RT 3000 Final Exam Flashcards
T or F: A clinical trial protocol is a formal document that clearly describes the details of a proposed research study.
True.
A clinical trial protocol is a formal document that outlines the details of a proposed research study, including its objectives, design, methodology, participant eligibility criteria, and data collection procedures, ensuring the safety of participants and the integrity of the data collected.
T or F: A Phase 1 clinical trial usually involves more than 100 subjects (participants).
False.
During Phase 1 studies, researchers test a new drug in normal volunteers (healthy people). In most cases, 20 to 80 healthy volunteers or people with the disease/condition participate in Phase 1.
A Phase 2 clinical trial usually involves more than 100 subjects (participants)- NOT PHASE 1.
Phase II studies determine the effectiveness of an experimental drug on a particular disease or condition in approximately 100 to 300 volunteers. This phase may last from several months to two years. A Phase II trial answers the question, “Does Drug X improve Disease Y?”
T or F: A retrospective study involves the review of patient medical records.
True.
A retrospective study analyzes existing data, which in the medical field often means reviewing patient medical records, also called “chart reviews”.
T or F: Phase 2b trials are sometimes called pilot trials.
False.
Phase IIa studies are usually pilot studies designed to find an optimal dose and assess safety (‘dose finding’ studies). Phase IIb studies determine how well the drug works in subjects at a given dose to assess efficacy (‘proof of concept’ studies).
“Phase II trials can be subdivided into Phase IIa and Phase IIb; the former is essentially a pilot study involving a limited number (∼50) of participants, whereas the latter will often recruit several hundred epilepsy patients. This subdivision allows for protocol amendment and optimization.”
T or F: Long-term safety and effectiveness of a new treatment would be evaluated in Phase 3 clinical trials.
True.
Phase 3 trials are used to collect more information about how safe a drug is and how well it works. Phase 3 trials will often compare an experimental treatment with the current standard of care to see if it works as well or better, or has fewer side effects, than what is already available to patients.
T or F: TSI treatment is delivered in preparation for a bone marrow transplant.
False.
TBI (Total Body Irradiation) is delivered in preparation for a bone marrow transplant.
While both TSI (Total Skin Irradiation) and TBI (Total Body Irradiation) are forms of radiation therapy, the key difference is that TSI only targets the skin surface, while TBI delivers radiation to the entire body, including internal organs, making TSI significantly less invasive and primarily used for skin cancers like mycosis fungoides, while TBI is typically used as preparation for a bone marrow transplant to suppress the immune system before receiving donor cells.
T or F: A benefit of using Strontium-89 is that high radiation doses can be given to bone metastases with minimal doses to soft tissue.
True.
“Radiopharmaceutical agents can also be used for the palliation of metastatic bone disease. Strontium-89 ans Samarium-153 have been shown to provide pain relief for patients with matastatic prostate carcinoma and, in some cases, with breast cancer that is metastatic to the bone.” - Pg 575 in Washington (4th edition)
T or F: To eliminate bias in clinical trials, study subjects may be allowed to choose the treatment assignment in which they wish to participate.
False.
To eliminate bias, clinical trials use randomization to randomly assign patients to treatment groups.
Randomization helps to ensure that the treatment a patient receives is not systematically connected to their prognosis. This helps to prevent selection bias, which can occur when the treatment a patient receives is influenced by factors other than the treatment itself.
T or F: Health care providers caring for LDR implant patients must limit direct care time to 30 minutes per shift.
True
“Limit contact with the client for 5 minutes each time, a total of 30 minutes per 8-hour shift”
T or F: Patients who have multiple, painful, metastatic lesions may benefit from single dose Hemibody irradiation.
True.
https://www.onclive.com/view/a-comprehensive-review-of-hemibody-irradiation-for-patients-with-bone-metastases
T or F: TSI treatment may be administered using electrons or x-rays.
False.
TSI (Total Skin Irradiation) is administered using electrons because the goal of treatment is to only treat the surface level of the body (the skin) and not the internal organs.
Total skin electron beam therapy (TSEBT) is a radiation treatment for the whole surface of your skin. It is used to treat cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL) and/or mycosis fungoides (MF), a type of lymphoma that affects the skin.
In TSEBT, a type of radiation is used, called electrons. This beam goes into the first 1-2 centimeters of your body. This treats the skin while limiting radiation to other tissues and organs.
T or F: Most cancer pain can be eliminated by non-opioid medications, such as NSAIDs.
False.
While non-opioid medications like NSAIDs can manage mild to moderate cancer pain, for more severe cancer pain, opioids are often necessary to effectively eliminate pain.
T or F: A stellate ganglion block is an injection of local anesthetic to block the sympathetic nerves located on either side of the voice box in the neck.
True.
A stellate ganglion block is an injection of local anesthetic specifically targeting the sympathetic nerves situated on either side of the voice box in the neck.
T or F: Many patients believe that pain is an expected and inevitable consequence of their cancer.
True.
Patients may fail to report cancer pain if they expect that pain is an inevitable consequence of cancer, if they believe that pain is a useful indicator of disease activity, or if they fear that symptom discussions will shift the professional’s focus away from the treatment of disease.
T or F: A patient’s pain has both a physical and emotional component.
True.
T or F: Allodynia is an over-sensitivity to stimulus, such as touch.
True.
Allodynia is defined as “pain due to a stimulus that does not normally provoke pain.” An example would be a light feather touch (that should only produce sensation), causing pain.
T or F: Brain swelling is treated with the steroid medication Decadron.
True.
Steroids are hormones produced by the adrenal glands that are used to reduce brain swelling. The steroids used to treat brain tumors are not the same as those used by athletes. The most common steroid is dexamethasone (Decadron®). Prednisone may also be used.
T or F: Handwashing is the most important mechanism of preventing and controlling nosocomial infections.
True.
According to the CDC and other health organizations, handwashing (or more broadly, “hand hygiene”) is considered the single most important practice for preventing the spread of infections, including nosocomial infections, in healthcare settings.
T or F: The parenteral route of drug administration bypasses the gastrointestinal system.
True.
The parenteral route refers to administering liquids, such as nutrition or medications, by bypassing the gastrointestinal system.
T or F: Suppositories can only be used to administer medications rectally.
False.
Suppositories are a medication dosage form. They’re placed or inserted into the rectum, vagina, or urethra.
T or F: Non-sterile gloves and linens that fall on the floor can be picked up and used as long as they are not used on patients with open sores or infections.
False.
T or F: Patients who take Metformin should discontinue taking the medication 48 hours prior to administration of barium contrast.
False.
Patients taking Metformin should typically discontinue the medication at the time of or before receiving intravenous contrast, not barium contrast, and should not take it for at least 48 hours afterwards due to the potential risk of kidney damage from the contrast agent, which could lead to lactic acidosis associated with Metformin use.
Barium contrast is not typically associated with the need to stop Metformin
as it is administered orally and does not significantly affect kidney function like intravenous contrast.
T or F: Nonionic contrast does not contain iodine.
False.
Nonionic contrast does contain iodine; it is a type of iodinated contrast media, meaning the contrast agent is based on iodine, but it is classified as “nonionic” due to its chemical structure which does not dissociate into charged particles when injected, leading to fewer side effects compared to ionic contrast.
T or F: An emergency situation commonly associated with an allergic reaction to contrast media is hypovolemic shock.
False.
Hypovolemic shock is a medical emergency that occurs when the body loses too much blood or fluids, making it difficult for the heart to pump enough blood to the body. If left untreated, it can lead to organ damage, multiple organ failure, and death.
T or F: Cancer modifies the way the body metabolizes carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
True.
“Malignant tumors can alter enzyme activity and immune system. Cancer alters energy expenditure and basal metabolism, which resilts in changes in carbohydrate, lipid, and protein metabolism.”
T or F: PICC lines facilitate the administration of chemotherapy treatments.
True.
A PICC (peripherally inserted central catheter) line is used to give chemotherapy or other treatments. A PICC line is a long, thin, hollow, flexible tube.
T or F: Chest tube drainage receptacles should be kept on the patient’s bed or bedside table in order to prevent them from being tipped over.
True.
Chest tube drainage receptacles should be kept on the patient’s bed or bedside table to prevent them from being accidentally tipped over, as they must always be positioned below the patient’s chest level to facilitate proper drainage.
T or F: A properly placed PEG-J tube terminates in the jejunum.
True.
A PEG-J tube (percutaneous endoscopic gastrojejunostomy) is a tube that is placed through the skin of the abdomen into the stomach, and through the stomach into the small intestine (jejunum). The PEG-J tube contains two tubes in one.
T or F: A balloon must be inflated at the tip of a urinary catheter once it is inserted into the bladder to ensure proper catheter placement.
True.
A balloon at the tip of a urinary catheter, often called a Foley catheter, is inflated once it is inside the bladder to secure its position and prevent it from slipping out.
The inflated balloon acts as an anchor within the bladder, holding the catheter in place.
T or F: Cachexia is associated with a poor prognosis in cancer patients.
True.
Cachexia accounts for 20% of all cancer-related deaths and is a sign of poor prognosis.
