RT 3000 Final Exam Flashcards
T or F: A clinical trial protocol is a formal document that clearly describes the details of a proposed research study.
True.
A clinical trial protocol is a formal document that outlines the details of a proposed research study, including its objectives, design, methodology, participant eligibility criteria, and data collection procedures, ensuring the safety of participants and the integrity of the data collected.
T or F: A Phase 1 clinical trial usually involves more than 100 subjects (participants).
False.
During Phase 1 studies, researchers test a new drug in normal volunteers (healthy people). In most cases, 20 to 80 healthy volunteers or people with the disease/condition participate in Phase 1.
A Phase 2 clinical trial usually involves more than 100 subjects (participants)- NOT PHASE 1.
Phase II studies determine the effectiveness of an experimental drug on a particular disease or condition in approximately 100 to 300 volunteers. This phase may last from several months to two years. A Phase II trial answers the question, “Does Drug X improve Disease Y?”
T or F: A retrospective study involves the review of patient medical records.
True.
A retrospective study analyzes existing data, which in the medical field often means reviewing patient medical records, also called “chart reviews”.
T or F: Phase 2b trials are sometimes called pilot trials.
False.
Phase IIa studies are usually pilot studies designed to find an optimal dose and assess safety (‘dose finding’ studies). Phase IIb studies determine how well the drug works in subjects at a given dose to assess efficacy (‘proof of concept’ studies).
“Phase II trials can be subdivided into Phase IIa and Phase IIb; the former is essentially a pilot study involving a limited number (∼50) of participants, whereas the latter will often recruit several hundred epilepsy patients. This subdivision allows for protocol amendment and optimization.”
T or F: Long-term safety and effectiveness of a new treatment would be evaluated in Phase 3 clinical trials.
True.
Phase 3 trials are used to collect more information about how safe a drug is and how well it works. Phase 3 trials will often compare an experimental treatment with the current standard of care to see if it works as well or better, or has fewer side effects, than what is already available to patients.
T or F: TSI treatment is delivered in preparation for a bone marrow transplant.
False.
TBI (Total Body Irradiation) is delivered in preparation for a bone marrow transplant.
While both TSI (Total Skin Irradiation) and TBI (Total Body Irradiation) are forms of radiation therapy, the key difference is that TSI only targets the skin surface, while TBI delivers radiation to the entire body, including internal organs, making TSI significantly less invasive and primarily used for skin cancers like mycosis fungoides, while TBI is typically used as preparation for a bone marrow transplant to suppress the immune system before receiving donor cells.
T or F: A benefit of using Strontium-89 is that high radiation doses can be given to bone metastases with minimal doses to soft tissue.
True.
“Radiopharmaceutical agents can also be used for the palliation of metastatic bone disease. Strontium-89 ans Samarium-153 have been shown to provide pain relief for patients with matastatic prostate carcinoma and, in some cases, with breast cancer that is metastatic to the bone.” - Pg 575 in Washington (4th edition)
T or F: To eliminate bias in clinical trials, study subjects may be allowed to choose the treatment assignment in which they wish to participate.
False.
To eliminate bias, clinical trials use randomization to randomly assign patients to treatment groups.
Randomization helps to ensure that the treatment a patient receives is not systematically connected to their prognosis. This helps to prevent selection bias, which can occur when the treatment a patient receives is influenced by factors other than the treatment itself.
T or F: Health care providers caring for LDR implant patients must limit direct care time to 30 minutes per shift.
True
“Limit contact with the client for 5 minutes each time, a total of 30 minutes per 8-hour shift”
T or F: Patients who have multiple, painful, metastatic lesions may benefit from single dose Hemibody irradiation.
True.
https://www.onclive.com/view/a-comprehensive-review-of-hemibody-irradiation-for-patients-with-bone-metastases
T or F: TSI treatment may be administered using electrons or x-rays.
False.
TSI (Total Skin Irradiation) is administered using electrons because the goal of treatment is to only treat the surface level of the body (the skin) and not the internal organs.
Total skin electron beam therapy (TSEBT) is a radiation treatment for the whole surface of your skin. It is used to treat cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL) and/or mycosis fungoides (MF), a type of lymphoma that affects the skin.
In TSEBT, a type of radiation is used, called electrons. This beam goes into the first 1-2 centimeters of your body. This treats the skin while limiting radiation to other tissues and organs.
T or F: Most cancer pain can be eliminated by non-opioid medications, such as NSAIDs.
False.
