rrd 2 Flashcards

alterations in fluids and solutes, altered cellular and tissue biology, altered cellular proliferations

1
Q

interstitium + cells = ?

A

tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the body receives about _____ mL of fluid intake normally per day (usually orally) and it enters the _______ compartment from the ______ of the gut.

A

2100, plasma, capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

once in the plasma compartment, water is circulated to the _____ and various _______ take place.

A

tissues, fluid shifts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the fluid shifts that take place in the tissues?

A
  • water shifts from the blood into the tissue
  • water shifts from the tissue into the blood
    depends on the needs of the body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

goal of fluid shifts

A
  • maintain homeostasis between fluid compartments
  • fluid concentration in all the compartments are kept the same or near-same
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

some fluid is excreted as part of products such as?

A

urine, feces, sweat, exhaled air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

osmosis

A
  • movement of water between compartments
  • ruled by osmolality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

rule of osmosis

A

water will always want to move from a more dilute compartment to a more concentrated compartment - CONCENTRATION CALLS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

concentration is the ____ as osmolality so ______ orders!

A

same, osmolality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

osmolality

A
  • measurement of how concentrated a compartment is
  • proportion of solutes-to-water that are in that compartment’s fluid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

we can measure the solute concentration of the plasma compartment by doing a ____ and thus, have an idea about what fluid shifts to anticipate since osmolality rules osmosis.

A

serum osmolality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

tonicity

A
  • interchangeable with salinity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

the normal tonicity/salinity of blood is?

A

normal saline concentration (NaCl) is 0.9%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

if the tonicity of the blood is higher than 0.9%, the patient is ______. the blood is some way ____ concentrated than usual.

A

hypertonic or hyperosmolar, more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

if the tonicity of the blood is lower than 0.9%, the patient is ______. the blood is in some way _____ concentrated than usual.

A

hypotonic or hypoosmolar, less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

normal tonicity is ____. any fluid that has a saline concentration of 0.9% is _____ to normal blood.

A

isotonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

nickname for any saline fluid that is isotonic to the blood is ?

A

normal saline or NS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

a bag of 0.45% NaCl is?

A

hypotonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

a bag of 3% NaCl is?

A

hypertonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

osmotic pressure

A
  • pressure exerted by all the solutes in a compartment
  • correlates with osmolality (higher the osmolality, the higher the osmotic pressure)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

oncotic pressure

A
  • colloidal osmotic pressure
  • same principle as osmotic pressure but refers to protein molecules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

water is pathologically LOST by the body: ______ concentration/osmolality in the plasma space (blood). what is the fluid shift?

A

increased, tissue-to-blood fluid shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

water is pathologically GAINED by the body or protein is lost: concentration of plasma space/blood is ______. what is the fluid shift?

A

decreased, blood-to-tissue fluid shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

common mechanism for an increase in blood osmolality is

A

loss of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

pathologic water loss can occur via?

A
  • inadequate intake
  • increased output
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

examples of increased output causing water loss?

A
  • vomiting
  • diarrhea
  • increased urination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

pathway of pathologic water loss

A

1). disease causing continuing water loss from the body
2). water loss from blood
3). increased blood osmolality
4). water loss from cells
5). dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

in certain intestinal infections, a microbe causes disruptions in the capillaries that line in the intestine. this causes water to ___ from the capillaries into the lumen of the intestines.

A

LEAK
- increase in fecal liquid is what causes diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

as water leaks from the local capillaries, blood of the entire circulatory system is becoming _______ concentrated than the surrounding tissues all over the body.

A

MORE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

since the plasma compartment (bloodstream) has a higher osmolality than the tissue compartment, water will be ________ the plasma compartment.

A

PULLED INTO - T to B shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

water being pulled into the plasma compartment leaves the tissue cells in what state?

A

dehydrated and shrunken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

S&S caused by T to B fluid shift

A
  • dehydration/fluid volume deficit
  • poor skin turgor
  • sunken eyes
  • sunken fontanels in babies
  • diminished urinary output (oliguria) and urine concentration increases
  • low BP
  • acute CNS changes: restlessness, confusion, unconsciousness, convulsions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is skin turgor? what does it mean to have poor skin turgor?

A
  • state of flexibility or tightness of skin cells due to how much water they have
  • skin is pulled up and snaps back = good recoil and elasticity - adequate hydration
  • poor skin turgor = skin is loose and little recoil, tents up when pulled = dehydration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

lab work with dehydration will look like?

A
  • high serum osmolality
  • hyperosmolar blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what intrinsic hormonal compensatory mechanisms does the body have to correct fluid volume deficient (and/or low BP)?

A

RAAS (renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system) and ADH (antidiuretic hormone secretion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is RAAS?

A

1). the kidneys secrete increased renin
2). renin stimulates secretion of angiotensin I -> becomes angiotensin II with the help of ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme)
3). angiotensin II stimulates peripheral vasoconstriction and increases secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

when do the kidneys increase renin secretion?