T or F: Generic and trade names must be unique to prevent one drug from being confused with another.
True.
Generic and brand names must be unique to prevent one drug from being mistaken for another when drugs are prescribed and prescriptions are dispensed. To prevent this possible confusion, the FDA must agree to every proposed brand name.
T or F: Patients receiving pelvic or abdominal irradiation have less side effects if they try to maintain their normal eating habits and continue to follow their regular diet.
False.
Depending on the severity of side effects, patients may need to adjust their diet by eating smaller meals more frequently, choosing low-fiber foods, limiting greasy foods, and staying hydrated.
T or F: Health care associated infections are the 2nd leading cause of death in the U.S.
False.
Nosocomial infections are the 8th leading cause of death in the U.S.
T or F: If a patient has a seizure, the HCP should put a mouth guard in the patient’s mouth to prevent injury to the tongue and teeth.
False.
T or F: A CVA occurs when there is an occlusion of the blood supply to the brain.
True.
A CVA, which stands for “cerebrovascular accident” or stroke, occurs when blood flow to the brain is blocked, essentially meaning an occlusion of the blood supply to the brain.
T or F: Cord compressions that occur at C-3 or above are not life-threatening.
False.
Cord compressions at C-3 or above are considered life-threatening because they can affect the nerves controlling breathing, potentially causing respiratory failure if not treated immediately.
T or F: Radiation therapy is considered the definitive therapy for spinal cord compressions.
True.
The definitive treatment options for a patient presenting with MSCC are surgery, radiotherapy or symptom control.
T or F: The best treatment for postural hypotension is to have the patient begin walking immediately.
False.
For mild orthostatic hypotension (postural hypotension), one of the simplest treatments is to sit or lie back down immediately after feeling lightheaded upon standing.
T or F: Ultrasound is commonly used to diagnosis bone metastases.
False.
T or F: Epilation refers to the reddening of the skin in response to radiation exposure.
False.
Erythema refers to the reddening of the skin in response to radiation exposure.
Epilation refers to hair loss, not skin reddening, which is called erythema; both are potential effects of radiation exposure, but epilation specifically means hair loss.
T or F: A double contrast barium enema requires the administration of both barium and air.
True.
A double contrast barium enema involves injecting both barium (a contrast liquid) and air into the colon to create a better visualization of the colon wall during an X-ray examination; the “double contrast” refers to the different appearances of the barium and air on the X-ray image.
T or F: Paracentesis removes fluid from the peritoneum for analysis.
True.
Paracentesis is a procedure that drains excess fluid called ascites from your abdomen. Ascites occur when fluid collects in a membrane called your peritoneum.
Peritoneal fluid is the fluid in the cavity space between the wall of the abdomen and organs. Analysis of ascetic fluid post paracentesis is of diagnostic value in patients with new onset ascites. Causes of interest are those of suspected infection (bacterial peritonitis) and of suspected malignancy.
A paracentesis is a procedure that involves removing ascitic fluid from the peritoneal cavity using a sterile technique.
T or F: An IVP is an exam that visualizes lungs.
False.
An intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is an x-ray examination of the kidneys, ureters and urinary bladder that uses iodinated contrast material injected into veins.
T or F: The Universal Protocol was established by the Joint Commission as a component of the National Patient Safety Goals.
True.
The Joint Commission established the Universal Protocol as a part of their National Patient Safety Goals, specifically designed to prevent wrong site, wrong procedure, and wrong person surgery.
The Universal Protocol outlines key steps like pre-procedure verification, surgical site marking, and a “time-out” procedure to ensure patient safety during surgical interventions, making it a crucial component of the National Patient Safety Goals.
T or F: Patients with severe skin reactions may need to have their treatment temporarily discontinued.
True.
T or F: An endoscope is a device used to perform bronchoscopy, laryngoscopy or colonoscopy.
True.
An endoscope is a device that goes inside your body to take pictures or videos of organs and other structures.
Bronchoscopy is a type of endoscopy. Like all endoscopic procedures, it’s a way for your doctor to see inside your body without surgery.
T or F: Cystoscopy is done to visualize the inside of the urinary bladder.
True.
A cystoscopy is a medical procedure where a doctor uses a thin, lighted tube called a cystoscope to examine the inside of the urinary bladder and urethra.
This procedure is often used to diagnose conditions like bladder infections, bladder stones, or bladder cancer.
T or F: Radiation side effects may occur at lower doses if the patient has had chemotherapy in addition to radiation therapy.
True.
Radiation side effects can occur at lower doses when a patient has undergone chemotherapy in addition to radiation therapy. This is because chemotherapy can sensitize tissues to radiation, making them more vulnerable to damage. This phenomenon is known as radiosensitization, and it is a common consideration in combined treatment plans for cancer.
T or F: The percent of weight change is the most accurate measure of nutritional status.
True.
”% of weight changes is the most accurate measure of nutritional status” - Slide 21 of Patient Assessment Lecture
T or F: The normal range of hemoglobin for men is higher than for women.
True.
The normal range of hemoglobin is generally higher for men than for women. This difference is due to factors such as hormonal variations, particularly the effects of testosterone, which stimulates red blood cell production. Typical hemoglobin ranges are approximately:
Men: 13.8–17.2 g/dL
Women: 12.1–15.1 g/dL
T or F: Conscious sedation induces an altered state of consciousness without interfering with cardiac and respiratory function.
True.
Conscious sedation, also known as moderate sedation, induces an altered state of consciousness where the patient remains awake and responsive but relaxed and free from pain or anxiety. When administered correctly, it typically does not interfere significantly with cardiac or respiratory function. However, careful monitoring is essential, as some individuals may experience mild effects on these systems depending on the sedative used and their underlying health conditions.
T or F: The normal heart rate for children and infants is lower than for adults.
False.
The normal heart rate for children and infants is higher than that of adults. Infants and young children have faster metabolic rates and smaller hearts, which require a higher heart rate to maintain adequate blood circulation. Typical heart rate ranges are:
Infants (0–1 year): 100–160 beats per minute (bpm)
Children (1–10 years): 70–120 bpm
Adults: 60–100 bpm
T or F: All side effects from radiation therapy are treated in a standard fashion by all physicians.
False.
Side effects from radiation therapy are not treated in a standard fashion by all physicians. The management of side effects is highly individualized and depends on factors such as the type, location, and dose of radiation, as well as the patient’s overall health and specific symptoms. Physicians tailor treatments to address each patient’s unique needs, which may include medications, lifestyle modifications, or supportive therapies. Additionally, clinical guidelines may vary, and physician preferences or expertise can influence treatment approaches.
T or F: Moist desquamation is a more severe skin reaction than erythema.
True.
Moist desquamation is a more severe skin reaction than erythema.
Erythema is an earlier, milder skin reaction to radiation, characterized by redness, warmth, and possible mild discomfort due to increased blood flow in the affected area.
Moist desquamation occurs when the skin’s outer layer breaks down, leading to weeping, exposed dermis, and increased risk of infection. It typically develops after prolonged or high-dose radiation exposure.
Management of moist desquamation often requires more intensive care to promote healing and prevent complications.
T or F: Cervical dysplasia is considered to be a risk factor for cervical cancer.
True.
Cervical dysplasia, which refers to abnormal changes in the cells of the cervix, is considered a significant risk factor for cervical cancer. While not all cases of cervical dysplasia progress to cancer, it can develop into cervical cancer if left untreated, especially in cases of high-grade dysplasia.
The primary cause of cervical dysplasia is persistent infection with high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly HPV types 16 and 18. Early detection through Pap smears and HPV testing is crucial for managing cervical dysplasia and reducing the risk of progression to cervical cancer.
T or F: Changes in vital signs can indicate medical problems a patient may be having.
True.
Changes in vital signs—such as heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, and temperature—can indicate underlying medical problems or changes in a patient’s condition. For example:
Elevated temperature may signal an infection.
Tachycardia (increased heart rate) could indicate pain, fever, dehydration, or cardiac issues.
Hypotension (low blood pressure) might suggest shock or blood loss.
Changes in respiratory rate can reflect respiratory distress or metabolic imbalances.
Monitoring and interpreting vital signs is essential for detecting and addressing potential health concerns promptly.
T or F: An excisional biopsy of the breast is commonly known as a lumpectomy.
True.
An excisional biopsy of the breast is commonly referred to as a lumpectomy. This procedure involves surgically removing a lump or abnormal tissue from the breast, often for diagnostic purposes or as part of treatment for breast cancer. While the term “lumpectomy” is typically used in the context of removing cancerous or suspicious tissue, the goal of an excisional biopsy is to obtain a definitive diagnosis by removing the entire lesion for pathological examination.
T or F: Normal pulse for an adult is 60-90 beats/min
True.
“Normal pulse for an adult is 60-90 beats/min”- Slide 17 in Vital Signs lecture
T or F: Tachycardia is defined as a HR>100 BPM.
True.
Tachycardia is defined as a heart rate (HR) greater than 100 beats per minute (BPM) in adults. It can occur due to various factors, such as fever, stress, anemia, dehydration, or underlying heart conditions. The specific threshold for tachycardia may vary slightly depending on the context, but a rate above 100 BPM is generally considered tachycardic in a resting adult.
