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NAVLE > Canine > Flashcards

Canine Flashcards

1
Q

What is the general course of distemper infection in a young, unvaccinated dog?

A

Respiratory and ocular signs first, GI second, CNS third (usually 1-3wks later but can be months)

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2
Q

What is a classic initial symptom in ferrets with canine distemper infection?

A

Papular chin dermatitis–dermatitis is pathognomonic when other symptoms are present

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3
Q

What measures can be taken to prevent canine distemper in dogs and ferrets?

A

Dogs: modified-live canine distemper vaccine

Ferrets & Weimaraners: recombinant canary-pox vector vaccine

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4
Q

What are 3 possible complications that can occur if a modified-live distemper vaccine is used in a Weimaraner under 1yr old?

A

1) Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
2) Juvenile cellulitis
3) Corticosteroid-responsive neutrophilic meningitis/arteritis

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5
Q

What is the etiology of canine distemper virus?

A

Morbillivirus of the family Paramyxoviridae (closely related to measles and rinderpest); Highly contagious via aerosol (mostly), transplacental routes, or direct contact

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6
Q

What is the viral shedding time period in canine distemper?

A

Viral shedding begins by the 7th day and may persist up to 90 days

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7
Q

Why perform fecal flotation and abdominal radiographs on a suspected parvo dog?

A

To rule out concurrent helminthiasis (common) and to avoid missing a foreign body or intussusception

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8
Q

Describe the acute treatment of suspected parvovirus in the first 12 hours after admission

A

Admit, isolate, place IV catheter, IV antibiotics and fluids;
First 2 hrs: fluid bolus to correct BP; afterwards correct fluid defecit over 10hrs, give Metoclopramide CRI, analgesia, amikacin (if BP improved); after 4-5hrs start to feed

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9
Q

When does fecal viral shedding occur in dogs affected with parvo?

A

4-5 days after exposure, before clinical signs occur

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10
Q

Name 3 physical exam findings that are highly suggestive of a ruptured cranial cruciate ligament

A

1) Palpable joint effusion
2) Cranial drawer sign
3) Cranial tibial thrust

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11
Q

Name 3 radiographic findings with a torn cranial cruciate ligament

A

Fat pad compression, joint effusion, DJD

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12
Q

Describe 5 surgical techniques for repair of a torn cranial cruciate ligament

A

1) Intracapsular fascia lata or patellar tendon autogenous graft
2) Extracapsular suture stabilization
3) Fibular head transposition
4) Tibial plateau leveling osteotomy (TPLO)
5) Tibial tuberosity advancement (TTA)

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13
Q

Name 4 breeds predisposed to DCM

A

Doberman Pinscher, Great dane, Boxer, Portuguese water dog

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14
Q

List the findings on an echocardiogram diagnostic of DCM

A

Sinus tachycardia, P-mitrale, wide, tall or low voltage QRS, APCs or VPCs, atrial fib

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15
Q

List 4 radiographic findings suggestive of DCM

A

Cardiomegaly, LA and LV enlargement, pulmonary edema, pleural effusion

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16
Q

List the different etiologies of DCM

A

1) Idiopathic/familial/genetic
2) Taurine deficiency–reversible, cats
3) Carnitine deficiency
4) Infectious–Trypanosoma cruz, parvo (rare)
5) Toxic–Adriamycin
6) Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
7) Volume overload
8) Endocrinopathy–hypothyroidism (uncommon)

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17
Q

Describe the treatment of DCM

A

1) Diuretics–reduce edema, effusion, lasix
2) Dilators–ACE inhibitors (enalapril), 2% nitroglycerin,
3) Low Na diet–rest, O2, taurine, L-carnitine
4) Positive inotropes–dobutamine, digoxin, pimobendan
5) Antiarrhythmics–beta blockers (atenolol), Ca channel blockers (diltiazem)

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18
Q

What are the presentations of DCM with the worst prognosis?

A

Cats w/o Taurine deficiency, Dobies w/ atrial fib or ventricular arrhythmia, Portuguese water dogs (young, usually die quickly)

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19
Q

What is the acute treatment for seizures?

A

Benzodiazapines (diazepam, midazolam, lorazolam), propofol, inhalent anesthetic

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20
Q

What is the maintenance treatment for seizures?

A

KBr, phenobarbital, levetiracetam (keppra), zonisamide

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21
Q

What are the tests of choice for diagnosing epilepsy?

A

1) Bloodwork to rule out toxic/metabolic cause
2) Bile acids to rule out hepatic encephalopathy
3) MRI or CT of brain to rule out structural disease
4) Cerebrospinal fluid analysis to rule out encephalitis
5) Monitor anticonvulsant levels

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22
Q

Which anticonvulsants would be safe to use in a dog suffering from seizures due to hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Zonisamide, Levetiracetam (keppra)

23
Q

What are the diagnostic tests of choice for ethylene glycol toxicity?

A

REACT EG test kit, serum osmolality (>20 strongly suggestive) top 2; urinalysis, ultrasonography (inc. renal cortical echogenicity)

24
Q

What does ethylene glycol toxicity look like on bloodwork?

A

Azotemia, hyperglycemia, hyper- or hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, high anion gap (>25), metabolic acidosis

25
Q

What is the treatment of ethylene glycol toxicity?

