. Only in electronic form
D. Within 25 days after the completion of the transaction

A

When purchasing an equity IPO, a customer must receive the prospectus no later than the completion of the transaction. While it may be delivered electronically, the customer can request physical delivery.

58
Q
RSR Corporation has earned $4 per share and has paid a 75 cent dividend per share. If the stock is selling at $38 a share, what is its price/earnings ratio?
A. 2.02
B. 9.5
C. 12.6
D.50.7
A

The price/earnings ratio is found by dividing the market price of $38 by the earnings per share of $4. This equals a price/earnings ratio of 9.5 ($38 / $4). The amount of the dividend is not relevant in calculating the price/earnings ratio.

59
Q

Which of the following factors would be LEAST important in an analysis of whether an RR had churned a client’s account?
A. The type of securities the client traded
B. The amount of commissions the client paid
C. The amount of portfolio turnover
D. The client’s investment objectives

A

Churning is a prohibited practice and occurs when an RR excessively buys and sells in a client’s account to generate high sales commissions. The amount of commissions the client paid, portfolio turnover, and the client’s investment objectives are all important factors to analyze in determining whether an RR churned a client’s account. The specific type of securities that were purchased are not as important as the other three factors listed. For example, it is still a violation if an RR excessively buys and sells low-risk securities such as government debt.