Ruminants Flashcards
What is the normal lipid (TG) content of a liver in early postpartum?
a) 80-100g/kg
b) 80-120g/kg
c) 40-60g/Kg
d) 60-100g/Kg
80-100g/kg
What drug is your 1st choice for liver diseases in ruminants?
a) Glycerin
b) Propylene glycol
c) C. Glucocorticoid
d) D. Glucose infusions
Propylene glycol
Which Statement is TRUE
a) For diagnostic purposes a liver biopsy sample can be put in MgSO4 solution (floating
test): normal liver will float, Fatty liver will sink, because its heavier.
b) Urea & cholesterol levels will decrease
c) Blood ammonia levels will decrease (<50umol/l)
d) CuSO4 can not be used for diagnostic sample tests
b) Urea & cholesterol levels will decrease
4.Malignant Caterham fever is caused by:
a) Herpesvirus
b) Adenovirus
c) pasturella hemolytica
d) mycoplasma bovis
Herpesvirus
Vaginal prolapse
a) has 2 stages
b) cannot be treated surgically
c) Usually occurs in the last trimester of pregnancy
d) if treated well, no chance of relapse can occur
Usually occurs in the last trimester of pregnancy
Fatty liver disease in cattle
a) occurs in old cows
b) Occurs in high milk producing cattle
c) occurs in calves
d) does not occur in cattle
Occurs in high milk producing cattle
urecht method is :
a) a rolling technique to correct LDA and RDA
b) an abomasopexy to correct LDA and RDA
c) an abomasopexy to correct LDA
an abomasopexy to correct LDA
After calving, we give more grains to the cow and its ruminal pH tends to drop. What
buffer would you use to counteract this problem ?
a) Magnesium oxide
b) Magnesium hydroxide
c) Both of them can be used
d) Never use magnesium hydroxide, only magnesium oxide
Both of them can be used
Typical sign of Aujeszky’s disease?
a) Automutilation of the head.
b) Recumbency.
c) Both are correct.
d) Neither are correct.
both are correct.
Best way to prevent fatty liver in cows?
a) Avoid overconditioning.
b) Feeding slightly under the need for production levels.
c) Keep the cow still.
d) Increase the concentrate just prior to the expected calving.
Avoid overconditioning.
A strong clinical indication of Rabies in cattle?
a) Hyperaesthesia
b) Extremely high fever
c) Loud donkey like bellowing
d) Heavy grunts and respiration
Loud donkey like bellowing
Syringohydromyelia, choose the false statement
a) Lack of proprioception
b) Acquired type of condition
c) MRI is required
d) There are fluid filled cysts compressing the spinal cord
Acquired type of condition
- Clinical signs of heart failure in cattle:
a) Brisket edema.
b) Positive jugular pulse.
c) High fever.
d) All are correct.
d) All are correct.
Clinical sign of traumatic pericarditis:
a) Elbows are kept far away from the thoracic wall.
b) There are really not any signs to be seen.
c) Collapse.
d) Pale mucous membranes.
Elbows are kept far away from the thoracic wall.
In which vein do you inject medications IV in a calf?
a) V. jugularis
b) V. cephalica
c) V. saphena
d) All are correct
V. jugularis
Which statement is true ?
a) Frothy bloat causes upper left, ventral right distension of the abdomen (apple-pear
shape) while we would only see left distension of the abdomen in free-gas bloat
b) Free-gas bloat causes upper left, ventral right distension of the abdomen (apple-pear
shape) while we would only see left distension of the abdomen in frothy bloat
c) Hoflund syndrome causes upper left, ventral right distension of the abdomen (applepear
shape)
d) Any of them is correct
c
Which is the appropriate liver enzyme group for ruminants` hepatic enzymes?
a) AST, ALT, GLDH, GGT, ALP
b) AST; SDH, GLDH, GGT, ALP
c) AST, SDH, GLDH, GGT, ALP, bilirubin
d) AST, CK, GLDH, GGT, ALP, troponin
b) AST; SDH, GLDH, GGT, ALP
The course of botulism in cattle?
a) Only peracute or acute
b) Can be peracute, acute or subacute
c) Only acute
d) Only subacute and chronic
b) Can be peracute, acute or subacute
- Paraesthesia in cattle? For what disease is this symptom characteristic?
a) Rabies
b) TEME
c) Aujeszky disease (pseudorabies)
d) Acute lead poisoning
c) Aujeszky disease (pseudorabies)
- Fog fever/cattle/substance damage the alveoli?
a) 3 – methylindole
b) L – tryptophan
c) 18 – S – protein
d) Fumonisine B1
a) 3 – methylindole
- Traumatic/perforating pericarditis/specific symptoms/cattle?
a) Increased, absolute cardiac dullness, auscultation decreased or missing cardiac
sounds, splashing sounds over the cardiac region, congested jugular vein, brisket
edema
b) Horizontal dullness in the thorax, dystolic cardiac murmur, congested jugular vein +
venous pulse.
c) Absolute cardiac dullness, pericardial cardiac murmurs, insp. Dyspnoea, Diernhofer –
triangle dieaseases.
d) Convex, dorsal dullness in the thorax, rubbing sounds, congested jugular vein –
venous pulse.
a) Increased, absolute cardiac dullness, auscultation decreased or missing cardiac
sounds, splashing sounds over the cardiac region, congested jugular vein, brisket
edema
- Caused by what disease and what sound produced by these cattle?
a) Aujeszky`s disease (pseudorabies), lion – like roaring
b) Tracheal paralysis, tracheal stridor
c) Rabies, donkey – like roaring
d) Rabies, lion – like roaring
c) Rabies, donkey – like roaring
- Which statement is TRUE for the laboratory signs of fatty liver syndrome in cows?
a) The blood ammonia concentration usually does not change
b) The blood non – esterified fatty acid concentration (NEFA) usually does not change
c) The blood urea concentration usually decreases
d) The blood urea concentration usually increases
c) The blood urea concentration usually increases
- Left sided abomasal displacement/auscultation with percussion above displaced
abomasum
a) Diagnostic accuracy of 100%
b) Diagnostic accurancy of 50%
c) Diagnostic accuracy of 30 – 40%
d) Diagnostic accuracy of 90 – 95%
d) Diagnostic accuracy of 90 – 95%
- Bovine ringworm/occurrence, etiology?