While non-opioid medications like NSAIDs can manage mild to moderate cancer pain, for more severe cancer pain, opioids are often necessary to effectively eliminate pain.
T or F: A stellate ganglion block is an injection of local anesthetic to block the sympathetic nerves located on either side of the voice box in the neck.
True.
A stellate ganglion block is an injection of local anesthetic specifically targeting the sympathetic nerves situated on either side of the voice box in the neck.
T or F: Many patients believe that pain is an expected and inevitable consequence of their cancer.
True.
Patients may fail to report cancer pain if they expect that pain is an inevitable consequence of cancer, if they believe that pain is a useful indicator of disease activity, or if they fear that symptom discussions will shift the professional’s focus away from the treatment of disease.
T or F: A patient’s pain has both a physical and emotional component.
True.
T or F: Allodynia is an over-sensitivity to stimulus, such as touch.
True.
Allodynia is defined as “pain due to a stimulus that does not normally provoke pain.” An example would be a light feather touch (that should only produce sensation), causing pain.
T or F: Brain swelling is treated with the steroid medication Decadron.
True.
Steroids are hormones produced by the adrenal glands that are used to reduce brain swelling. The steroids used to treat brain tumors are not the same as those used by athletes. The most common steroid is dexamethasone (Decadron®). Prednisone may also be used.
T or F: Handwashing is the most important mechanism of preventing and controlling nosocomial infections.
True.
According to the CDC and other health organizations, handwashing (or more broadly, “hand hygiene”) is considered the single most important practice for preventing the spread of infections, including nosocomial infections, in healthcare settings.
T or F: The parenteral route of drug administration bypasses the gastrointestinal system.
True.
The parenteral route refers to administering liquids, such as nutrition or medications, by bypassing the gastrointestinal system.
T or F: Suppositories can only be used to administer medications rectally.
False.
Suppositories are a medication dosage form. They’re placed or inserted into the rectum, vagina, or urethra.
T or F: Non-sterile gloves and linens that fall on the floor can be picked up and used as long as they are not used on patients with open sores or infections.
False.
T or F: Patients who take Metformin should discontinue taking the medication 48 hours prior to administration of barium contrast.
False.
Patients taking Metformin should typically discontinue the medication at the time of or before receiving intravenous contrast, not barium contrast, and should not take it for at least 48 hours afterwards due to the potential risk of kidney damage from the contrast agent, which could lead to lactic acidosis associated with Metformin use.
Barium contrast is not typically associated with the need to stop Metformin
as it is administered orally and does not significantly affect kidney function like intravenous contrast.
T or F: Nonionic contrast does not contain iodine.
False.
Nonionic contrast does contain iodine; it is a type of iodinated contrast media, meaning the contrast agent is based on iodine, but it is classified as “nonionic” due to its chemical structure which does not dissociate into charged particles when injected, leading to fewer side effects compared to ionic contrast.
T or F: An emergency situation commonly associated with an allergic reaction to contrast media is hypovolemic shock.
False.
Hypovolemic shock is a medical emergency that occurs when the body loses too much blood or fluids, making it difficult for the heart to pump enough blood to the body. If left untreated, it can lead to organ damage, multiple organ failure, and death.
T or F: Cancer modifies the way the body metabolizes carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
True.
“Malignant tumors can alter enzyme activity and immune system. Cancer alters energy expenditure and basal metabolism, which resilts in changes in carbohydrate, lipid, and protein metabolism.”
T or F: PICC lines facilitate the administration of chemotherapy treatments.
True.
A PICC (peripherally inserted central catheter) line is used to give chemotherapy or other treatments. A PICC line is a long, thin, hollow, flexible tube.
T or F: Chest tube drainage receptacles should be kept on the patient’s bed or bedside table in order to prevent them from being tipped over.
True.
Chest tube drainage receptacles should be kept on the patient’s bed or bedside table to prevent them from being accidentally tipped over, as they must always be positioned below the patient’s chest level to facilitate proper drainage.
T or F: A properly placed PEG-J tube terminates in the jejunum.
True.
A PEG-J tube (percutaneous endoscopic gastrojejunostomy) is a tube that is placed through the skin of the abdomen into the stomach, and through the stomach into the small intestine (jejunum). The PEG-J tube contains two tubes in one.
T or F: A balloon must be inflated at the tip of a urinary catheter once it is inserted into the bladder to ensure proper catheter placement.
True.
A balloon at the tip of a urinary catheter, often called a Foley catheter, is inflated once it is inside the bladder to secure its position and prevent it from slipping out.
