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NAVLE > Ruminants > Flashcards

Ruminants Flashcards

1
Q

What is the causative agent of FMD?

A

Aphthovirus, family picornaviridae

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2
Q

What are the most common clinical signs of FMD?

A

High fever, drooling/salivation, lameness (spreads quickly), vesicles, erosions, abortion

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3
Q

What species is most commonly affected by FMD? Which species are carriers?

A

Bovine (most susceptible) and pigs commonly affected; buffalo often asymptomatic carriers

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4
Q

What is often the first sign of FMD infection?

A

Salivation

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5
Q

What are the clinical signs of scrapie?

A

Vary; intense pruritus, progressive neurological signs; wt. loss w/ normal appetite, head tremors, behavior change

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6
Q

How is scrapie prevented?

A

Cull +s, maintain closed herd; incinerate or alkaline digestion carcasses

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7
Q

How is scrapie transmitted?

A

Contact w/ placental/allantoic fluid

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8
Q

What tissue(s) should be submitted for diagnosis of scrapie? Antemortem tests?

A

Obex immunohistochemistry gold standard, cerebellum (atypical scrapie), and lymphoid tissue also used; ELISA screening of brain/lymphoid tissues also;
antemortem tests: biopsy of lymphoid tissue in 3rd eyelid (IHC), tonsils, or detection of prions in placenta

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9
Q

What is the treatment for scrapie?

A

None–euthanize

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10
Q

What are the clinical signs of bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE)?

A

Adult cattle (>2yrs), insidious onset of abnormal behavior, aggression, ataxia, reduced milk yield

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11
Q

What is the primary mode of transmission of Mycobacterium avium, subsp. paratuberculosis?

A

Fecal-oral #1; also in colostrum; silent shedders #1 cause of infection

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12
Q

What is the gold standard test and which US govt. agency is approved to test for Mycobacterium avium, subsp. paratuberculosis?

A

Culture of feces/postmortem tissue; USDA

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13
Q

What is the prognosis for a cow with clinical signs of Mycobacterium avium, subsp. paratuberculosis?

A

Grave–no cure; death inevitable with apparent clinical signs

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14
Q

What is the common presentation of ketosis in cattle?

A

ADR–depression, partial anorexia in early lactation

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15
Q

What 2 things are required for ketosis to occur?

A

High glucose demand AND high level of fat mobilization

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16
Q

What are the signs of nervous ketosis?

A

CNS–circling, staggering, bellowing, licking/chewing, trembling, aggression

17
Q

What is the treatment of choice for ketosis?

A

Restore normoglycemia + decrease serum ketone bodies–provide glucose/precursors: IV glucose (50% dextrose), glucocorticoids (only if NOT pregnant), propylene glycol drenches, force feed

18
Q

What has an increased incidence of occurring in herds with ketosis problems?

A

Displaced abomasum

19
Q

What is the test of choice for bovine leukosis (BLV)?

A

ELISA

20
Q

What is the classic presentation of BLV?

A

Adult dairy cows, wt. loss, dec. milk production, poor appetite, +/- external masses, BLV+

21
Q

What is the etiology of BLV?

A

Retrovirus–infection permanent, no treatment

22
Q

What is the classical presentation of a cow with a left displaced abomasum?

A

Adult dairy cow, ADR (dec. appetite, dec. milk production), “ping”

23
Q

What is the characteristic lab work of a LDA?

A

Decreased K, Cl, Ca–metabolic alkalosis, paradoxic aciduria

24
Q

What is contraindicated in RDA?

A

Rolling (only used in LDA, but likely to recur)

25
Q

What is the treatment of choice for listeria?

A

Penicillin, sulfonamides, tetracyclines (avian, mammals), OR ampicillin for 2-4wks; supportive therapy

26
Q

Dorsomedial strabismus (stargazing) is pathognomonic for what condition?

A

Polioencephalomalacia

27
Q

What is the classic presentation of polioencephalomalacia?

A

Fast-growing calf or lamb, NEUROLOGIC, blind, staggering, down (bilaterally symmetric signs of cerebral dysfunction)

28
Q

What is the treatment for polioencephalomalacia?

A

Thiamine (Vit. B1) supplementation–IV initially, then IM/SQ

29
Q

What are 2 key etiologies thought to be associated with polioencephalomalacia in ruminants?

A

Thiamine deficiency or high sulfur intake

NAVLE (3 decks)

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