T or F: The normal breathing rate for a resting adult is 20 - 25 breaths/minute.
False.
The normal breathing rate for a resting adult is typically 12-20 breaths per minute. Rates above 20 breaths per minute may indicate tachypnea, which can be a sign of conditions like fever, anxiety, or respiratory distress. Conversely, a rate below 12 breaths per minute could indicate bradypnea, which might be associated with conditions such as respiratory depression.
T or F: Leukoplakia is a possible symptom of oral cancer.
True.
Leukoplakia, which refers to white patches or plaques that form on the mucous membranes of the mouth, is a possible symptom of oral cancer. While leukoplakia itself is often benign, it can sometimes indicate precancerous changes or be associated with oral cancer, especially if the patches are persistent, thickened, or show signs of ulceration. It is important for individuals with leukoplakia to be evaluated by a healthcare provider to rule out or address any potential cancerous or precancerous conditions.
T or F: A radiation therapist may administer oxygen anytime he/she feels a patient is having trouble breathing.
False.
A radiation therapist is not typically authorized to administer oxygen unless they are specifically trained and the situation is within their scope of practice. Oxygen administration generally requires a physician’s order or approval, and it should be done according to established medical protocols. If a radiation therapist observes a patient having trouble breathing, they should promptly notify the appropriate medical staff (such as a nurse or physician) to assess the situation and determine the necessary intervention.
T or F: Risk factors for prostate cancer include age and family history.
True.
Risk factors for prostate cancer include age and family history. As men age, their risk of developing prostate cancer increases, with most cases occurring in men over the age of 50. A family history of prostate cancer, especially if close relatives (such as a father or brother) have had the disease, also increases the risk. Other factors, such as race (with higher rates in African American men), diet, and lifestyle, can also influence the likelihood of developing prostate cancer.
T or F: Patients receiving radiation therapy to the abdominal and pelvic areas should be advised to eat a diet high in fiber to reduce the incidence of diarrhea.
False.
Patients receiving radiation therapy to the abdominal and pelvic areas are typically advised to follow a low-fiber diet, not a high-fiber diet, during treatment. This is because radiation can irritate the gastrointestinal tract, and a low-fiber diet helps to reduce bowel irritation, gas, and diarrhea. High-fiber foods can be more difficult to digest and may exacerbate symptoms like diarrhea. Once the treatment is completed and symptoms improve, patients can gradually return to a normal diet, including fiber. Always, dietary recommendations should be personalized based on the patient’s condition and treatment plan.
T or F: A bone marrow aspiration is another term for bone marrow biopsy.
False.
A bone marrow aspiration and a bone marrow biopsy are two distinct procedures, though they are often performed together.
Bone marrow aspiration involves using a needle to withdraw a small sample of liquid bone marrow, typically from the hip bone, to examine the cells.
Bone marrow biopsy involves removing a small piece of solid bone marrow tissue, often using a larger needle, to assess the structure of the marrow.
Both procedures are used to diagnose conditions like leukemia, anemia, or other blood disorders, but they provide different types of information.
T or F: Signs are objective evidence of disease.
True.
Signs are objective evidence of disease that can be observed or measured by a healthcare provider, such as a rash, fever, or abnormal heart sounds. Unlike symptoms, which are subjective experiences reported by the patient (like pain or fatigue), signs are observable and measurable indicators of a medical condition.
T or F: Depression is probably underdiagnosed and undertreated in cancer patients.
True.
T or F: Keeping irradiated skin dry and free from friction helps reduce the risk of moist desquamation.
True.
Keeping irradiated skin dry and free from friction can help reduce the risk of moist desquamation, which is a severe skin reaction that can occur after radiation therapy. Moist desquamation involves the breakdown of the skin’s outer layers, leading to open sores and weeping skin. To prevent this, it’s important to avoid excessive moisture, friction, and irritation in the treated area. Gentle skin care, including the use of mild cleansers and avoiding tight clothing or harsh rubbing, can help protect the skin and minimize the risk of complications.
T or F: Hydrocortisone creams/lotions may be applied to irradiated skin at the patient’s discretion immediately prior to the daily radiation treatment being given.
False.
Hydrocortisone creams or lotions should not be applied to irradiated skin immediately prior to radiation treatment without the guidance of a healthcare provider. While hydrocortisone can help reduce inflammation, applying it right before radiation therapy may interfere with the skin’s response to the treatment or cause further irritation. It’s important for patients to follow specific skincare instructions provided by their radiation oncologist or healthcare team, as certain creams or lotions may need to be avoided before treatment to prevent complications.
T or F: Acute reactions to radiation therapy usually resolve themselves within 4-6 weeks after completing treatment.
True.
Acute reactions to radiation therapy, such as skin irritation, fatigue, or gastrointestinal discomfort, typically resolve within 4-6 weeks after completing treatment. These reactions occur because radiation affects healthy tissues as well as cancerous ones. While the acute side effects may be temporary, it’s important for patients to follow their healthcare provider’s recommendations for managing symptoms during and after treatment. In some cases, side effects may persist longer or lead to chronic issues, requiring further medical attention.
T or F: Radiation recall dermatitis (reaction) occurs when radiation therapy is administered to an area of the skin that has already been irradiated.
True.
Radiation recall dermatitis is a skin reaction that occurs when radiation therapy is administered to an area of the skin that has previously been irradiated. This reaction can be triggered by chemotherapy or certain medications, which cause the skin in the previously irradiated area to become inflamed, red, or irritated. The reaction typically develops a few days or weeks after the new treatment and can range from mild to severe.
T or F: Head and neck patients receiving radiation to their mouth should clean their mouths frequently to maintain good oral hygiene.
True.
Head and neck cancer patients receiving radiation to the mouth should clean their mouths frequently to maintain good oral hygiene. Radiation therapy can lead to dry mouth (xerostomia), increased risk of infection, and other oral complications. Regular mouth care, including gentle brushing with a soft toothbrush, rinsing with water or a saline solution, and using fluoride treatments as recommended by the healthcare provider, can help reduce the risk of oral infections, cavities, and discomfort. It’s important for patients to follow specific oral care guidelines provided by their healthcare team.
T or F: Thrush is a yeast infection that occurs in the oral mucosa.
True.
Thrush is a yeast infection caused by the overgrowth of Candida fungus, commonly affecting the oral mucosa. It results in white, creamy lesions on the tongue, inner cheeks, gums, or roof of the mouth. Thrush is more common in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those undergoing radiation therapy or chemotherapy. It can also occur in patients with dry mouth, diabetes, or those taking certain medications like antibiotics or corticosteroids.
T or F: The Radiation Therapist Standards of Practice is published by the American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT).
True.
The Radiation Therapist Standards of Practice is published by the American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT). These standards outline the professional and ethical responsibilities of radiation therapists, ensuring high-quality care and safe practices in radiation therapy. They serve as a guide for the education, practice, and professional development of radiation therapists.
T or F: Charges of medical negligence can be made if a patient is not given enough information prior to a medical procedure in order to make a responsible decision about his own care.
True.
Charges of medical negligence can be made if a patient is not given enough information prior to a medical procedure to make an informed decision about their own care. This is a violation of the informed consent process, which requires healthcare providers to explain the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a procedure in a way that the patient can understand. If a patient is not adequately informed and suffers harm as a result, it may constitute medical negligence or malpractice.
T or F: Practice Standards define the role of the practitioner and establish criteria used to judge performance.
True.
Practice standards define the role of the practitioner and establish criteria used to judge performance. These standards outline the expectations for professional behavior, competencies, and quality of care within a specific field. They serve as a guideline for practitioners to follow in their daily work and are also used to evaluate their performance to ensure safe, effective, and ethical practice.
T or F: Individuals with an external locus of control believe that certain things, like their health, are beyond their control.
True.
Individuals with an external locus of control believe that outcomes, including their health, are largely influenced by external factors such as luck, fate, or the actions of others, rather than by their own efforts or decisions. They may feel that they have little control over events in their lives, including their health or well-being. In contrast, individuals with an internal locus of control believe they have the power to influence outcomes through their own actions and decisions.
T of F: Grief is a normal emotional response to a loss.
True.
T or F: Effectively communicating with a patient requires listening carefully and responding to the patient’s underlying message.
True.
T or F: Patients have the right to decline participation in medical research.
True.
T or F: Values are expressed in behaviors, language and the standards of conduct a person endorses or tries to maintain
True.
Values are indeed expressed in behaviors, language, and the standards of conduct a person endorses or tries to maintain. They influence how individuals make decisions, interact with others, and prioritize various aspects of their lives. A person’s values often guide their actions and reflect what they consider important, whether in personal relationships, work, or social settings.
T or F: Certification is a voluntary method of quality assurance of the services and
operations of an institution.
True.
Certification is a voluntary method of quality assurance that involves an institution or organization meeting specific standards set by an accrediting or certifying body. It demonstrates that the institution or service provider has met or exceeded established quality benchmarks, often in areas like safety, professionalism, and operational effectiveness. While certification is not legally required, it is a way to ensure that services are provided at a high standard and can help build trust with patients or clients.