The inflated balloon acts as an anchor within the bladder, holding the catheter in place.
T or F: Cachexia is associated with a poor prognosis in cancer patients.
True.
Cachexia accounts for 20% of all cancer-related deaths and is a sign of poor prognosis.
T or F: Generic and trade names must be unique to prevent one drug from being confused with another.
True.
Generic and brand names must be unique to prevent one drug from being mistaken for another when drugs are prescribed and prescriptions are dispensed. To prevent this possible confusion, the FDA must agree to every proposed brand name.
T or F: Patients receiving pelvic or abdominal irradiation have less side effects if they try to maintain their normal eating habits and continue to follow their regular diet.
False.
Depending on the severity of side effects, patients may need to adjust their diet by eating smaller meals more frequently, choosing low-fiber foods, limiting greasy foods, and staying hydrated.
T or F: Health care associated infections are the 2nd leading cause of death in the U.S.
False.
Nosocomial infections are the 8th leading cause of death in the U.S.
T or F: If a patient has a seizure, the HCP should put a mouth guard in the patient’s mouth to prevent injury to the tongue and teeth.
False.
T or F: A CVA occurs when there is an occlusion of the blood supply to the brain.
True.
A CVA, which stands for “cerebrovascular accident” or stroke, occurs when blood flow to the brain is blocked, essentially meaning an occlusion of the blood supply to the brain.
T or F: Cord compressions that occur at C-3 or above are not life-threatening.
False.
Cord compressions at C-3 or above are considered life-threatening because they can affect the nerves controlling breathing, potentially causing respiratory failure if not treated immediately.
T or F: Radiation therapy is considered the definitive therapy for spinal cord compressions.
True.
The definitive treatment options for a patient presenting with MSCC are surgery, radiotherapy or symptom control.
T or F: The best treatment for postural hypotension is to have the patient begin walking immediately.
False.
For mild orthostatic hypotension (postural hypotension), one of the simplest treatments is to sit or lie back down immediately after feeling lightheaded upon standing.
T or F: Ultrasound is commonly used to diagnosis bone metastases.
False.
T or F: Epilation refers to the reddening of the skin in response to radiation exposure.
False.
Erythema refers to the reddening of the skin in response to radiation exposure.
Epilation refers to hair loss, not skin reddening, which is called erythema; both are potential effects of radiation exposure, but epilation specifically means hair loss.
T or F: A double contrast barium enema requires the administration of both barium and air.
True.
A double contrast barium enema involves injecting both barium (a contrast liquid) and air into the colon to create a better visualization of the colon wall during an X-ray examination; the “double contrast” refers to the different appearances of the barium and air on the X-ray image.
T or F: Paracentesis removes fluid from the peritoneum for analysis.
True.
Paracentesis is a procedure that drains excess fluid called ascites from your abdomen. Ascites occur when fluid collects in a membrane called your peritoneum.
Peritoneal fluid is the fluid in the cavity space between the wall of the abdomen and organs. Analysis of ascetic fluid post paracentesis is of diagnostic value in patients with new onset ascites. Causes of interest are those of suspected infection (bacterial peritonitis) and of suspected malignancy.
A paracentesis is a procedure that involves removing ascitic fluid from the peritoneal cavity using a sterile technique.
T or F: An IVP is an exam that visualizes lungs.
False.
An intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is an x-ray examination of the kidneys, ureters and urinary bladder that uses iodinated contrast material injected into veins.
T or F: The Universal Protocol was established by the Joint Commission as a component of the National Patient Safety Goals.
True.
The Joint Commission established the Universal Protocol as a part of their National Patient Safety Goals, specifically designed to prevent wrong site, wrong procedure, and wrong person surgery.
The Universal Protocol outlines key steps like pre-procedure verification, surgical site marking, and a “time-out” procedure to ensure patient safety during surgical interventions, making it a crucial component of the National Patient Safety Goals.
T or F: Patients with severe skin reactions may need to have their treatment temporarily discontinued.
True.
T or F: An endoscope is a device used to perform bronchoscopy, laryngoscopy or colonoscopy.
True.
An endoscope is a device that goes inside your body to take pictures or videos of organs and other structures.
Bronchoscopy is a type of endoscopy. Like all endoscopic procedures, it’s a way for your doctor to see inside your body without surgery.
T or F: Cystoscopy is done to visualize the inside of the urinary bladder.
True.