A
  • when blood osmolality is high (and/or)
  • when fluid volume in the circulation is low due to blood loss (and/or)
  • BP is low
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

peripheral vasoconstriction

A
  • less blood will flow into constricted blood vessels in the periphery
  • blood stays in central circulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what does aldosterone do?

A

1). causes kidney tubules to hold on to Na+
2). water follows Na+ back into circulation instead of going out with urine
3). urine output decreases
4). water in blood and general circulatory vol increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

RAAS causes _____ circulatory fluid volume and compensates for the initial problem of ____ fluid volume, ____ total blood volume, and/or ___ BP.

A

increased, low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

when fluid volume is high, the RAAS is?

A

suppressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what does ADH do for fluid volume deficit?

A

assists RAAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

decreased blood osmolality comes from?

A

pathologic water GAIN or protein LOSS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

pathologic increase of water in the circulation result in the ____ of the blood and ____ serum osmolality.

A

dilution, lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

the vascular compartment is the ______ to change its composition.

A

first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

blood changed to lower osmolality than tissue, so water is pulled?

A

B to T fluid shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

pathologic accumulation as excess fluid being pulled into the tissue is called?

A

edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

edema can impair what because of?

A

body processes like healing and oxygen exchange because of increased distance for nutrients and waste products to move btw capillaries and cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

steps of pathologic water gain/excess water to result

A

1). disease cause overall water gain to body
2). water gain to blood
3). decreased osmolality
4). water gain to tissue - edema
5). overall fluid overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

general steps of pathologic protein loss

A

1). disease cause loss of protein from body
2). deceased oncotic pressure (and osmolality) of blood
3). water gain to tissue (edema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

general situations that cause excess water in the blood and eventually tissues

A
  • excess intake of fluid
  • low output
  • hormonal problems such as SIADH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what does excess intake of fluid look like?

A
  • psychotic water drinking (“water intoxication”)
  • too much IV fluid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

how does low output cause excess water?

A

inability to process and/or get rid of appropriate amt of water (like kidney failure) causes water to accumulate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is SIADH?

A

syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

possible etiologies of SIADH

A
  • ectopically-produced ADH (ex: from small-cell bronchogenic cancer)
  • various drugs like gen anesthetics (SIADH can be seen in post-op recovery)
  • trauma to brain (brain tumors, head injury etc. swells brain, puts pressure on piturary)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

mechanism of action of excess water due to SIADH

A
  • abnormally high levels of ADH
  • hold onto water too much by abnormally decreasing urination
  • results in increased vascular fluid volume
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

S&S of excess water due to SIADH

A

decreased urine output (oliguria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

which solutes most affect fluid shifts by their loss?

A
  • Na+ (lost by excess sweating or certain disease processes)
  • proteins (hypoproteinemia: protein loss in blood)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

causes of hypoproteinemia

A
  • diminished protein production and intake
  • plasma protein loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

where does diminished protein production come from?

A

certain types of liver diseases (cirrhosis) causes liver to not produce proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what does diminished protein intake cause?

A

protein malnutrition states such as kwashiorkor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

mechanism of plasma protein loss from certain kidney diseases like glomerulonephritis

A
  • glomeruli of kidneys lose the ability to keep protein molecules in blood where they belong
  • large number of proteins spill out into urine (proteinuria)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

sequelae of plasma protein loss

A
  • less proteins in the blood (hyporoteinemia)
  • plasma compartment lower concentration
  • vascular space hypoosmolar and low oncotic pressure next to tissue
  • water B to T fluid shift
  • edematous
  • at risk for major nutritional problems bc does not have enough proteins to create muscle mass + maintain protein-based processes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

S&S caused by B to T fluid shifts (fluid volume overload/excess)

A

edema occurs
- under skin
- in lung tissue
- acute CNS changes changes related to swelling of brain cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

edema under skin looks like?

A

skin of feet and/or hands will appear tight & puffy (peripheral edema)
- indentation from poking skin = pitting edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

edema in lung tissue looks like?

A
  • pulmonary edema manifests as cough and/or SOB and/or crackles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

acute CNS changes related to swelling of brain cells causes?

A
  • restlessness
  • confusion
  • unconsciousness
  • convulsions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

see ____ serum osmolality in lab work due to edema

A

low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

compensatory mechanism to correct fluid overload is?

A

natriuretic peptide system (NPS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is NPS?

A

1). fluid volume high, right atrium and left ventricle detect that too much fluid is reaching them
2). secrete ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) and BNP (b-type natriuretic peptide)
3). peptide reach kidneys via circulation and simulate them to increase urination (diuresis)
4). fluid volume goes down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

when fluid volume is ____, NPS is suppressed.

A

low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

birth and growth of cells

A

most: well-defined growth and development of structure and function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

as programed by their genetic makeup, cells have different degrees of ________

A

differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

the development of cells is helped along by many hormones such as?