T or F: The American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT) is the accreditation body for radiation therapy educational programs.
False.
The American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT) is not the accreditation body for radiation therapy educational programs. The ARRT is responsible for certifying and registering radiologic technologists, including those in radiation therapy, after they have completed an accredited program.
The accreditation body for radiation therapy educational programs is the Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic Technology (JRCERT). JRCERT is responsible for accrediting radiation therapy programs and ensuring they meet the required educational standards.
T or F: If a person’s private legal rights have been violated, civil law applies.
True.
If a person’s private legal rights have been violated, civil law applies. Civil law deals with disputes between individuals or organizations, where one party seeks compensation or remedy for harm caused by the actions of another. This can include issues like breach of contract, property disputes, or violations of personal rights, such as defamation or negligence. In contrast, criminal law addresses offenses against the state or society, where the government prosecutes the accused.
T or F: A radiation therapist cannot be held liable for a criminal act in his/her professional practice because the physician is ultimately responsible for the actions of the radiation therapist.
False.
A radiation therapist can be held liable for a criminal act in their professional practice. While the physician may have a role in supervising the treatment, the radiation therapist is still responsible for their own actions and can be held accountable for any criminal behavior or malpractice that occurs during the course of their work. This includes adhering to legal and ethical standards in their practice. Both the physician and the radiation therapist have individual responsibilities to ensure patient safety and comply with the law.
T or F: The student is personally liable for violations of the HIPAA regulations whether they occur in open access areas, the classroom, the clinic, or in course written assignments.
True.
The student is personally liable for violations of HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) regulations, regardless of where the violations occur, whether in open access areas, the classroom, the clinic, or in course written assignments. HIPAA requires all individuals handling protected health information (PHI) to maintain confidentiality and follow privacy regulations. Students, like healthcare professionals, are responsible for safeguarding patient information and can be held accountable for any breaches of confidentiality, even if they occur outside of direct patient care settings.
T or F: All mobile and remote devices that contain confidential information or ePHI including home computers should be password protected.
True.
All mobile and remote devices that contain confidential information or electronic Protected Health Information (ePHI), including home computers, should be password protected. This is essential for maintaining the security and confidentiality of sensitive data, as required by HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act). Password protection, along with other security measures such as encryption, ensures that unauthorized individuals cannot access or disclose ePHI, reducing the risk of data breaches and ensuring compliance with privacy regulations.
T or F: Consequences for noncompliance with the HIPAA regulation include both Civil and Criminal penalties.
True.
Consequences for noncompliance with HIPAA regulations can include both civil and criminal penalties.
Civil penalties are typically imposed for violations due to negligence and can include fines ranging from hundreds to thousands of dollars per violation, depending on the severity and number of violations.
Criminal penalties are more severe and apply to intentional violations of HIPAA, such as accessing or disclosing ePHI without authorization. These penalties can include fines and, in more serious cases, imprisonment.
The level of penalty depends on factors like the nature of the violation and whether it was committed knowingly or with malicious intent.
T or F: It a violation of HIPAA regulations for a student to view a patient’s chart when there is no need related to the patient’s care or valid medical or educational reason to view the chart.
True.
It is a violation of HIPAA regulations for a student to view a patient’s chart without a valid medical, educational, or care-related reason. HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) mandates that access to protected health information (PHI) must be limited to individuals who need it to perform their job or educational duties. Viewing a patient’s chart without a legitimate reason constitutes unauthorized access, which can result in serious penalties, including disciplinary action, fines, and potential legal consequences.
T or F: Criminal penalties for violating HIPAA include: $50,000 fine and 1-year prison for knowingly obtaining and wrongfully sharing information.
True.
Criminal penalties for violating HIPAA include a $50,000 fine and up to 1 year in prison for knowingly obtaining and wrongfully sharing protected health information (PHI). These penalties apply when an individual intentionally accesses or discloses PHI without authorization. The severity of the penalty can increase depending on the nature of the violation, with higher fines and longer prison sentences for more egregious offenses, such as those involving intent to sell or misuse the information.
T or F: A vocation is defined as a group of people in a learned occupation, the members of which agree to abide by specified rules of conduct when practicing.
False.
A profession is defined as a group of people in a learned occupation, the members of which agree to abide by specified rules of conduct when practicing.
The core meaning of “vocation” is a person’s individual calling or strong sense of purpose in a career, often with a connotation of higher meaning or societal value.
T or F: Beneficence and nonmaleficence are different terms for the same principle.
False.
Beneficence and nonmaleficence are related but distinct ethical principles.
Beneficence refers to the obligation to do good, promote the well-being of others, and take actions that benefit patients or individuals. It emphasizes the positive duty to help and improve others’ situations.
Nonmaleficence refers to the obligation to do no harm and avoid causing injury or suffering to others. It emphasizes the negative duty to prevent harm.
While both principles aim to protect and improve the well-being of individuals, they focus on different aspects of ethical behavior in healthcare and other professions.
T or F: When conducting research on humans it is important to identify them by using their full names.
False.
When conducting research on humans, it is not important to identify them by using their full names; instead, ethical practice usually involves using pseudonyms or identifiers to protect participant confidentiality and anonymity.
When conducting research on humans, it is important to protect their privacy and confidentiality. Identifying participants by their full names is generally avoided to ensure their anonymity and protect sensitive information. Researchers typically use coded identifiers or pseudonyms to maintain confidentiality and comply with ethical standards and regulations like HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) and IRB (Institutional Review Board) guidelines. Full names should only be used when absolutely necessary and with the participant’s consent.
A patient who is experiencing pain from bone metastases may be prescribed a(n):
analgesic
anesthesia
corticosteroid
antihistamine
anti-inflammatory
Analgesic
A patient who is experiencing pain from bone metastases may be prescribed an analgesic.
Analgesics are medications specifically designed to relieve pain. For bone metastases, analgesics like opioids or non-opioid pain relievers may be prescribed, depending on the severity of the pain. In some cases, corticosteroids may also be used to reduce inflammation and swelling, which can help alleviate pain. However, analgesics are the primary treatment for pain management.
Swelling of the head, neck and upper extremities, skin discoloration and dyspnea are all signs of:
spinal cord compression
increased cranial pressure
pulmonary emboli
superior vena cava syndrome
Superior vena cava syndrome
The signs of swelling of the head, neck, and upper extremities, skin discoloration, and dyspnea are indicative of superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS).
SVCS occurs when there is a blockage or compression of the superior vena cava, the large vein that carries blood from the upper body to the heart. This condition can lead to symptoms such as swelling in the upper body, difficulty breathing (dyspnea), and skin discoloration due to impaired blood flow. It is often associated with cancers, particularly lung cancer or lymphoma, that can compress or invade the superior vena cava.
A patient who is hospitalized receiving total body irradiation (TBI) in preparation for a bone marrow transplant will be placed in:
droplet precautions isolation
strict isolation
contact precautions isolation
airbone precautions isolation
protective isolation
Protective isolation
A patient who is hospitalized and receiving total body irradiation (TBI) in preparation for a bone marrow transplant will be placed in protective isolation.
Protective isolation (also known as reverse isolation) is used to protect immunocompromised patients, such as those undergoing bone marrow transplants, from infections. Since TBI can significantly weaken the immune system, protective isolation helps reduce the risk of infection by limiting exposure to potential pathogens.
Cancer patients might consider participating in a clinical trial to:
Access promising new interventions.
Reduce treatment costs.
Take an active role in their own health care.
All of the above
All of the above
Phase (. ) clinical trials use randomized prospective controlled studies to compare a new treatment intervention with the current standard of care.
1
2
3
4
3
Phase 3 clinical trials use randomized prospective controlled studies to compare a new treatment intervention with the current standard of care.
These trials are designed to gather more comprehensive data on the effectiveness and safety of a new treatment in a larger patient population, often involving multiple centers. If the results are positive, Phase 3 trials provide the evidence needed for regulatory approval of the new treatment.
All of the following statements are true about study protocols except:
They are written agreements between the investigator, participants, and the scientific community.
They include a description of the study’s purpose and rationale.
They define how the study will be carried out.
They are kept confidential and shared only with researchers.
They are kept confidential and shared only with researchers.
The statement that is not true about study protocols is:
“They are kept confidential and shared only with researchers.”
Study protocols are typically shared with relevant regulatory bodies, ethics committees, and other stakeholders, such as funding agencies or institutional review boards (IRBs), to ensure that the study meets ethical and scientific standards. While certain details may be confidential, the protocol is generally not kept solely within the research team. It is intended to be transparent and subject to review by various oversight entities.
All of the following statements about an informed consent for a clinical trial are correct except:
discusses the individual’s rights as a research subject
participation is mandatory once the consent is signed
states alternative treatments
describes risks and benefits
Participation is mandatory once the consent is signed.
The statement that is not correct about an informed consent for a clinical trial is:
“Participation is mandatory once the consent is signed.”