a) Mainly in adult cattle, microsporum canis + predisposing factors
b) Mainly in calves, Trichophyton verrucosum infection + predisposing factors
c) Mainly in calves, Cryptococcus neoformans infections + predisposing factors
d) Both in adult cattle and calves, Wolbachia pipietis + predisposing factors
b) Mainly in calves, Trichophyton verrucosum infection + predisposing factors
- Dermatomycosis of sheep/etiology:
a) Trichophyton verrucosum + dermathophilus congolensis
b) Trichophyton verrucosum + candida albicans
c) Trichophyton verrucosum + microsporum canis
d) Cryptococcus neoformans, spergillus fumigatus
c) Trichophyton verrucosum + microsporum canis
- Characteristic of hydrocephalus in calves?
a) Hereditary or intrauterine BVD – virus: Distorted skull. Opisthotonus, spastic legs
b) Intrauterine herpesvirus infection, high forehead, limb paralysis
c) Intrauterine blue – tounge – virus infection, depression, ataxia, tetraparalysis.
a) Hereditary or intrauterine BVD – virus: Distorted skull. Opisthotonus, spastic legs
- Hoflund syndrome (vagus indigestion) which statement is NOT TRUE?
a) The posterior functional stenosis is characterized by a papple – shaped abdomen
b) The posterior functional stenosis occurs at the omaso – abomasal orifice, resulting
in obturation of the omasum with rough fodder.
c) The posterior functional stenosis occurs at the pylorus, resulting in elevation of the
Cl- concentration in the rumen
d) The posterior functional stenosis can occur during left – sided abomasal
displacement. In this case, fluid electrolyte replacement is necessary.
b) The posterior functional stenosis occurs at the omaso – abomasal orifice, resulting
in obturation of the omasum with rough fodder.
- Normal values of blood serum potassium in cattle?
a) 2 – 3 mmol/liter
b) 3 – 5 mmol/liter
c) 5 – 7 mmol/liter
d) 8 – 10 mmol/liter
b) 3 – 5 mmol/liter
- Secondary, chronic – recurrent ruminal bloat/aetiology
a) Hoflund – disease, stricture of the oesophagus, chronic rumen acidosis
b) Rumen putrefaction, obstruction of the oesophagus, paratuberculosis
c) Reticuloperitonitis, compression of the oesophagus, partial obstruction of cardia
d) Tetanus, frothy bloat, reflux syndrome
c) Reticuloperitonitis, compression of the oesophagus, partial obstruction of cardia
- Which viruses can elicit polyfactorial calf diarrhoea?
- VD, rota – coronavirus
- Adeno -, aphto-, rotavirus
- Enetro, - adeno-, coronavirus
- Lentivirus, oncovirus, morbillivirus
- VD, rota – coronavirus
- Displacement of the abomasum (DA)/pathogenesis/cattle?
a) Feeding more grain and less fiber –> ++ VFA -> Abomasal atony -> Abomasal dilation
-> DA
b) Lack of fiber-> rumen acisosis -> Abomasal atony -> Abomasal dilation -> DA
c) Feeding more grain and less fiber -> ++ VFA -> Abomasal atony -> Abomasal
dilatation ->Postpartum period, small rumen -> DA
c) Feeding more grain and less fiber -> ++ VFA -> Abomasal atony -> Abomasal
dilatation ->Postpartum period, small rumen -> DA
- Which therapeutic measures decreases blood potassium level during the treatment of
hyperkalaemia? Choose the wrong answer.
a) Intravenous calcium
b) Potassium free infusions and furosemide
c) Glucose containing infusions
d) Rapid acting insulin applications
a) Intravenous calcium
- What kind of disease would cause this symptom?
a) Parakeratosis due to Zn deficiency
b) Squamos cell carcinoma
c) Papillomatosis
d) Skin keratosis
c) Papillomatosis
- Caused by what disease and what kind of sound produced by these cattle?
a) Aujeszky disease (pseudorabies), lion – like roaring
b) Laryngeal paralysis, laryngeal stridor
c) Rabies, donkey – like roaring
d) Full laryngeal paralysis: no sound formation
c) Rabies, donkey – like roaring
- Symptoms of rabies in cattle
a) Donkey – like roaring…. 2 -3 weeks
b) Donkey – like roaring, aggressivity, hypersexuality, cranial nerve paralysis,
ascending paralysis of the limbs, colic like symptoms
c) Lion – like roaring, mostly calm behavior, sometimes convulsions, oetrus – like
symptoms, coma
b) Donkey – like roaring, aggressivity, hypersexuality, cranial nerve paralysis,
ascending paralysis of the limbs, colic like symptoms
- Why does ketosis occur in ewes?
a) In young ewes, before first breeding, in the third trimester of pregnancy
b) Twinbreed, In multiple bred ewes, after parturition, during winther
c) Twinbreed, in multiple bred ewes, in third trimester of pregnancy
d) In adult, cachectic ewes, after several parturations
c) Twinbreed, in multiple bred ewes, in third trimester of pregnancy
- Symptoms of tetanus in cattle?
a) Flag tail position, facial paralysis, secondary ruminal bloat
b) Hyperreflexia, trismus, risus sardonicus, saw – horse position
c) Hyperreflexia, distorted face, rigidity of the neck, unconsciousness
d) Leg paralysis, regurgitation, secondary ruminal bloat
a) Flag tail position, facial paralysis, secondary ruminal bloat
- Normal values of GGT activity in the blood serum of cattle?
a) <30 IU/litre
b) <60 IU/litre
c) <10 IU/litre
d) <80 IU/litre
b) <60 IU/litre
- Normal values of blood serum creatinine in cattle?
a) 50 – 150 mikromol/liter
b) 5 – 10 mikromol/liter
c) 50 – 70 mikromol/liter
d) 160 – 180 mikromol/liter
a) 50 – 150 mikromol/liter
- Classification of forestomach disorders as to their pathogenesis
a) Primary forestomach diseases = biochemical and motoric disorders
b) Secondary forestomach diseases = biochemical and motoric disorders
c) Forestomach diseases of metabolic and infectious origin
d) Forestomach diseases of infectious and non – infectious origin
a) Primary forestomach diseases = biochemical and motoric disorders
- Left – sided abomasal displacement/auscultation above displaced abomasum:
a) Diagnostic accuracy of 100%
b) Diagnostic accuracy of 50 – 60%
c) Diagnostic accuracy of 30 – 40%
d) Diagnostic accuracy of 90 – 95%
c) Diagnostic accuracy of 30 – 40%
- Which statement is NOT true for the ruminants hepatic diseases?
a) The laboratory changes always reflects the severity of the clinical signs
b) Liver disease in ruminants are often secondary
c) Clinical signs like the icterus are not characteristics
d) The laboratory changes never reflect the severity of the clinical signs
a) The laboratory changes always reflects the severity of the clinical signs
Symptoms of rabies in cattle/order (course) or paralysis?