A cystoscopy is a medical procedure where a doctor uses a thin, lighted tube called a cystoscope to examine the inside of the urinary bladder and urethra.
This procedure is often used to diagnose conditions like bladder infections, bladder stones, or bladder cancer.
T or F: Radiation side effects may occur at lower doses if the patient has had chemotherapy in addition to radiation therapy.
True.
Radiation side effects can occur at lower doses when a patient has undergone chemotherapy in addition to radiation therapy. This is because chemotherapy can sensitize tissues to radiation, making them more vulnerable to damage. This phenomenon is known as radiosensitization, and it is a common consideration in combined treatment plans for cancer.
T or F: The percent of weight change is the most accurate measure of nutritional status.
True.
”% of weight changes is the most accurate measure of nutritional status” - Slide 21 of Patient Assessment Lecture
T or F: The normal range of hemoglobin for men is higher than for women.
True.
The normal range of hemoglobin is generally higher for men than for women. This difference is due to factors such as hormonal variations, particularly the effects of testosterone, which stimulates red blood cell production. Typical hemoglobin ranges are approximately:
Men: 13.8–17.2 g/dL
Women: 12.1–15.1 g/dL
T or F: Conscious sedation induces an altered state of consciousness without interfering with cardiac and respiratory function.
True.
Conscious sedation, also known as moderate sedation, induces an altered state of consciousness where the patient remains awake and responsive but relaxed and free from pain or anxiety. When administered correctly, it typically does not interfere significantly with cardiac or respiratory function. However, careful monitoring is essential, as some individuals may experience mild effects on these systems depending on the sedative used and their underlying health conditions.
T or F: The normal heart rate for children and infants is lower than for adults.
False.
The normal heart rate for children and infants is higher than that of adults. Infants and young children have faster metabolic rates and smaller hearts, which require a higher heart rate to maintain adequate blood circulation. Typical heart rate ranges are:
Infants (0–1 year): 100–160 beats per minute (bpm)
Children (1–10 years): 70–120 bpm
Adults: 60–100 bpm
T or F: All side effects from radiation therapy are treated in a standard fashion by all physicians.
False.
Side effects from radiation therapy are not treated in a standard fashion by all physicians. The management of side effects is highly individualized and depends on factors such as the type, location, and dose of radiation, as well as the patient’s overall health and specific symptoms. Physicians tailor treatments to address each patient’s unique needs, which may include medications, lifestyle modifications, or supportive therapies. Additionally, clinical guidelines may vary, and physician preferences or expertise can influence treatment approaches.
T or F: Moist desquamation is a more severe skin reaction than erythema.
True.
Moist desquamation is a more severe skin reaction than erythema.
Erythema is an earlier, milder skin reaction to radiation, characterized by redness, warmth, and possible mild discomfort due to increased blood flow in the affected area.
Moist desquamation occurs when the skin’s outer layer breaks down, leading to weeping, exposed dermis, and increased risk of infection. It typically develops after prolonged or high-dose radiation exposure.
Management of moist desquamation often requires more intensive care to promote healing and prevent complications.
T or F: Cervical dysplasia is considered to be a risk factor for cervical cancer.
True.
Cervical dysplasia, which refers to abnormal changes in the cells of the cervix, is considered a significant risk factor for cervical cancer. While not all cases of cervical dysplasia progress to cancer, it can develop into cervical cancer if left untreated, especially in cases of high-grade dysplasia.
The primary cause of cervical dysplasia is persistent infection with high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly HPV types 16 and 18. Early detection through Pap smears and HPV testing is crucial for managing cervical dysplasia and reducing the risk of progression to cervical cancer.
T or F: Changes in vital signs can indicate medical problems a patient may be having.
True.
Changes in vital signs—such as heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, and temperature—can indicate underlying medical problems or changes in a patient’s condition. For example:
Elevated temperature may signal an infection.
Tachycardia (increased heart rate) could indicate pain, fever, dehydration, or cardiac issues.
Hypotension (low blood pressure) might suggest shock or blood loss.
Changes in respiratory rate can reflect respiratory distress or metabolic imbalances.
Monitoring and interpreting vital signs is essential for detecting and addressing potential health concerns promptly.
T or F: An excisional biopsy of the breast is commonly known as a lumpectomy.
True.
An excisional biopsy of the breast is commonly referred to as a lumpectomy. This procedure involves surgically removing a lump or abnormal tissue from the breast, often for diagnostic purposes or as part of treatment for breast cancer. While the term “lumpectomy” is typically used in the context of removing cancerous or suspicious tissue, the goal of an excisional biopsy is to obtain a definitive diagnosis by removing the entire lesion for pathological examination.