Participation in a clinical trial is voluntary and can be withdrawn at any time, even after the consent is signed. Signing the informed consent does not mean the participant is obligated to continue with the trial. The consent process is meant to ensure that participants are fully informed about the study’s risks, benefits, and alternatives, and that they understand their right to withdraw at any point without penalty.
Quality-of-life or supportive care trials include research on interventions to manage the following:
Treatment adverse effects
Psychological, spiritual and emotional concern related to cancer and treatment
End of life issues
all of the above
All of the above
In Clinical research article, Dr. Beecher gave example of unethical research
Withholding of readily available effective treatment from study participants
Administering potentially unsafe therapies to subjects without diseases.
Inducing diseases in otherwise healthy study participants.
All of the above
All of the above
Benefits to using hyperthermia include:
Heat is effective on hypoxic cells
Heat enhances repair of radiation therapy damage
Heat increases tumor vascularity
a and b only
a and c only
All of the above
a and c only
Benefits to using hyperthermia include:
Heat is effective on hypoxic cells: Hyperthermia can make hypoxic (low oxygen) tumor cells more sensitive to radiation therapy, as heat can improve oxygenation and make these cells more susceptible to treatment.
Heat increases tumor vascularity: Hyperthermia can increase blood flow to the tumor, improving the delivery of oxygen and chemotherapy agents, which can enhance the effectiveness of treatments.
However, heat does not enhance the repair of radiation therapy damage. In fact, heat can sometimes impair the repair of radiation-induced damage, making it more effective in combination with radiation.
Total Skin Irradiation is usually used to treat advanced cases of:
multiple sites of bone metastasis
superior vena cave syndrome
mycosis fungoides
acute lymphocytic leukemia
Mycosis fungoides
Total Skin Irradiation (TSI) is usually used to treat advanced cases of mycosis fungoides.
Mycosis fungoides is a type of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, a cancer that primarily affects the skin. TSI is used to deliver radiation to the entire skin surface to treat this condition, especially in advanced stages where localized treatments are not effective.
Hemibody irradiation may be used to treat:
multiple sites of bone metastasis
superior vena cave syndrome
mycosis fungoides
acute lymphocytic leukemia
Multiple sites of bone metastasis
Hemibody irradiation may be used to treat multiple sites of bone metastasis.
Hemibody irradiation is a form of radiation therapy that targets one half of the body, typically used for patients with widespread bone metastases. This treatment helps to reduce pain and control the spread of cancer to multiple areas of the body. It is not typically used for superior vena cava syndrome, mycosis fungoides, or acute lymphocytic leukemia.
Total body irradiation may be used as treatment for:
multiple sites of bone metastasis
superior vena cave syndrome
mycosis fungoides
acute lymphocytic leukemia
Acute lymphocytic leukemia
Total body irradiation (TBI) may be used as treatment for acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL).
TBI is often part of the conditioning regimen before a bone marrow or stem cell transplant for patients with certain cancers, including ALL. It helps to destroy cancerous cells and suppress the immune system to prepare the body for the transplant. TBI is not typically used for multiple sites of bone metastasis, superior vena cava syndrome, or mycosis fungoides.
Clinical presentation of Radiation Induced Fibrosis (RIF):
Ulceration
Lymphedema
Excessive energy
a & b
a and b
The correct answer is a & b (Ulceration and Lymphedema).
Radiation-induced fibrosis (RIF) is a common late side effect of radiation therapy, where the affected tissues become stiff and scarred over time. The clinical presentation of RIF can include:
Ulceration: This can occur in areas where the skin or mucosal tissues have been irradiated and become damaged over time.
Lymphedema: Radiation can damage the lymphatic system, leading to fluid buildup and swelling, particularly in the affected area.
Excessive energy is not typically associated with RIF.
Radiation Induced Brachial Plexopathy (RIBP) symptoms:
Paralysis
Lymphedema
Sensory Pain
a, b & c
a, b, & c
The correct answer is a, b & c (Paralysis, Lymphedema, and Sensory Pain).
Radiation-induced brachial plexopathy (RIBP) is a condition caused by radiation damage to the brachial plexus, a network of nerves controlling the arm and hand. Symptoms of RIBP can include:
Paralysis: Loss of movement or weakness in the arm or hand due to nerve damage.
Lymphedema: Swelling due to lymphatic system disruption, which can occur in the arm or shoulder area.
Sensory Pain: Pain, numbness, or tingling sensations in the arm or hand as a result of nerve damage.
These symptoms can vary in severity depending on the extent of the radiation damage.
This type of pain is often characterized by a burning shock sensation:
Somatic
Visceral
Neuropathic
The correct answer is Neuropathic.
Neuropathic pain is often characterized by a burning, shock-like, or tingling sensation. It results from damage to the nerves themselves, and can be caused by various conditions, including radiation therapy, diabetes, or nerve injury. This type of pain is distinct from somatic pain (which is related to injury to tissues like muscles or skin) and visceral pain (which originates from internal organs).
The term that refers to the need for a larger dose of pain medication to be given to achieve the same amount of pain relief is:
tolerance
dependence
addiction
The correct term is tolerance.
Tolerance refers to the need for a larger dose of a medication over time to achieve the same level of pain relief, as the body becomes accustomed to the drug. This can occur with medications like opioids, which are commonly used for pain management.
Dependence refers to the physical adaptation to a drug, where withdrawal symptoms occur if the drug is suddenly reduced or stopped.
Addiction involves psychological and behavioral patterns, where a person may compulsively seek and use the drug despite negative consequences.
The term that refers to the craving of opioids for psychological reasons instead of pain relief is:
tolerance
dependence
addiction
The correct term is addiction.
Addiction refers to the psychological craving for a substance, such as opioids, even when the original reason for use (like pain relief) is no longer present. This can lead to compulsive use and seeking of the drug, despite harmful consequences.
Tolerance refers to needing larger doses of the drug to achieve the same effect.
Dependence refers to physical reliance on the drug, where withdrawal symptoms occur if the drug is stopped or reduced.
The term that refers to physical symptoms (abstinence syndrome) that occur from withdrawal of opioids is:
tolerance
dependence
addiction
The correct term is dependence.
Dependence refers to the physical symptoms (abstinence syndrome) that occur when an individual reduces or stops using opioids after prolonged use. These symptoms can include sweating, shaking, nausea, and other discomforts associated with withdrawal.
Tolerance refers to the need for increasing doses of the drug to achieve the same effect.
Addiction involves the psychological craving and compulsive use of the drug, often despite negative consequences.
Opioids may be administered:
PO
Continuous Infusion
Patch
PCA
All the above
The correct answer is All the above.
Opioids can be administered through various methods, including:
PO (Oral): Opioids can be taken by mouth in the form of tablets, capsules, or liquid.
Continuous Infusion: Opioids can be delivered continuously through an intravenous (IV) infusion, often in a hospital setting for pain management.
Patch: Some opioids, such as fentanyl, can be delivered through a transdermal patch, providing continuous pain relief over a period of time.
PCA (Patient-Controlled Analgesia): PCA allows patients to administer their own doses of opioid medication via an IV pump, providing control over pain management while preventing overdose.
These methods offer flexibility in pain management depending on the patient’s needs and clinical situation.
The federal law that Governs the labeling, availability and dispensing of drugs in the U.S. is called the:
The Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of 1938
CFR Title 45, part 46
The Controlled Substance Act of 1971
a & c
The correct answer is: The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938.
The federal law that governs the labeling, availability, and dispensing of drugs in the U.S. is called the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of 1938. While the Controlled Substances Act of 1971 regulates specific controlled substances, the broader oversight of drug labeling and availability falls under the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act.
The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 governs the labeling, availability, and dispensing of drugs in the U.S. It established requirements for drug safety, labeling, and approval processes for new drugs.
The Controlled Substances Act of 1971 regulates the manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of drugs that have the potential for abuse, such as opioids and other controlled substances.
CFR Title 45, part 46 pertains to the protection of human subjects in research and is not directly related to the labeling or dispensing of drugs.
Research studies that review data collected in the past are termed:
past cohorts’ studies
baseline surveys
prospective series
retrospective studies
case series
The correct answer is retrospective studies.
Retrospective studies review and analyze data that have already been collected in the past. These studies typically look back at historical data, such as medical records or previous surveys, to find correlations or patterns related to a particular condition or treatment.
Past cohorts’ studies is not a commonly used term in research.
Baseline surveys refer to data collected at the start of a study, often for comparison with future data.
Prospective series involves collecting data going forward in time, starting from the point of the study.
Case series refers to a descriptive study of a group of patients with a particular condition, often without a control group.
The institution that accredits educational programs in radiation therapy is:
ARRT
ASRT
CAHEA
JRCERT
AHA
JRCERT
Cancer patients need to get adequate nutrition during treatment to:
Promote tissue healing
Fight infection
Improve quality of life
Maintain strength
All of the above
All of the above
Which if the following is a criterion for a profession according to Chitty?
A vital service is provided to society
Education takes place in an institution of higher learning
Practitioners are accountable and responsible
A professional organization oversees and supports standards of practice
All of the above
The correct answer is All of the above.