a) Cranial nerve paralysis, spreading backwards from the forelegs to the hindlegs
b) Cranial nerve paralysis, followed by ascending paralysis of the limbs
c) Ascending paralysis of the limbs followed by cranial nerve paralysis
b) Cranial nerve paralysis, followed by ascending paralysis of the limbs
Shipping fever/cattle/etiology:
a) RS – virus
b) Adenovirus
c) Herpesvirus
d) Haemophilus somnus
e) Mannheimia (pateurella) haemolytica
e) Mannheimia (pateurella) haemolytica
Urolithiasis of feedlot bulls/pathogenesis?
a) Struvite in the bladder –> Obstruction of the urethra –> Rupture of the urethra
b) Struvite formation –> Cystitis, pyelitis –> nephritis –> renal failure
c) Calcium – oxalate stones in renal pelvis and bladder – nephritis, cystitis, obturation of
the urethra
d) Ca – oxalate formation –> Cystitis, pyelitis –> nephritis –>renal failure
a) Struvite in the bladder –> Obstruction of the urethra –> Rupture of the urethra
Malignant catarrhal fever/cattle/transmission from which species?
a) Sheep, goat and swine
b) Only goat
c) Only sheep
d) Sheep and goat
d) Sheep and goat
Pathogenesis of acute rumen overload and dilatation:
a) Overfeeding with rough fodder – distension of rumen – compression of diaphragm
and caudal V. cava – shock, suffocation
b) Overfeeding with grain – distension of rumen – lactacidemia – metabolic acidosis –
acidotic coma
c) Overfeeding with legumes – bloat – distension of the rumen – compression of the
diaphragm and caudal V. cava – shock, suffocation
a) Overfeeding with rough fodder – distension of rumen – compression of diaphragm
and caudal V. cava – shock, suffocation
Etiology and pathogenesis of fog fever/cattle:
a) Grazing on pasture with rich vegetation – 3 – methylindole – pulmonary edema,
emphysema
b) Animals moved to pastures in spring – lack of Mg – pulmonary edema and interstitial
emphysema
c) Feeding alfalfa – intake of 18 – S – protein – destruction of alveolar walls and
pulmonary edema
a) Grazing on pasture with rich vegetation – 3 – methylindole – pulmonary edema,
emphysema
Secondary dilatation of the forestomaches can occur in?
a) Frothy bloat, ruminal acidosis, RPT
b) Tetanus, atropine poisoning, oesophageal obturation
c) Rabies, simple indigestion, ruminal putrefaction
b) Tetanus, atropine poisoning, oesophageal obturation
Length of the course of (forestomach) diseases?
a) Peracute: 2 – 3 days, acute: 3 – 14 days, subacute: 2 – 4 weeks, chronic: >4 weeks
b) Peracute: a few hours – 2 days, acute: 3 – 14 days, subacute: 2 – 6 weeks, chronic: >
6 weeks
c) Peracute: A few hours – 2 days, acute: 3 – 14 days, subacute: 2 – 4 weeks, Chronic:
> 4 weeks
d) Peracute: 1 – 2 hours, acute 8 – 10 days, subacute: 2 weeks, chronic: >2 weeks
c) Peracute: A few hours – 2 days, acute: 3 – 14 days, subacute: 2 – 4 weeks, Chronic:
> 4 weeks
Ketone bodies in the urine are detected by:
a) Sulfosalisillic acid solution
b) Sodium nitroprusid reagent
c) 10% NaOH – solution
d) Gmelin reagent
b) Sodium nitroprusid reagent
Posterior functional stenosis/which statement is NOT true?
a) The posterior functional stenosis is characterized by the increased Cl concentration in
the rumen
b) The posterior functional stenosis occurs at the pylorus, resulting in dilatation of the
abomasum
c) The posterior functional stenosis is characterized by foamy – creamy content of
rumen, abomasum
d) The posterior functional stenosis might occur in LDA
c) The posterior functional stenosis is characterized by foamy – creamy content of
rumen, abomasum
The upper limit of ammonia in the serum of cattle is less than?
a) 60 mikromol/l
b) 40 mmol/l
c) 80 mikromol/l
d) 60 mmol/l
a) 60 mikromol/l
What are the symptoms of right abomasal displacement with torsion?
a) Acute course, severe deterioration, anorexia, atony of rumen, increased drinking,
painful abdomen, tachycardia, small amount of dark, creamy feces
b) Subacute course, lack of rumination, decreased rumen movements, constipation
c) Chronic course, painful abdomen, recumbency, dyspnoea, hepatic failure (icterus)
a) Acute course, severe deterioration, anorexia, atony of rumen, increased drinking,
painful abdomen, tachycardia, small amount of dark, creamy feces
Which parasites cause enteritis in ruminants?
a) Eimeria, Trichostrongylus, Ancylostoma spp
b) Nematodirus, Cryptosporidium, Ostertagia spp
c) Ancyclostoma, Bunostomum, Ascaris spp
d) Toxocara mystax, Dypilidium spp
b) Nematodirus, Cryptosporidium, Ostertagia spp
Oesophageal obturation/ predilectory places/cattle?
a) Behind the pharynx, middle of the thoracic part, attachment of the oesophagus to
the reticulum
b) Behind the pharynx, thoracic inlet, heart base, entrance of the cardia
c) Behind the pharynx, cranial part of the thorax heart base, attachment of the
oesophagus to reticulum
d) Middle part of the oesophagus with thick musculature, thoracic inlet, cardia
b) Behind the pharynx, thoracic inlet, heart base, entrance of the cardia
Enzooticus leukosis of cattle/Aetiology, infection?
a) Leukosisvirus/Retroviridae family infection by direct contact
b) C – type oncovirus/ Retroviridae family. Infection by blood, transplacentary
infection
c) Leukosis virus/ Lentivirus family, aerogene infection
d) Arbovirus, infection by direct contact, calves by breast milk
b) C – type oncovirus/ Retroviridae family. Infection by blood, transplacentary
infection
Physiological values of serum chloride in cattle?
a) 100 – 120mmol/l
b) 120 – 140mmol/l
c) 70 – 100mmol/l
d) 50 – 70mmol/l
a) 100 – 120mmol/l
Viral stomatitis /Aetiology/ruminants?
a) Herpesvirus, aphtovirus, Calicivirus
b) Aphtovirus, Morbillivirus, Pestivirus
c) Rhabdovirus, parapoxvirus, aphtovirus
d) Oncovirus, Morbillivirus, Orbivirus
b) Aphtovirus, Morbillivirus, Pestivirus
What can cause purulent hepatitis in cows?
a) Chronic subclinical ruminal acidosis
b) Diets high in protein and/ or non – protein nitrogen (NPN)
c) Glucocorticoid treatment
d) Bartonella henselae infection
a) Chronic subclinical ruminal acidosis
Treatment of frothy bloat?