A

Supportive care (IV fluids, NaBic IV CRI), decontaminate (induce vomiting/act. charcoal), prevent metabolism (fomepizole or ethanol)

26
Q

Name the hepatic enzyme responsible for converting ethylene glycol to its toxic metabolites

A

Alcohol dehydrogenase

27
Q

Name 3 ways to prevent GDV

A

1) Feeding–small, low fat meals, min. exercise after meals, min. water after exercise
2) Don’t breed dogs w/ history of GDV
3) Prophylactic gastropexy

28
Q

What is the most important thing to do first upon admission when managing case-patient with suspected GDV?

A

Shock therapy–IV fluids; then carefully pass orogastric tube; trocharize stomach in extreme cases

29
Q

What is the overall mortality rate among dogs who have had surgery for GDV?

A

15%; increases to 30% with gastric necrosis

30
Q

What is the most appropriate initial treatment for a heat stroke patient that presented with collapse and panting, with a temperature of 105.9F?

A

STABILIZATION–O2 supplementation, IV fluids, prompt active cooling to 103F (use tepid water, avoid hypothermia); prophylactic broad spectrum antibiotics (GI sloughing)

31
Q

What are two contraindicated treatments in heat stroke?

A

Ice bath/cold water, NSAIDs (GI sloughing), Jugular venipuncture (unknown coagulation status)

32
Q

What is the treatment protocol for heartworms (low grades)?

A

1) Melarsomine, 3 dose adulticide protocol
2) Exercise restriction
3) Consider prednisone or NSAIDs to reduce melarsomine injection site inflammation

33
Q

What are 4 signs of Horner’s syndrome?

A

1) Miosis (pupil will not fully dilate in dark)
2) Prolapse of nictitating membrane
3) Enophthalmos (sunken eye)
4) Ptosis

34
Q

What are the most common causes of Horner’s syndrome in dogs?

A

1) Idiopathic (50%)
2) Otitis media/interna
3) Brachial plexus avulsion

35
Q

What is the test of choice for diagnosing hypothyroidism?

A

1) Total T4–90% sensitive
2) Free T4 (by dialysis)–useful in distinguishing from euthyroid
3) TSH–must be species-specific assay

36
Q

What are the other factors that might decrease thyroid levels in dogs?

A

1) Certain breeds: Greyhounds, Scottish deerhounds, Alaskan sled dogs
2) Phenobarbital, prednisone, KBr, some NSAIDs, propranolol

37
Q

What is the treatment of choice for hypothyroidism?

A

Levothyroxine sodium (synthetic T4)

38
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of adult onset primary hypothyroidism?

A

1) Lymphocytic thyroiditis

2) Idiopathic atrophy of thyroid gland

39
Q

What is the best treatment for a dog with intervertebral disc extrusion that is paraplegic?

A

Hemilaminectomy (lateral decompression)

40
Q

Which breeds are predisposed to type I disc ruptures? Type II?

A

Type I: rupture; chondrodystrophoid breeds

Type II: bulge; medium and large nonchondrodystrophoid breeds

41
Q

What are the symptoms of clinical Lyme disease in dogs?

A

Warm, swollen, painful joints, fever, lymphadenopathy

42
Q

What tests are available for diagnosing Lyme disease?

A

1) Antibodies to C6 peptide (natural exposure)
2) ELISA antibody detection
3) New Lyme multiplex assay
4) UA

43
Q

What is the vector for Lyme disease? What is the reservoir host?

A 
Vector = ixodes scapularis (black legged/deer tick); 
Reservoir = White-footed mouse, other rodents
44
Q

What is the prognosis for acquired myasthenia gravis in dogs?

A

Fair if treatment started early, BUT 1yr mortality rate in 40-60% among all dogs, and frequent hospitalization (aspiration pneumonia) common

45
Q

What is the treatment for myasthenia gravis?

A

1) Cholinesterase inhibitors–pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon)
2) Immunosuppression (caution)–Mycophenolate
3) Megaesophagus: metoclopramide or cisapride, elevated feedings, gastrotomy tube

46
Q

A 2yr old cat presents with a right head tilt, circling to the right, ataxia, horizontal nystagmus fast phase to the left, and a right Horner’s syndrome. Where does the lesion localize?

A

Right central

47
Q

What neurological signs would be typical in a cat with bilateral otitis interna?

A

Wide head excursions, crouched to the ground, +/- nystagmus

48
Q

What are the treatments of choice for otitis media/interna, in order of least to most extreme?

A

1) Long-term antibiotics (2mo, based on culture/sens.)
2) Myringotomy (incision into eardrum)–gently flush w/ sterile saline
3) Ventral bulla osteotomy–esp. w/ CNS involvement
4) Lateral bullectomy–severe, chronic

49
Q

What is the typical presentation for a dog with OCD? A horse?

A

Dog–young (4-8mo), fast growing large breeds, M>F

Horse–yearling w/ synovial effusion (gonitis, bog spavin); poss. hereditary in standardbred and Swedish warmblood

50
Q

What are the 5 most common sites of OCD in the dog?

A

1) Caudal humeral head
2) Medial humeral condyle
3) Med./lat. trochlear ridges of talus
4) Lat./med. femoral condyle
5) Vertebral articular processes

51
Q

What are the tests of choice for pancreatitis?

A

1) SNAP cPL–quick to rule out
2) Specific cPL assay–TEST OF CHOICE
3) Abdominal u/s

52
Q

What is the treatment for pancreatitis in dogs?

A

Aggressive fluid therapy, analgesics, antiemetics (NOT metoclopramide), plasma transfusions, nutritional support

53
Q

What are the good/bad prognostic indicators for vision after ocular proptosis?

A

1) + PLR–good indicator
2) + menace response–good indicator
3) Dilated, unresponsive pupil–POOR indicator, optic nerve avulsion likely

NAVLE (3 decks)

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