According to Chitty, the criteria for a profession include:
A vital service is provided to society: Professions contribute significantly to the well-being of society.
Education takes place in an institution of higher learning: Professionals typically receive specialized education in accredited institutions.
Practitioners are accountable and responsible: Professionals are held to high standards of accountability and responsibility in their practice.
A professional organization oversees and supports standards of practice: A professional organization is responsible for establishing and maintaining standards of practice within the field.
These elements collectively define a profession.
In the context of library science and research, what does “TIAB” stand for?
“TIAB” stands for “Title/Abstract,” which is a search term used in databases like PubMed to limit search results to only include articles where the specified keywords appear in the title and abstract of the publication.
In the context of library science and research, what does “MeSH” stand for?
Medical Subject Heading
The Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) thesaurus is a controlled and hierarchically-organized vocabulary produced by the National Library of Medicine.
In the context of library science and research, what does “CDSR” stand for?
Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews
The Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews (CDSR) is a leading resource for high-quality, evidence-based health care research. It contains systematic reviews of primary research in human health care and policy, and is part of the Cochrane Library, which is widely used by researchers, clinicians, and policymakers to inform decisions based on the best available evidence.
(. ) protect radiologic science students by ensuring that educational programs they attend meet standardized criteria.
accreditation agencies
certification bodies
professional societies
state licensure laws
federal regulatory agencies
The correct answer is accreditation agencies.
Accreditation agencies protect radiologic science students by ensuring that the educational programs they attend meet standardized criteria. These agencies evaluate and accredit programs based on established educational standards, ensuring quality and consistency in training. This helps students receive a comprehensive education that prepares them for professional practice in radiologic science.
All of the socially transmitted behavior patterns, arts, beliefs, and products of human work and thoughts by a particular population is termed:
race
culture
institution
ethnicity
class
The correct answer is culture.
Culture refers to all the socially transmitted behaviors, beliefs, arts, customs, and products of human work and thought that are characteristic of a particular population or society. It encompasses language, traditions, values, norms, and practices that are passed down from one generation to the next.
Groups of people classed according to common racial, national, tribal, religious, or linguistic origin or background is referred to as:
race
ethnicity
culture
class
institution
The correct answer is ethnicity.
Ethnicity refers to groups of people who are classed according to common racial, national, tribal, religious, or linguistic origin or background. It focuses on shared cultural practices, traditions, and a sense of belonging to a particular group.
A population that differs from others in the relative frequency of some gene or genes is referred to as:
race
ethnicity
culture
class
institution
The correct answer is race.
Race refers to a population that differs from others in the relative frequency of some gene or genes. It is often associated with physical characteristics such as skin color, facial features, and hair type, but it is important to note that race is a social construct with no distinct biological basis.
When a patient arrives daily for treatment and doesn’t stop a radiation
therapy procedure from taking place, this is considered:
Implied consent
Express consent
Ignorant consent
Inadequate consent
None of the above
The correct answer is Implied consent.
Implied consent occurs when a patient agrees to a procedure through their actions, such as showing up for a scheduled treatment and not objecting to it. In this case, the patient’s continued participation in the treatment process is interpreted as consent, even though they haven’t explicitly stated it.
HIPAA Privacy and Security Rules cover any information, whether oral or recorded in any form or medium, that is written by:
Health care providers
Health plans
Health care clearinghouses
All of the above
All of the above
In which circumstance listed below, could battery, an intentional tort, be charged by a patient:
incorrect labeling of radiographs which could lead to a surgical error
filling a syringe with the incorrect contrast media and handing to the physician for use in a procedure
administering treatment against a patient’s will
leaving an unconscious patient alone on the table from which he falls
The correct answer is administering treatment against a patient’s will.
Battery is an intentional tort that occurs when physical contact is made with a person without their consent. Administering treatment against a patient’s will, such as performing a procedure or giving medication without consent, would constitute battery.
The other options, while potentially involving errors or negligence, do not directly involve the intentional physical contact or violation of consent that defines battery.
The responsibility for obtaining informed consent from the patient belongs to:
the physician
the nurse
the radiation therapist
the receptionist
The correct answer is the physician.
The physician is primarily responsible for obtaining informed consent from the patient. This involves explaining the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives, ensuring that the patient understands the information, and giving their voluntary consent. While other healthcare professionals, such as nurses or radiation therapists, may assist in the process or provide additional information, the ultimate responsibility for obtaining informed consent lies with the physician.
The acronym for HIPAA represents the terms:
Health Insurance Providers Accountability Act
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
Health Information Privacy and Accountability Act
Health Insurance Providers Accreditation Act
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
The primary purpose of HIPAA is to:
Provide security and privacy to individuals with insurance claims.
Protect individuals’ medical records and other personal health information.
Protect businesses involved in health care
The correct answer is Protect individuals’ medical records and other personal health information.
The primary purpose of HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) is to protect the privacy and security of individuals’ medical records and other personal health information. HIPAA sets national standards for the protection of health information, ensuring that sensitive data is kept confidential and secure, both in physical and electronic forms.
What Are the Patient’s Rights under HIPAA?
The Right to Individual Privacy
The Right to Expect Health Care Providers Will Protect These Rights
Patients have the right to inspect and copy their PHI.
*All of the above
All of the above
Your patient believes that her privacy rights have been violated. You advise her to:
Let you handle the issue
Contact an attorney immediately
Submit a complaint to the privacy official where the breach occurred.
Submit a complaint to the privacy official where the breach occurred.
Students can help ensure that technical safeguards are in place on hospital
information systems by:
Never bypassing or disabling antivirus software
Not installing personal software onto hospital system computers
Not downloading internet software or own antivirus software
All of the above
All of the above
Physical actions involved in the unequal treatment of people belonging to a certain category, group or race is called:
ethnocentrism
bias
cultural competency
discrimination
The correct answer is discrimination.
Discrimination refers to the unequal treatment or actions taken against people based on their belonging to a certain category, group, or race. It involves physical actions, behaviors, or practices that treat individuals unfairly based on characteristics such as race, ethnicity, gender, or other factors.
Laws that are created from court decisions are an example of:
Constitutional law
Statutory law
Case law
The correct answer is Case law.
Case law is created from court decisions and judicial rulings. It is also known as common law and evolves over time as courts interpret and apply laws in specific cases. These decisions can set precedents that influence future legal rulings.
Constitutional law refers to laws derived from the Constitution.
Statutory law refers to laws created by legislative bodies, such as statutes or acts.
Medical malpractice is an example of:
criminal law
constitutional law
civil law
street law
The correct answer is civil law.
Medical malpractice is a type of civil law case, where a patient sues a healthcare provider for negligence or failure to meet the standard of care, resulting in harm or injury. Civil law deals with disputes between individuals or entities, and the goal is typically to compensate the injured party rather than to punish the wrongdoer, which distinguishes it from criminal law.
The measure of the total number of particles in solution per kilogram of water is called:
opacity
lucency
viscosity
osmolality
none of the above
The correct answer is osmolality.
Osmolality is the measure of the total number of particles (such as ions, molecules, or atoms) in a solution per kilogram of solvent (typically water). It is used to describe the concentration of solute particles in a solution, which is important in various physiological and chemical processes.
Vaccines are usually administered via which route?
intradermal
subcutaneous
intramuscular
intrathecal
The correct answer is intramuscular.
Vaccines are most commonly administered via the intramuscular route, where the vaccine is injected into the muscle, typically in the upper arm (deltoid) or thigh. Some vaccines can also be given subcutaneously or intradermally, depending on the type of vaccine, but intramuscular injection is the most common method.
The easiest route of drug administration is:
intramuscular
subcutaneous
oral
intradermal
oral
Powdered medication contained in a gelatin shell is called a:
Group of answer choices
capsule
caplet
suspension
tablet
suppository
The correct answer is capsule.
A capsule is a form of medication that contains powdered or liquid medication inside a gelatin shell. It is designed to be swallowed whole and dissolves in the stomach to release the medication.
A patient who is experiencing nausea and vomiting from radiation and chemotherapy might be prescribed a(n):
antimetabolite
analgesic
anticonvulsant
antidepressant
antiemetic
The correct answer is antiemetic.
An antiemetic is a medication prescribed to prevent or treat nausea and vomiting, which are common side effects of radiation and chemotherapy treatments. These drugs help to control the symptoms and improve the patient’s comfort during treatment.
A patient experiencing thrush as a side effect of radiation therapy will likely be treated with a(n):
antihistamine
anti-inflammatory
analgesic
antifungal
The correct answer is antifungal.
Thrush, a fungal infection caused by Candida species, is a common side effect of radiation therapy, especially when it affects the mouth. It is typically treated with antifungal medications, which help to clear the infection.
Which of the following drugs would be used to treat a bacterial infection?
antidepressant
diuretic
antibiotic
corticosteroid
The correct answer is antibiotic.
Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections by killing or inhibiting the growth of bacteria. The other options listed serve different purposes:
Antidepressants are used to treat depression and other mood disorders.
Diuretics help remove excess fluid from the body.
Corticosteroids are used to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system.