a) Evacuation of the rumen, parasympathomimetics
b) Antifoaming agents via special gastric tube, evacuation of ruminal content in severe
cases
c) Trocarization of the rumen, laxative
d) Esophagostomy, parasympatholytics
b) Antifoaming agents via special gastric tube, evacuation of ruminal content in severe
cases
Which statement is NOT true for ruminants` hepatic parasites?
a) Is more frequent in young cows and heifers
b) The stress around parturition and anorexia are favoriting the development
c) The administration of gluconeogenetic substances is absolutely contraindicated
d) Stress around parturition and anorexia do not influence the development of the
disease
d) Stress around parturition and anorexia do not influence the development of the
disease
Upper limit of Cl in the rumen fluid?
a) <50mmol/liter
b) <30mmol/liter
c) <10mmol/liter
b) <30mmol/liter
Tricuspid insufficiency/occurrence?
a) This is a rare form of bacterial endocarditis
b) The most common congenital form as a sequel of tricuspid dysplasia
c) The most common type bacterial endocarditis in cattle
d) The most common type of viral endocarditis in cattle
c) The most common type bacterial endocarditis in cattle
Parasitic bronchitis and pneumonia/cattle(Aetiology?
a) Oslerus osleri
b) Pneumocystis carinii
c) Dictyocaulus viviparous
d) Histoplasma farciminosum
e) Dictyocaulus arnfieldi
c) Dictyocaulus viviparous
Cerebellar hypoplasia in calves can be caused by:
a) intrauterine BVD infection
b) Intrauterine IBR infection
c) Chronic lead poisoning
d) Fumosin B1 levels
a) intrauterine BVD infection
Dysphagia of viral or bacterial origin in cattle?
a) Rabies, tetanus paralysis of n.trigeminus
b) Rabies, Aujeszky`s diseases, brain stem abscess
c) Rabies, cerebrocortical necrosis, TEME
d) Leukosis, aphtovirus, Fumonisin B – 1
b) Rabies, Aujeszky`s diseases, brain stem abscess
Cause of malignant catarrhal fever in cattle
a) Pasturella multiocida
b) Pneumocystis carinii
c) Herpesvirus (OHV – 2)
d) Togavirus
c) Herpesvirus (OHV – 2)
Which statement is NOT true for ruminants` hepatic parasites
a) The most common intermediate host of Fasciola hepatica is Limnea truncatula
b) Dicrocoelium dendriticum causes traumatic hepatitis
c) Albendazole can be given both against Fasciola hepatica and Dicrocroelium
dendriticum
d) Melarsomine can be given both against Fasciola hepatica and Dicrocoelium
dentriticum
d) Melarsomine can be given both against Fasciola hepatica and Dicrocoelium
dentriticum
Normal values of serum total bile acid in cattle:
a) <120 micromol/l
b) <6 micromol/l
c) <10 mmol/l
d) <150 micromol/l
a) <120 micromol/l
Parasitic bronchitis and pneumonia/sheep/etiology:
a) Oslerus osleri, dictyocaulus arnfieldi
b) Pneumocystis carinii, histoplasma farciminosum
c) Dictyocaulus filaria, protostrongylida spp
c) Dictyocaulus filaria, protostrongylida spp
Laboratory alterations in the blood during reticuloperitonitis
a) Glutaraldehyde test + , plasmafibrinogen increased, plasmaglobulin increase
b) Glutaraldehyde test -, lymphocytosis, plasma total protein (TPP) decrease
c) Rivalta test +, serum creatinine increase, neutrophilia
d) ++ blood ammonia conc, + Donne test
a) Glutaraldehyde test + , plasmafibrinogen increased, plasmaglobulin increase
Occurrence of dilated cardiomyopathy in ruminants
a) The disease occurs in cattle
b) The disease does not occur in cattle, only in sheep and goat
c) The disease does not occur in cattle, only goats
d) The disease occurs only in sheep.
a) The disease occurs in cattle
Physiological limits of the pH in the rumen fluid
a) 6.3 – 7.1
b) 6.8 – 7.5
c) 6.5 – 7.5
d) 6.0 – 7.0
a) 6.3 – 7.1
The ruminal content (A) is characteristic for the following disease:
a) Frothy bloat
b) Anterior functional stenosis
c) Posterior functional stenosis
d) Acute rumen overload
b) Anterior functional stenosis
Causes and route of infection of pyelonephritis in cows?
a) Corynebacterium renale, only haematogen infection, inflammation of the genital
organs
b) Corynebacterium renale, mainly haematogen, rarely ascending infection
c) Corynebacterium renale, puerperal trauma of the uterus or the vagina, mainly
ascending, rarely hematogenous infection
d) Corynebacterium Israeli, mainly iatrogenic, rarely direct contact information
c) Corynebacterium renale, puerperal trauma of the uterus or the vagina, mainly
ascending, rarely hematogenous infection
Oesophageal obturation/suggested device for treatment?
a) Buff trocar
b) Thygesen probang
c) Gunther probang
d) Kaltenbock probang
b) Thygesen probang
Oesophageal obturation treatment cattle?
a) Trying to remove by hand if obstruction behind the pharynx
b) Endoscopic surgery
c) Lavage of foreign body by tube
Trying to remove by hand if obstruction behind the pharynx
Symptoms of Hoflund – syndrome/anterior functional stenosis?
a) Recurrent bloat, dilation of the rumen, ruminal content is thin liquid, no sounds can
be heard above the rumen
b) Distended left flank, rumen tympany after feeding, ruminal content is foamy, the
sounds of the rumen are weak
c) The region of the reticulum is painful, regurgitation after feeding
d) Cl ion concentration >30 mmol/l in the ruminal fluid, full rumen atony
a) Recurrent bloat, dilation of the rumen, ruminal content is thin liquid, no sounds can
be heard above the rumen
Oesophageal obturation/ common complications cattle?
a) Aspiration pneumonia
b) Secondary ruminal bloat
c) Oesophagus necrosis and perforation
d) Fatal oesophageal bleeding
b) Secondary ruminal bloat
occurrence of osteomalatia in cattle?
a) D – vitaminosis, disorder in Ca – absorption, in the months after the delivery in cows
that produces a lot of milk.
b) In case of P – dominant and D – avitaminosis, just after delivery in fat cows
c) Disorder in Ca/P maintenance, older cows, pregnancy/lactation, in endemic regions
d) C – avitaminosis, disorder in Ca absorption before parturition
c) Disorder in Ca/P maintenance, older cows, pregnancy/lactation, in endemic regions
Primary dilation of the forestomaches can occur in?