T or F: Normal pulse for an adult is 60-90 beats/min
True.
“Normal pulse for an adult is 60-90 beats/min”- Slide 17 in Vital Signs lecture
T or F: Tachycardia is defined as a HR>100 BPM.
True.
Tachycardia is defined as a heart rate (HR) greater than 100 beats per minute (BPM) in adults. It can occur due to various factors, such as fever, stress, anemia, dehydration, or underlying heart conditions. The specific threshold for tachycardia may vary slightly depending on the context, but a rate above 100 BPM is generally considered tachycardic in a resting adult.
T or F: The normal breathing rate for a resting adult is 20 - 25 breaths/minute.
False.
The normal breathing rate for a resting adult is typically 12-20 breaths per minute. Rates above 20 breaths per minute may indicate tachypnea, which can be a sign of conditions like fever, anxiety, or respiratory distress. Conversely, a rate below 12 breaths per minute could indicate bradypnea, which might be associated with conditions such as respiratory depression.
T or F: Leukoplakia is a possible symptom of oral cancer.
True.
Leukoplakia, which refers to white patches or plaques that form on the mucous membranes of the mouth, is a possible symptom of oral cancer. While leukoplakia itself is often benign, it can sometimes indicate precancerous changes or be associated with oral cancer, especially if the patches are persistent, thickened, or show signs of ulceration. It is important for individuals with leukoplakia to be evaluated by a healthcare provider to rule out or address any potential cancerous or precancerous conditions.
T or F: A radiation therapist may administer oxygen anytime he/she feels a patient is having trouble breathing.
False.
A radiation therapist is not typically authorized to administer oxygen unless they are specifically trained and the situation is within their scope of practice. Oxygen administration generally requires a physician’s order or approval, and it should be done according to established medical protocols. If a radiation therapist observes a patient having trouble breathing, they should promptly notify the appropriate medical staff (such as a nurse or physician) to assess the situation and determine the necessary intervention.
T or F: Risk factors for prostate cancer include age and family history.
True.
Risk factors for prostate cancer include age and family history. As men age, their risk of developing prostate cancer increases, with most cases occurring in men over the age of 50. A family history of prostate cancer, especially if close relatives (such as a father or brother) have had the disease, also increases the risk. Other factors, such as race (with higher rates in African American men), diet, and lifestyle, can also influence the likelihood of developing prostate cancer.
T or F: Patients receiving radiation therapy to the abdominal and pelvic areas should be advised to eat a diet high in fiber to reduce the incidence of diarrhea.
False.
Patients receiving radiation therapy to the abdominal and pelvic areas are typically advised to follow a low-fiber diet, not a high-fiber diet, during treatment. This is because radiation can irritate the gastrointestinal tract, and a low-fiber diet helps to reduce bowel irritation, gas, and diarrhea. High-fiber foods can be more difficult to digest and may exacerbate symptoms like diarrhea. Once the treatment is completed and symptoms improve, patients can gradually return to a normal diet, including fiber. Always, dietary recommendations should be personalized based on the patient’s condition and treatment plan.
T or F: A bone marrow aspiration is another term for bone marrow biopsy.
False.
A bone marrow aspiration and a bone marrow biopsy are two distinct procedures, though they are often performed together.
Bone marrow aspiration involves using a needle to withdraw a small sample of liquid bone marrow, typically from the hip bone, to examine the cells.
Bone marrow biopsy involves removing a small piece of solid bone marrow tissue, often using a larger needle, to assess the structure of the marrow.
Both procedures are used to diagnose conditions like leukemia, anemia, or other blood disorders, but they provide different types of information.
T or F: Signs are objective evidence of disease.
True.
Signs are objective evidence of disease that can be observed or measured by a healthcare provider, such as a rash, fever, or abnormal heart sounds. Unlike symptoms, which are subjective experiences reported by the patient (like pain or fatigue), signs are observable and measurable indicators of a medical condition.
T or F: Depression is probably underdiagnosed and undertreated in cancer patients.
True.
T or F: Keeping irradiated skin dry and free from friction helps reduce the risk of moist desquamation.
True.
Keeping irradiated skin dry and free from friction can help reduce the risk of moist desquamation, which is a severe skin reaction that can occur after radiation therapy. Moist desquamation involves the breakdown of the skin’s outer layers, leading to open sores and weeping skin. To prevent this, it’s important to avoid excessive moisture, friction, and irritation in the treated area. Gentle skin care, including the use of mild cleansers and avoiding tight clothing or harsh rubbing, can help protect the skin and minimize the risk of complications.