For patients who are vomiting, an antiemetic would be best administered:
orally
buccally
transdermally
rectally
The correct answer is rectally.
For patients who are vomiting, an antiemetic is best administered rectally to ensure proper absorption when oral administration may not be effective due to the patient being unable to keep medications down. Other routes, such as buccally (inside the cheek) or transdermally (through the skin), may also be options depending on the specific medication, but rectal administration is often preferred for immediate effect in cases of vomiting.
Which of the following are macronutrients? (select all that apply)
Vitamins
Fats
Carbohydrates
Minerals
Proteins
The correct answers are Fats, Carbohydrates, and Proteins.
Macronutrients are nutrients that are required by the body in large amounts and provide energy. These include:
Fats
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Vitamins and minerals are essential nutrients but are classified as micronutrients, which are needed in smaller amounts.
The production of antibodies is:
immunity
infection
vaccination
transmission
The correct answer is immunity.
Immunity refers to the body’s ability to produce antibodies and other mechanisms to protect against infections and diseases. The production of antibodies is a key part of the immune response, which helps the body recognize and fight off pathogens.
The term “PEG tube” is short for:
Parenteral gastrectomy tube
Percutaneous endostomy gastrectomy tube
Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube
Parenteral enteral gastrostomy tube
The correct answer is Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube.
A PEG tube is a medical device used to provide nutrition to patients who are unable to eat by mouth. It is inserted into the stomach through the abdominal wall using an endoscopic procedure.
Any deviation from or interruption of the normal structure or function of an organ or system that has a characteristic set of signs and symptoms is:
disease
infection
pathogenicity
immunity
The correct answer is disease.
A disease refers to any deviation from or interruption of the normal structure or function of an organ or system, characterized by a specific set of signs and symptoms. It can result from infections, genetic factors, environmental influences, or other causes.
The establishment and growth of a microorganism on or in a host is:
disease
infection
pathogenicity
immunity
The correct answer is infection.
Infection refers to the establishment and growth of a microorganism, such as bacteria, viruses, or fungi, on or in a host. It can lead to disease if the microorganism causes harm to the host.
Which of the following is a reason for insertion of a urinary catheter? (select all that apply)
the patient has incontinence
to instill medication into the bladder
to keep the bladder empty
to irrigate the bladder
All of the above
All of the above
A disease related to long-term use of a drug that damages tissues or causes other disorders is:
Iatrogenic
Idiosyncratic
Allergic reaction
Anaphylactic
The correct answer is Iatrogenic.
Iatrogenic diseases are conditions that are caused by medical treatments or drugs. These can result from the long-term use of a drug that damages tissues or causes other disorders.
This medication is prescribed to treat inflammation:
diuretics
corticosteroid
anticonvulsant
antidepressant
antiemetic
corticosteroid
A patient that has an allergic reaction to contrast materials will most likely be given a(n):
antihistamine
analgesic
anti-inflammatory
antifungal
corticosteroid
The correct answer is antihistamine.
An antihistamine is commonly given to patients who have an allergic reaction to contrast materials. It helps counteract the effects of histamine, which is released during an allergic response, and can relieve symptoms like itching, hives, or swelling. In some cases, corticosteroids may also be used to reduce inflammation in more severe reactions.
Lomotil and Imodium are examples of:
antidepressants
antibiotics
diuretics
corticosteroids
antidiarrheal
The correct answer is antidiarrheal.
Lomotil and Imodium are both antidiarrheal medications used to treat diarrhea by slowing down the movement of the intestines, allowing for more water to be absorbed and reducing the frequency of bowel movements.
Which type of medication may be prescribed for a patient experiencing frequent episodes of vertigo?
Antihistamine
Antiemetic
Corticosteroid
Anesthetic
The correct answer is Antihistamine.
Antihistamines are commonly prescribed to treat vertigo, especially when it is related to conditions like motion sickness or vestibular disorders. These medications can help reduce dizziness and nausea associated with vertigo.
Valium, Ativan, Xanax and Librium are examples of which type of medication?
antidepressants
analgesics
antianxiety
corticosteroids
hormones
The correct answer is antianxiety.
Valium, Ativan, Xanax, and Librium are all antianxiety medications, which belong to a class of drugs known as benzodiazepines. They are used to treat anxiety disorders, panic attacks, and sometimes other conditions like insomnia or muscle spasms.
A drug that is completely dissolved in a liquid carrier is called a:
capsule
tablet
topical application
solution
suspension
The correct answer is solution.
A solution is a drug that is completely dissolved in a liquid carrier, meaning the active ingredient is evenly distributed throughout the liquid. This is different from a suspension, where the drug particles are not fully dissolved and may settle over time.
A sudden drop in blood pressure that occurs when a person rises too quickly from a recumbent position is called:
dysfunctional vertigo
orthostatic hypotension
positional syncope
supine hypertension
The correct answer is orthostatic hypotension.
Orthostatic hypotension refers to a sudden drop in blood pressure that occurs when a person stands up too quickly from a sitting or lying position. This can lead to dizziness or fainting due to reduced blood flow to the brain.
Spinal cord compressions may result in
Sensory loss
Loss of bowel and bladder control
Paralysis
All of the above
All of the above
Brain tumors may increase intracranial pressure due to:
Their size
Cerebral edema
Obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid
A and b only
All of the above
The correct answer is All of the above.
Brain tumors can increase intracranial pressure (ICP) due to:
Their size: As the tumor grows, it takes up space in the skull, which can lead to increased pressure.
Cerebral edema: Tumors can cause swelling in the brain, which contributes to increased ICP.
Obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid: Tumors may block the normal flow of cerebrospinal fluid, leading to a buildup and increased pressure within the skull.
The patient assessment done during an on-treatment evaluation (OTE) includes all Except:
Vital signs
Assessment of side effects
Weight
Depression screening
The correct answer is Depression screening.
An on-treatment evaluation (OTE) typically includes vital signs, assessment of side effects, and weight to monitor the patient’s condition during radiation therapy. Depression screening is not usually part of the routine OTE unless specifically indicated based on the patient’s condition or clinical judgment.
The best diagnostic study to determine if a patient has bone metastases is:
a bone scan
an ultrasound
a bone densitometry study
a PET scan
The correct answer is a bone scan.
A bone scan is the best diagnostic study to detect bone metastases. It uses a small amount of radioactive material to highlight areas of bone damage or abnormal bone activity, which is common in metastatic disease. Other imaging studies, like PET scans, can also be useful but are not as specific for bone involvement as a bone scan.
Mucositis and xerostomia are nutritional side effects of radiation therapy to which site? (Select all that apply)
Head and neck
esophagus
abdomen
pelvis
stomach
Head and neck
Radiation pneumonitis is a(n) (. ) side effect.
Group of answer choices
acute
chronic
generalized
acute.
Radiation pneumonitis is considered an acute condition, meaning it occurs within a short period of time following radiation therapy, typically within a few weeks to months, and is the initial inflammatory phase of radiation-induced lung injury; the chronic phase is known as radiation fibrosis which develops later on.
Key points about radiation pneumonitis:
Acute phase: Inflammation of the lung tissue shortly after radiation treatment.
Chronic phase: Fibrosis of the lung tissue that can develop months or years after radiation therapy.
The BRAT diet might be recommended for a patient experiencing:
rectal irritation
nausea and vomiting
diarrhea
dysphagia
The correct answer is diarrhea.
The BRAT diet (Bananas, Rice, Applesauce, Toast) is often recommended for patients experiencing diarrhea because it consists of bland, low-fiber foods that can help firm up stool and reduce irritation in the digestive tract.
Silvadene is effective in treating:
erythema
rectal irritation
mouth sores
moist desquamation
The correct answer is moist desquamation.
Silvadene (silver sulfadiazine) is commonly used to treat moist desquamation, a skin condition that can occur as a side effect of radiation therapy. It helps prevent infection and promotes healing of the skin.
p-value of (. ) or less is generally considered statistically significant.
0.01
0.03
0.05
0.07
The correct answer is 0.05.
A p-value of 0.05 or less is generally considered statistically significant. This means that there is a 5% or less probability that the observed results are due to chance, indicating strong evidence against the null hypothesis.
Dyspnea is a symptom mostly associated with which type of cancer?
Lung
Stomach
Head and neck
Brain
Colorectal
The correct answer is Lung.
Dyspnea (difficulty breathing or shortness of breath) is most commonly associated with lung cancer. This is because lung cancer can directly affect the lungs, causing obstruction or fluid buildup, which leads to breathing difficulties.
The radioisotope used for bone scans is:
Technetium-99m
Barium
Iodinated contrast
FDG 18F
Gadolinium
The correct answer is Technetium-99m.
Technetium-99m is the radioisotope commonly used in bone scans. It is injected into the body and is absorbed by areas of increased bone activity, such as bone metastases or infections, making it ideal for detecting bone abnormalities.
The contrast material used for MRI imaging is:
Technetium-99m
FDG 18F
Barium
Gadolinium
Iodinated contrast
The correct answer is Gadolinium.