a) Frothy bloat, ruminal acidosis, ruminant putrefaction
b) Tetanus, atropine – poisoning, oesophageal obturation
c) Rumen, overload, simple indigestion, RPT
d) RPT, caecal torsion, ileus
a) Frothy bloat, ruminal acidosis, ruminant putrefaction
Viral bronchitis/viral pneumonia in cattle
a) RS virus pneumonia, viral diarrhea (VD), infectious rhinotracheitis caused by herpes
virus
b) Adenovirus, shipping fever, RS virus pneumonia
c) Viral diarrhea (VD), Infectious rhinotracheitis caused by herpes virus, lentivirus
a) RS virus pneumonia, viral diarrhea (VD), infectious rhinotracheitis caused by herpes
virus
Fog fever occurrence
a) Only in feedlot lambs
b) In adults and suckling calves
c) Only in suckling calves of grazing cows
d) Only in grazing adults
d) Only in grazing adults
What is your diagnosis?
a) Dilated cardiomyopathy
b) Tricuspid insufficiency
c) Cor pulmonale
d) Traumatic pericarditis
a) Dilated cardiomyopathy
Sheep pregnancy toxemia treatment
Early stage: Oral propylene glycol, oral Ca, K and insulin, oral calf commercial
electrolyte solutions containing glucose, late stage: Demethasone to induce
parturition
Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis (TEME) features:
a) Disease of feedlot lambs caused by adenovirus, fever, sudden neurological signs,
somnolence (sleeping diseases), coma, death within 2 days
b) Haemophilus somus disease of feedlot bulls with septicaemia, purulent pneumonia
– encephalitis; progressive apathy, opisthotonos, lateral recumbency, strabismus,
somnolence
c) Streptococcus – caused disease of calves, disorders of the respiratory organs
followed by neurological signs, somnolence (sleeping, disease) coma, death within
one week
b) Haemophilus somus disease of feedlot bulls with septicaemia, purulent pneumonia
– encephalitis; progressive apathy, opisthotonos, lateral recumbency, strabismus,
somnolence
What is typical for fog fever
Lung edema:
Fast onset, lot of animals affected
Cattle lung parasitosis is caused by:
Dictyocaulus Viviparous
What is responsible for fog fever edema ?
Switching from Poor quality pasture to lush pasture
Forage to give to correct rumen pH?
Good quality fiber containing hays
What can we not give to sheep suffering from pregnancy ketosis (toxaemia)?
Steroid (Dexamethasone) can cause abortion
Malignant catarrhal fever pathogen?
OHV-2
What is true for free gas bloat?
Diagnostic stomach tubing is a treatment option as well
Time for subclinical rumen acidosis correction?
2-3 weeks ?
Which clinical parameter is useful for early disease detection on herd level?
Milk production (faeces-t irtak a magyarok)
Which statement is true for rotation technique in case of abomasal displacement
Rapid, simple and non-invasive technique, but the incidence of recurrence is quite
high (50-70%)
Which is the therapy for frothy bloat?
Drenching, antifoaming agent, linseed, hay supplement
The collected blood which is good for Beta-hydroxy butyrate measurement…
V. coccygeal blood is appropriate
Clinical ketosis therapy .. We DO NOT use this
gamithromycin
What method is providing the abomasal life-long fixation
Non absorbable suture fixation, which can cause local peritonitis and adhesions
Rumen acidosis prevention
Rumen buffer feeding
In case of periparturient paresis therapy, calcium is recommended this way
IV
Subclinical ketosis diagnosis
BHB concentration measurement from peripheral blood
What is the characteristics of Hannover method?
Standing position, right flank laparotomy
Drugs used during therapy of acute rumen acidosis…
Mg - oxide (500 g PO)
Rumen PH
Good quality fibre containing haylage
Calves enzootic bronchopneumonia…
Multifactorial disease
Acute rumen acidosis clinical signs
Kussmaul type dyspnoea
Which is not a notifiable disease?
Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
Subclinical hypocalcemia symptoms
Decreasing the amount of milk during lactation
Clinical hypocalcemia (parturient paresis) therapy
Ca-borogluconate IV
Subacute rumen acidosis, ruminal pH
5,5-6,5
What we can NOT give in case of pregnancy ketosis in sheep
Steroids, because of abortion
Lung/pulmonary oedema characteristic?
sudden , multiplied onset
Pathogen of destructive rhinitis
o OHV-1
o OHV-2 (Herpesvirusà Malignant catarrhal fever)
o OHV-3
o OHV-5
OHV-2 (Herpesvirusà Malignant catarrhal fever)
What is responsible for the development of grazing pulmonary edema? (fog fever/ABPEE)
o Switching from poor quality pasture to rich pasture (increase of proteins in feed)
o Lupinus spp. in the hay
o C. perfringens
o Bovine parainfluenza virus
Switching from poor quality pasture to rich pasture (increase of proteins in feed)
What treatment would you use for foamy fermentation bloating?
o Sounding, foaming, flaxseed, hay supplementation
o Probing, drinking 5 liters of 10% vinegar
o Feed withdrawal for 3 Days
o No treatment, euthnasia
Sounding, foaming, flaxseed, hay supplementation
What is characteristic of grazing pulmonary edema?
o Sudden formation, may affected animals) (sudden onset, only adults)
o Chronic course
o Only young animal affected
o High fever
o Sudden formation, may affected animals) (sudden onset, only adults)
Enzoonotic bronchopneumonia in calves
o Chronic disease
o Spontaneous recovery from higher fever
o Complex pathological disease
o Usually associated with hypothermia
o Complex pathological disease
Which statement is false about enzootic pneumonia in calves?
o Multifactorial disease
o Predisposing factors play a major role in its development
o Always an acute disease
o Brochodilators
o Always an acute disease
What is not subject of notification?
o Sheep-goat smallpox
o Is the sticky lung of cattle
o Scabies
o Infectious bovine laryngitis and tracheitis
o Infectious bovine laryngitis and tracheitis
Gentle feeding to restore rumen pH?
- Easily fermentable carbohydrates in large quantities
- Feeding sugars (e.g. molasses)
- It is mainly hay containing high quality fibers
- Industrial by-products eg. extracted soybean meal
- It is mainly hay containing high quality fibers
Substance formed from carbohydrates during rumen digestion?
- Volatile fatty acids
- Ketone substances
- Long chain fatty acids
- Fats
- Volatile fatty acids
Peripheral blood for measuring beta-hydroxy butyric acid?
- Arterial blood only in a closed blood collection system
- Only the v. blood collected from jugularis
- Blood taken from the tail vein is suitable for measurement
- If peripheral blood is not suitable, blood should be taken from the central vein
- Blood taken from the tail vein is suitable for measurement
Which clinical parameter is useful for early detection of the disease on herd level?