T or F: Hydrocortisone creams/lotions may be applied to irradiated skin at the patient’s discretion immediately prior to the daily radiation treatment being given.
False.
Hydrocortisone creams or lotions should not be applied to irradiated skin immediately prior to radiation treatment without the guidance of a healthcare provider. While hydrocortisone can help reduce inflammation, applying it right before radiation therapy may interfere with the skin’s response to the treatment or cause further irritation. It’s important for patients to follow specific skincare instructions provided by their radiation oncologist or healthcare team, as certain creams or lotions may need to be avoided before treatment to prevent complications.
T or F: Acute reactions to radiation therapy usually resolve themselves within 4-6 weeks after completing treatment.
True.
Acute reactions to radiation therapy, such as skin irritation, fatigue, or gastrointestinal discomfort, typically resolve within 4-6 weeks after completing treatment. These reactions occur because radiation affects healthy tissues as well as cancerous ones. While the acute side effects may be temporary, it’s important for patients to follow their healthcare provider’s recommendations for managing symptoms during and after treatment. In some cases, side effects may persist longer or lead to chronic issues, requiring further medical attention.
T or F: Radiation recall dermatitis (reaction) occurs when radiation therapy is administered to an area of the skin that has already been irradiated.
True.
Radiation recall dermatitis is a skin reaction that occurs when radiation therapy is administered to an area of the skin that has previously been irradiated. This reaction can be triggered by chemotherapy or certain medications, which cause the skin in the previously irradiated area to become inflamed, red, or irritated. The reaction typically develops a few days or weeks after the new treatment and can range from mild to severe.
T or F: Head and neck patients receiving radiation to their mouth should clean their mouths frequently to maintain good oral hygiene.
True.
Head and neck cancer patients receiving radiation to the mouth should clean their mouths frequently to maintain good oral hygiene. Radiation therapy can lead to dry mouth (xerostomia), increased risk of infection, and other oral complications. Regular mouth care, including gentle brushing with a soft toothbrush, rinsing with water or a saline solution, and using fluoride treatments as recommended by the healthcare provider, can help reduce the risk of oral infections, cavities, and discomfort. It’s important for patients to follow specific oral care guidelines provided by their healthcare team.
T or F: Thrush is a yeast infection that occurs in the oral mucosa.
True.
Thrush is a yeast infection caused by the overgrowth of Candida fungus, commonly affecting the oral mucosa. It results in white, creamy lesions on the tongue, inner cheeks, gums, or roof of the mouth. Thrush is more common in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those undergoing radiation therapy or chemotherapy. It can also occur in patients with dry mouth, diabetes, or those taking certain medications like antibiotics or corticosteroids.
T or F: The Radiation Therapist Standards of Practice is published by the American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT).
True.
The Radiation Therapist Standards of Practice is published by the American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT). These standards outline the professional and ethical responsibilities of radiation therapists, ensuring high-quality care and safe practices in radiation therapy. They serve as a guide for the education, practice, and professional development of radiation therapists.
T or F: Charges of medical negligence can be made if a patient is not given enough information prior to a medical procedure in order to make a responsible decision about his own care.
True.
Charges of medical negligence can be made if a patient is not given enough information prior to a medical procedure to make an informed decision about their own care. This is a violation of the informed consent process, which requires healthcare providers to explain the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a procedure in a way that the patient can understand. If a patient is not adequately informed and suffers harm as a result, it may constitute medical negligence or malpractice.
T or F: Practice Standards define the role of the practitioner and establish criteria used to judge performance.
True.
Practice standards define the role of the practitioner and establish criteria used to judge performance. These standards outline the expectations for professional behavior, competencies, and quality of care within a specific field. They serve as a guideline for practitioners to follow in their daily work and are also used to evaluate their performance to ensure safe, effective, and ethical practice.
T or F: Individuals with an external locus of control believe that certain things, like their health, are beyond their control.
True.
Individuals with an external locus of control believe that outcomes, including their health, are largely influenced by external factors such as luck, fate, or the actions of others, rather than by their own efforts or decisions. They may feel that they have little control over events in their lives, including their health or well-being. In contrast, individuals with an internal locus of control believe they have the power to influence outcomes through their own actions and decisions.
T of F: Grief is a normal emotional response to a loss.
True.