Gadolinium is the contrast material commonly used in MRI imaging. It is a paramagnetic substance that enhances the quality of MRI images by altering the magnetic properties of tissues, allowing for clearer visualization of certain structures and abnormalities.
The radiopharmaceutical used for PET is:
Technetium-99m
Barium
Iodinated contrast
FDG 18F
Gadolinium
The correct answer is FDG 18F.
FDG 18F (Fluorodeoxyglucose) is the radiopharmaceutical commonly used in PET (Positron Emission Tomography) imaging. It is a glucose analog that is labeled with a radioactive isotope (fluorine-18) and is used to detect areas of increased metabolic activity, such as tumors.
The normal hemoglobin value for men is:
13.3-16.2 g/dl
45-65 g/dl
8-10 g/dl
1000 cells/cc
13.3-16.2 g/dl
A single celled, prokaryote microorganism that usually resides in colonies is:
bacteria
virus
pathogen
virion
fungus
The correct answer is bacteria.
Bacteria are single-celled, prokaryotic microorganisms that can form colonies. They lack a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles, distinguishing them from eukaryotic cells. Some bacteria can be pathogenic, but not all are harmful.
Asking patients to limit sugar consumption 24 hours before the scheduled appointment may be appropriate for patients having a(n):
bone scan
CT
ultrasound
PET scan
MRI
The correct answer is PET scan.
For a PET scan (Positron Emission Tomography), patients are often asked to limit sugar consumption before the procedure because the radiopharmaceutical used (FDG 18F) is a glucose analog. High blood sugar levels can interfere with the uptake of the radiotracer, potentially affecting the accuracy of the scan, especially in detecting areas of increased metabolic activity such as tumors.
Which of the following procedures would be done to diagnose endometrial cancer?
D & C
Pap test
HPV test
IVP
The correct answer is D & C (Dilation and Curettage).
A D & C procedure is often performed to diagnose endometrial cancer. During this procedure, the lining of the uterus (endometrium) is scraped or suctioned to obtain tissue samples for examination under a microscope. This helps in diagnosing conditions like endometrial cancer.
A Pap test and HPV test are used to detect cervical cancer, not endometrial cancer. An IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram) is used to assess the urinary system, not the reproductive system.
Which of the following is the reason a patient might have a central venous access device or port implanted?
it reduces the risk of infection
provides stability
is less visible
all of the above
All of the above
For diagnostic purposes, bone marrow is usually aspirated from:
7th vertebra
Occipital bone of cranium
L3 and L4 interspace
Posterior iliac crest
The correct answer is Posterior iliac crest.
For diagnostic purposes, bone marrow is most commonly aspirated from the posterior iliac crest. This site is preferred because it provides an adequate sample and is relatively easy to access. The L3 and L4 interspace is also a possible site, but the posterior iliac crest is the most common location for bone marrow aspiration.
The term that refers to the volume of erythrocytes in a given blood volume is:
hemoglobin
hematoidin
marasmus
hematocrit
The correct answer is hematocrit.
The hematocrit refers to the volume percentage of erythrocytes (red blood cells) in a given blood volume. It is a common laboratory test used to assess the proportion of blood that is made up of red blood cells.
Pyrexia refers to:
Fever
Hypoxia
leukocytopenia
Hypertension
The correct answer is Fever.
Pyrexia is the medical term for fever, which is an elevated body temperature often caused by an infection or other underlying condition.
Pulse oximetry monitors:
the amount of hemoglobin in blood
the amount of electrolytes in blood
the oxygen saturation in the alveoli
the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin
The correct answer is the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin.
Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive method used to measure the oxygen saturation level of hemoglobin in the blood, indicating how well oxygen is being transported to the parts of the body.
What is the maximum oxygen flow used on a patient with an unknown history of use?
1 liter/min
2 liters/min
3-4 liters/min
6-8 liters/min
It doesn’t matter
The correct answer is 2 liters/min.
For a patient with an unknown history of oxygen use, it’s generally recommended to start with a lower oxygen flow, such as 2 liters per minute, to avoid potential complications like oxygen toxicity or respiratory depression, especially in patients with conditions like COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). The oxygen flow can be adjusted based on the patient’s response and clinical needs.
The most acceptable “normal range” of the respiratory rate of a resting adult is:
8-15
15-20
12-25
The correct answer is 15-20.
The normal respiratory rate for a resting adult is typically between 12 and 20 breaths per minute. However, the most commonly accepted “normal range” is 15-20 breaths per minute.
A normal range for the adult pulse is (. ) beats/minute.
40-80
60-90
80-110
The correct answer is 60-90 beats per minute.
A normal adult pulse rate typically ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute, but the most commonly accepted “normal range” is 60-90 beats per minute.
“Normal pulse for an adult is 60-90 beats/min”- Slide 17 in Vital Signs lecture
Inhalation of high concentrations of oxygen over a short period of time can cause:
reversible hypertension
tachycardia
bradypnea
irreversible parenchymal lung damage
no negative effects
The correct answer is irreversible parenchymal lung damage.
Inhalation of high concentrations of oxygen over a prolonged period can lead to oxygen toxicity, which can cause irreversible damage to the lung tissue, specifically the parenchyma. This damage can lead to conditions like acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
The dose at which diarrhea is most likely to occur using 1.8-2.0 Gy daily
fractionation is:
10-20 Gy
20-50 Gy
30-40 Gy
Over 50Gy
None of the above
The correct answer is 20-50 Gy.
Diarrhea is a common side effect of radiation therapy to the abdomen or pelvis, and it typically occurs after a cumulative dose of 20-50 Gy using daily fractionation of 1.8-2.0 Gy. This range of radiation dose is associated with damage to the gastrointestinal tract, leading to symptoms such as diarrhea.
Pg 224 Table 10-2 in Washington (4th edition)
The dose at which faint erythema is most likely to occur using 1.8-2.0 Gy daily fraction is:
Below 10Gy
20-30Gy
30-40Gy
Over 50Gy
None of the above
30-40 Gy
Pg 224 Table 10-2 in Washington (4th edition)
The dose at which xerostomia is most likely to occur using 1.8-2.0 Gy daily fraction is:
10-20Gy
20-30Gy
30-40Gy
Over 50Gy
None of the above
20-30 Gy
Pg 224 Table 10-2 in Washington (4th edition)
The dose at which epilation is most likely to occur using 1.8-2.0 Gy daily
fraction is:
10Gy
30Gy
over 50Gy
20Gy
40Gy
20 Gy
Pg 224 Table 10-2 in Washington (4th edition)
Which type of anesthesia renders a patient unconscious and unable to feel pain?
General
Local
Spinal
Total
Unconscious sedation
The correct answer is General anesthesia.
General anesthesia renders a patient unconscious and unable to feel pain, as it affects the entire body and suppresses the central nervous system. This type of anesthesia is typically used for major surgeries.
Severe Allergic reactions to IV contrast include (select all that apply):
Headache
Laryngeal edema
Cardiac arrest
Death
Laryngeal Edema, Cardiac arrest, Death
A cone biopsy (conization) may be done for which cancer?
Breast
Prostate
Lung
Cervix
Colon
The correct answer is Cervix.
A cone biopsy (conization) is typically done for cervical cancer. It involves removing a cone-shaped sample of tissue from the cervix to diagnose or treat precancerous changes or early-stage cervical cancer.
List 3 questions that should be asked of patients prior to administering iodinated contrast.
Before administering iodinated contrast, it’s important to ask patients the following questions to ensure their safety:
Do you have a history of any allergic reactions to contrast materials or iodine?
This helps identify patients who may have an allergic reaction to iodinated contrast, which can range from mild to severe.
Do you have any history of kidney problems, such as chronic kidney disease or kidney failure?
Iodinated contrast can affect kidney function, especially in patients with pre-existing kidney issues, increasing the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy.
Are you currently taking any medications, such as metformin or other diabetes medications?
Metformin and certain other medications can interact with iodinated contrast and may require adjustments or monitoring to prevent complications like lactic acidosis.
List the three things that must be checked as part of the Universal Protocol.
The Universal Protocol is a set of safety guidelines designed to prevent errors in medical procedures, particularly in surgeries and other invasive procedures. The three key things that must be checked as part of the Universal Protocol are:
Patient Identification:
Verify the patient’s identity using at least two identifiers (e.g., name, date of birth, or medical record number) to ensure the correct patient is receiving the procedure.
Procedure Verification:
Confirm the correct procedure is being performed on the correct site. This includes checking the procedure to be done, the site, and any relevant images or documentation to ensure accuracy.
Site Marking:
For procedures involving laterality (e.g., left vs. right), the correct site must be marked on the patient’s body to avoid errors, ensuring the procedure is performed on the intended location.
https://www.jointcommission.org/standards/universal-protocol/
- Conduct a pre-procedure verification process
- Mark the procedure site
- Perform a time-out
Why is critical thinking important?
Critical thinking is important because it enables individuals to make informed decisions by analyzing evidence and considering different perspectives. It enhances problem-solving skills, allowing for effective solutions in complex situations. In healthcare, critical thinking improves patient care, reduces errors, and ensures that decisions are based on facts and best practices.