- Brinal condition
- Milk production
- Majority
- Anorexia
- Milk production
In subacute rumen acidosis, the pH range of the rumen is
- 2.2 - 2.3
- 3.3 - 3.4
- 4.4 - 5.5
- 5.5-6.5
- 5.5-6.5
Time required to restore subclinical rumen acidosis
- 1 day
- 3-5 days
- 2-3 weeks
- 2-3 months
- 2-3 weeks
Clinical signs of acute rumen acidosis?
- Occasionally Kussmaul -type dyspnoea
- Tachycardia
- Nystagemus
- Exsiccoiss
- Occasionally Kussmaul -type dyspnoea
Drugs used in the treatment of acute rumen acidosis?
- MgOxide (500g, p.os)
- Fluid therapy depending on the degree of dehydration (Drench or iv)
- Rumen transfusion
- Ionophore antibiotic therapy p.os
- Fluid therapy depending on the degree of dehydration (Drench or iv)
Prevention of rumen acidosis
- Feeding of high lignite feeds
- Feeding rumen buffers
- Propylene glycol intake
- Ammonium chloride diet
- Feeding rumen buffers
Not used in the therapy of clinical ketosis?
- gluconeoplastic substances
- glucose
- glucocorticol
- gamithromycin
- gamithromycin
Primary acute tympany (bloat)
What is true for free gas bloat?
- Excessive amounts of butterfly green fodder can also cause feeding
- When foaming, little foamy content can be obtained
- Probing and medical treatment are also available for diagnostic purposes
- His prognosis is unfavorable
- Probing and medical treatment are also available for diagnostic purposes
Peripartal insulin resistance in ruminants:
- Can be measured under stable conditions by HEC test
- The derived index, which can be measure on the basis of the blood parameters is indicated by, for example RQUICK
- If the blood sugar level is less than 3 mmol/liter
- It develops 3 months after calving
- The derived index, which can be measure on the basis of the blood parameters is indicated by, for example RQUICK
Diagnosis of subclinical ketosis?
- Measurement of BHB concentration from peripheral blood
- Determination of RQUICKI derived value
- measurement of insulin from peripheral blood
- determination of non-esterified fatty acids (NEFA) from peripheral blood
- Measurement of BHB concentration from peripheral blood
In the treatment of calving paralysis (milk fever), the administration of calcium compounds is recommended
as follows
- Oral
- Intraperitoneal
- Subcutaneously
- Intravenously
- Intravenously
Symptoms of subclinical hypoglycemia
- causes bed rest
- does not cause bed rest
- Diseases around childbirth become more common
- May reduce the amount of milk produced during lactation
- Diseases around childbirth become more common
Treatment of clinical hypocalcemia (calving paralysis):
- Calciumgluconat iv
- Ca-phosphate per os
- Ca-sulfate iv
- Ca-nitrate iv
- Calciumgluconat iv
What is the consistency of the ruminal content in case of anterior functional stenosis?
- Foamy, cream-like
- watery
- doughy
- solid
foamy cream like
Which orifice is the cause of blocked passage in the case of posterior functional stehosis?
- Reticulo-abomasal orifice
- Cardia
- Pylorus
- Reticulo-omasal orifice
Pylorus
What is the consequence of the ruminal reflux?
- In all cases, it causes rumen acidosis
- Hyperchloraemia
- The concentration of Cl-ion in the rumen increases
- Metabolic acidosis
The concentration of Cl-ion in the rumen increases
Which solution is preferred to use in abomasal displacement?
- Hannover method
- Ventral paramedian abomasopexia
- Utrecht method
- Laparoscopy (1 step form)
- Laparoscopy (1 step form)
Which statement is true for rolling technique in case of abomasal displacement?
- Fast, simple and invasive technique, but the changes of repeated inoculation of the stomach are high
(50-70%)
- rapid, simple and invasive technique, but the changes of repeated inoculation of the stomach are low
(5-7%)
- rapid, simple and invasive technique, but the changes of repeated vaccination stomach position
changes are low (5-7%)
- Rapid, simple and non-invasive technique, but the incidence of recurrence is quite high (50-70%)
- Rapid, simple and non-invasive technique, but the incidence of recurrence is quite high (50-70%)
What method is providing the abomasal life-long fixation
- Fastening with non-absorbent thread
- Fastening with absorbent thread
- Fixation with non-absorbable thread, which causes local peritonitis and then adhesions
- Fixation with non-absorbable thread, which causes general peritonitis and then congestion
- Fixation with non-absorbable thread, which causes local peritonitis and then adhesions
What is characteristic of the Hanoverian method used to resolve the abomasal displacement?
- Upright, paramedian laparotomy
- Standing left flank laparotomy
- Standing right flank laparotomy
- Pseudo 6, but does not apply laparotomy
Standing right flank laparotomy
What is the consequence of abomasal displacement?
- Metabolic acidosis
- Hyperchloraemia
- Hypokalaemia
- Paradox alkaluria
- Hypokalaemia
Which anesthesia technique results in scoliosis?
- Distal lumbar paravertebral nerve block
- Proximal lumbar paravertebral nerve block
- Inverted L paralumbar anesthesia
- Epidural anesthesia
- Proximal lumbar paravertebral nerve block
Which vertebra is the last palpable transverse process belong to in a cow?
- L4
- L3
- L5
- L6
L5
Which nerves (N) are blocked with the use of proximal lumbar paravertebral anaesthesia?
- NT13, NL1 and NL2
- NL1, NL2 and NL3
- NT13, NL1 and NL3
- NT13, NL2 and NL3
- NT13, NL1 and NL2
What is the place of low caudal epidural anesthesia?
- Between the last sacral (S5) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1)
Between the last sacral (S4) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1)
- Between the last sacral (S6) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1)
- Between the first (C1) and second coccygeal vertebrae (C2)
- Between the first (C1) and second coccygeal vertebrae (C2)
Which of these statements is true for xylazine in cattle?
- Horses are 10 times more sensitive to xylazine than cattle
- A cow is as sensitive as a horse
- Cattle is 10 times more sensitive to xylazine than horses
- None of them is true
- Cattle is 10 times more sensitive to xylazine than horses
Which is not true for flunixin?
- Sedative
- Analgesic
- Anti-pyretic
- Anti-endotoxin
Sedative
What are the benefits of combining lidocaine with xylazine during epidural anesthesia?
- Response delayed 1 to 2 hours
- Excellent anesthesia in a smaller area
- No sedation along with the anesthesia
- None of them
- None of them
In which species do you expect to see the side effects of lidocaine?
- Cow
- Small ruminants
- Both of them
- None of them
- Small ruminants
What is NOT a physiological narrowment of the soft birth canal
- The bifurcation
- The cervix
- The remaining tissue of the hymen
- The vulva
- The bifurcation
How do we get the direction of the traction (linea directiva)?
- We add the half point of the half point of the vertical diameters of the pelvis
- We connect the highest and the lowest point of the pelvis
- We take the force showing from the half point of the vertical dimeters of the pelvis to the tuber
ischiadicum
- The force from the deepest point of the pelvis showing to tuber isciadicum
- We add the half point of the half point of the vertical diameters of the pelvis
Which cattle corpus luteum is called mature corpus luteum?
- Above 3mm
- Above 5-10 mm
- Above 17- 20mm
- Above 35-45mm
- Above 17- 20mm
The presence of the fetus is
- The size of the fetus
- The ratio between the maternal and the fetal pelvical diameter
- The presentation, the position and the posture of the fetus
- The vital signs of the fetus
- The presentation, the position and the posture of the fetus
The presentation of the fetus means
- The situation of the head and the extremities to the body of the fetus
- The maternal spinal axis to that of the fetal spinal axis
- The fetus placement in the maternal abdominal cavity
- The longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the fetus
- The longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the fetus
Normal presentation is
- Ventral oblique
- Longitudinal posterior
- Ventral back
- Harms’s presentation
- Longitudinal posterior
The overall prognosis of abnormal presentation
- In horses good, in cattle guarded
- In cattle good, in horses guarded
- In every species it’s good
- In every species it’s guarded or bad
- In every species it’s guarded or bad
or
in cattle good, in horses guarded
The normal position is
- Dorsal upright
- Ventral upright
- extended position
- Flexed position
- Dorsal upright
The posture of the fetus is normal if
- Extended before parturition
- Extended at parturition
- Flexed at parturition
- Always flexed
- Extended at parturition
Abnormal posture of the fetus
- Ventral abdominal
- Dorsal abdominal
- Oblique abdominal
- Oblique abdominal
It is true to cattle twin pregnancy?
- Most twin pregnancies are monozygotic
- Occurrence of twins are 25% related to all birth
- Usually, they are occurring from the ovulation of co-dominant follicles
- Twins are less likely to abort
- Usually, they are occurring from the ovulation of co-dominant follicles
The cause of the rising rate of cattle twin pregnancy
- The wide use of reproductive hormones through to be cause
- The increased milk production
- The effect of some special cattle breeds it thought to be the cause
- Rigorous genetic connection is though to cause
- The increased milk production
What is the loss rate in cattle pregnancies between day 30 and 60 (100% is the number of pregnant animals
at day 30)?
- 25-35%
- 35-45%
- 15-25%
- 5-15%
- 35-45%
Prognosis of the displacement of the pregnant uterus
- Good
- Moderate
- Guarded
- Poor
- Moderate
Choose the CORRECT statement from the followings, concerning to uterine torsion of the cow
- Precervical tosion can be diagnosed with vaginal palpation
- Postcervical torsion can be palpated with vaginal palpation
- Precervical torsion can only be palpated via rectal palpation
- By manual palpation we cannot diagnose uterine torsion
- Precervical torsion can only be palpated via rectal palpation
What is the basis of obstetrical lubricants?
- NADP
- Methyl-malonil-coenzym A
- Methyl-cellulose
- Metil. Starch
- Methyl-cellulose
What is the general incision technique for CS in a cow?
a) Skin and subskin –> internal oblique muscle –> external oblique muscle –> transverse muscle –>peritoneum → abdominal cavity
-b) Skin and sub skin –> external oblique muscle –>internal oblique muscle → transverse muscle–> peritoneum –> abdominal cavity
c ) Skin and subskin –> transverse muscle –> internal oblique muscle –> external oblique muscle –> peritoneum –> abdominal cavity
d) Skin and subskin –> transverse muscle –> external oblique muscle –> internal oblique muscle –> peritoneum –> abdominal cavity
-b) Skin and sub skin –> external oblique muscle –>internal oblique muscle → transverse muscle–> peritoneum –> abdominal cavity
In what position would a C-section or a rumenotomy be performed in cattle in most cases?
- In lateral recumbency using right flank approach
- In standing restraint using right flank approach
- In lateral recumbency using left flank approach
- In standing restraint using left flank approach
- In standing restraint using left flank approach
In standing restraint using left flank approach
- Horizontal
- Vertical
- Oblique: caudo-ventral
- None of them
- Unilateral hip flexion
- Oblique: caudo-ventral
Not a consequence of low blood carotene level in cattle
- Impaired milk production
- Decreased hair growth
- Impaired immune function
- Bad reproductive parameters
- Decreased hair growth
Not a possible cause of placental retention
- Lack of uterine contractions postpartum e.g; hypocalcemia
- Detachment disorder due to placental oedema e.g; infectious causes
- Certain mechanic causes eg; septum in the vagina
- High blood carotene level peripartum.
- High blood carotene level peripartum.
Cattle retained placenta
- Is diagnosed after 2-4hours after calving
- Is diagnosed after 12-24 hours after calving
- Is diagnosed after 1-6h after calving
- Is diagnosed after 48-72h after calving,.
- Is diagnosed after 12-24 hours after calving
Which drugs can be used in the therapy of the bacterial complications of cattle involution?
- Antibiotics
- Uterine relaxing drugs
- NSAIDS
- Immuno modulation drugs
- Antibiotics
Which statement is not true to cattle metritis?
- Fever is always a clinical sign
- Reddish- brown discharge from the vagina characterizes the disease
- Enlarge uterus is characterizing the disease
- Peripheral shock is always characterizing the disease
- Peripheral shock is always characterizing the disease
Which is the following IS true regarding the activity of cows
- It decreases around the time of calving
- It increases in lame animals
- It increases significantly in animals in heat
- It is not affected by diseases
- It increases significantly in animals in heat
Which of the following parameters shows an increase before calving?
- Activity
- Reticuloruminal pH
- Reticulioruminal temperature
- Rumination time
Activity
Which of the following is NOT routinely used for the detection of rumination in cows?
- Abdominal harness
- Reticuloruminal bolus
- Neck collar sensor
- Ear-tag senors
- Abdominal harness
Which of the following diseases does not cause a decrease in rumination time?
- Pneumonia
- LDA
- Puerperal metritis
- Subclinical mastitis
- Pneumonia
Which of the following is false for reticuloruminal temperature?
- It is affected by heat stress
- Is increases in milk fever
- It increased if the animal has fever
- It has a circardian rhythm.
- Is increases in milk fever
which anaesthesia technique results in scoliosis
Distal lumbar paravertebral nerve block
Proximal lumbar parabertebral nerve block
Inverted l lumbar anaesthesia
Epidural anaaesthesia
Proximal lumbar parabertebral nerve block
which of these statements is true for xylazine in cattle
horses are 10times more sensitive to xylazine than cattle
A cow is as sensitive as a horse
Cattle are 10times more sensitive to xylazine than horses
None of the above is true
Cattle are 10times more sensitive to xylazine than horses
what are the benefits of combining lidocaine with xylazine during epidural anaesthesia
response delayed 1-2 hours
Excellent anaesthesia in a smaller area
No sedation along with anaesthesia
None of the above
None of the above
next to which vertebrae should lidocaine be injected in case of distal paralumbar anaesthesia
L1, L2, L3
L1, L2, L4
L2, L3, L4
L2, L3, L5
L1, L2, L4
what causes scoliosis during proximal paravertebral anaesthesia
anaesthesia of m. latissimus dorsi
Loss of muscle tone in abdomen
Incorrectly administered injection
Anaesthesia of m. longissmus dorsi
Anaesthesia of m. longissmus dorsi
which statement is not true about TIVA in cattle
preferred to regional/local anaesthesia because it is easy to dminister due to large, easily accessible veins
High chance of regurgitation calls for 24hrs of fasting
Few drugs are permitted to use in production animals
The dose is influenced by the metabolic state of the animal
A
in what position would a c-section or a rumenotomy be performed in cattle in most cases
a)in lateral recumbency using right flank
b)In standing restraint using right flank approach
c)In lateral recumbency using left flank approach
D)In standing restraint using left flank approach
D)In standing restraint using left flank approach
during ruminal fermentation carbohydrates degrade into
Volatile fatty acids
Ketone bodies
Long chain fatty acids
fats
VFA
nutrition for recovering the pH the rumen
Easily fermentable carbohydrates in large among
Sugars feeding
Hays with good quality fibres
Extrahated soybean - seed
Hays with good quality fibres
what is true for free gas bloat
Overfeeding of alfalfa hay can easily cause is
At ruminal tubing, only small amount of frothy content can be obtained
The diagnostic tubing is a treatment option as well
Prognosis is poor
The diagnostic tubing is a treatment option as well
which treatment would you use in case of froathy bloat
Ruminal tubing, anti foaming agent, lineseed, hay
Ruminal tubing, 5liter, 10% vinegar drinking
Feed restriction for 3 days
No treatment, euthanasia
Ruminal tubing, anti foaming agent, lineseed, hay
which clinical parameter is useful for early detection of disease at the herd level
Feces condition
Milk production
Depression
Loss of appetite
milk production
diagnosis of subclinical ketosis
Measurement of BHB concentration from peripheral blood
RQUIICKI calculated index calculation
Insulin measurement form peripheral blood
Non esterified fatty acid measurement from peripheral blood
measuremnet of BHB conc from peripheral blood
we do not use this in the treatment of clinical ketosis
Gluconeoplasitc materials
Glucose
Glucocorticoid
gamithromycin
gamithromycin
what is the medication that is not advised for ewes in case of pregnancy toxaemia
Dextrose because it cannot enter to gluconeogenesis
Gcc because is can induce abortion
B1 vitamin, because is can damage fetal development
Hay because it auses obstruction in the colon
Gcc because it can induce abortion
this peripheral blood can be used for the measurement of beta hydroxy butyrate
Only arterial blood in closed blood collection system
Only blood from the jugular vein is applicable
Blood collected from the tail vein is suitable
Peripheral blood is not acceptable, central vein must be used
Blood collected from the tail vein is suitable
in the treatment of milk fever the administration of calcium compounds is advised in the following route
Po
Intraperitonteally
Subcut
iv
IV
subclinical hypocalcaemia
Causes downer cow syndrome
Not causing downer cow
Increases the occurrence of some peripartal diseases
Can negatively effect the amount of milk in the whole lactation
Causes downer cow syndrome
which of the following is not a cause of acute haemorrhagic anaemia in ruminants
Traumatic haematomas
Severe bleeding
Coccidiosis
dic
? coccidiosis?
which os the following infectious diseases does not cause hemolytic anemia in ruminants
Haemoncosis
Babesiosis
Theileriosis
anaplasmosis
haemoncosis
which of the following is a congenital heart disease
Endocarditis
Cardiac arrhythmias
Reticulopericarditis
Fallot tetralogy
Fallot tetralogy
which of the following is not part of the pathogenesis of diarrhoea
Endotoxins
Decreased peristaltic movements in the bowels
Osmotic effects
enteritis
Decreased peristaltic movements in the bowels
which of teh following is not a consequence of diarrhoea
Extrarenal uraemia
Dehydration
Loss of electrolytes
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic alkalosis
or
Extrarenal uraemia
which of the following is true for paratuberculosis
Chronic progression
Disease of calves
Suddenly worsening clinical condition
Caused by Corynebacterium paratuberculosis
Chronic progression
the presence of the foetus is
The size of the foetus
The ratio between the maternal and the fetal pelvic diameter
The presentation, the position and the posture of the fetus
The vital signs of the fetus
normal presentation in ruminants is
Ventral oblique presentation
Ventral back
Longitudinal anterior
Harms presentation
longitudinal anterior
the overall prognosis of abnormal presentation
In horses good, in cattle, guarded
In cattle good, in horses guarded
In every species its good
In every species is guarded or bad
In cattle good, in horses guarded
the position of the foetus is
The situation of the head and the extremities to the body of the fetus
The longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the fetus
The maternal spinal axis to that of the fetal spinal axis
The fetus placement in the maternal abdominal cavity
The longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the fetus
the posture of teh foetus is normal is
Extended before partuition
Extended at parturition
Flexed at parturition
Always flexed
extended at partuition
abnormal posture of the bovine foetus
Ventral abdominal
Dorsal abdominal
Oblique abdominal
Unilateral hip flexion
oblique abdominal
choose the correct statement from the following, concerning to uterine torsion of teh cow
Precervical torsion can be diagnosed with vaginal palpation
Postcervical torsion can be palpated with vaginal palpation
Percervical torsion can only be palpated via rectal palpation
By manual palpation we cannot diagnose uterine torsion
Percervical torsion can only be palpated via rectal palpation
prognosis of the displacement of the pregnant uterus
Good
Moderate
Guarded
poor
what is the consequence of abomasal displacement
Metabolic acidosis
Hyperchloraemia
Hypokalaemia
Paradox alkauria
Hyperchloraemia
the treatment of clinical hypocalcaemia
Ca borogluconate iv
Ca phosphate po
Ca sulphate iv
Ca nitrate iv
Ca borogluconate iv