A

erythropoietin and other growth mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

cell death can be the culmination of _____ cycle of cell and/or aging process OR can be a result of a ______ event

A

normal, pathologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

apoptosis

A
  • normal cell death
  • a form of programmed death or cell suicide
  • body gets rid of cells that have been worn out, developed improperly, or have genetic damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

many events and/or triggers can cause injury to cells, upsetting _____, causing some degree of cell _______, and often resulting in some disease or disorder.

A

homeostasis, dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

types/causes of injury to the cell

A
  • ischemia
  • CO poisoning
  • free radicals
  • abnormal cellular accumulation (uric acid and fat)
  • abnormal cellular proliferation (cancer)
  • chemicals, genetic, hypoxia, nutrition, infections, immunologic rxns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

abnormal cell death (____) occurs when a cell is injured and reaches the _____ point on the spectrum.

A

necrosis, irreversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

when there is minor injury to the cell, the injurious changes are?

A
  • reversible
  • cell returns to normal or near-normal homeostasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Inflammation, with various degrees of cell ______and cellular ______, depending on severity of injury can be reversible or irreversible.

A

swelling, leakage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

cellular injury is a ______ in which cellular ____ is affected to a varying degree.

A

continuum, homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what are the influences that affect cellular injury?

A
  • type of cell, level of differentiation, ability to adapt
  • type, severity, duration of injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

the commonality of all injury to cells/tissues is _____, which is one of the first steps to healing.

A

inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

no matter what the cause of the injury, the result is always?

A

some level of disruption to the metabolic pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

sequalae of disruption of metabolic pathway?

A
  • cellular swelling and leakage
  • cellular function abnormalities or complete shut-down
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

pathway of disruption to metabolic pathway

A

1). Injury to cell
2). metabolic pathway disrupted
3). cell has less ATPs
4). malfunction of Na/K pump on cellular membrane
5). Na+ enters cell freely (while K+ freely goes out)
6). water follows Na+ into cell
7). cell swells and cell membrane loses integrity
8). cell leakage of intracellular substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what happens at the same time of the cell swelling and leaking when there is a disruption to the metabolic pathway?

A

1). cell swells
2). ER dilates
3). ribosomes detach
4). disrupted protein synthesis
5). cell fxns become abnormal and/or shut down completely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what is part of almost every disease process in some way?

A

injury and inflammation of various tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

example of injury and/or inflammation as part of a disease process

A

1). (cellulitis) staph aureas attack on skin cells
2). skin cells are injured
3). inflammation
4). metabolic pathway of local cells disrupted
5). water enters cells pathologically
6). cells leak and malfunction
7). S&S of painful, weeping, excoriated areas of skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

as water is pathologically coming in, intracellular substances that are pathologically leaking ___ into immediate surrounding area tissue can eventually find their way into ____ of area and thus into _____ .

A

out, capillaries, bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

_____ lab measurements of intracellular substances are sometimes used as diagnostic and prognostic tools. the higher the _______ measurement, the _____ the damage is.

A

serum, serum, worst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

creatine kinase (CK)

A
  • enzyme found in most muscle cells (including heart)
  • catalyzes transference of phosphate groups btw ADP and ATP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

myoglobin

A

found in most muscle cells

95
Q

troponin

A

a type of protein molecule only found in heart muscle

96
Q

ischemia

A

oxygen deprivation to cells (hypoxia) due to a decrease in arterial circulation to the area

97
Q

underlying mechanisms of ischemia is ______ and/or ____ arteries. can be ____ or _____.

A

narrowed, blocked, acute, chronic

98
Q

acute ischemia

A

hypoxia to tissues from sudden lack of blood supply

99
Q

examples of acute ischemia

A
  • arterial embolus
  • sickle cell crisis
100
Q

arterial embolus

A
  • clot that travels in the arteries
  • gets lodged in a smaller blood vessel (arteriole or capillary)
  • distal tissues to become hypoxic quickly
101
Q

sickle cell crisis

A

abnormally shaped RBCs get stuck in capillaries and decreases blood supply to joints (ischemic pain)

102
Q

chronic ischemia

A

better tolerated bc tissues can adapt to some degree over time

103
Q

examples of chronic ischemia

A
  • gradual narrowing of arteries from atherosclerosis
  • slow-developing clot (thrombus) in leg artery or coronary artery
104
Q

what happens when any ischemic situation (acute or chronic) is not treated?

A

infarction

105
Q

infarction

A

cell death that is specifically caused by lack of arterial blood supply to an area

106
Q

how does infarction happens when a coronary artery is clogged with a clot?

A

1). ischemia to tissues beyond/distal to the clot
2). ischemia not treated
3). progresses to anoxia
4). infarct of distal tissue (Myocardial Infarction “MI)

107
Q

how does infarction happen when the artery to the foot is narrowed by atherosclerosis?

A

1). ischemia to distal tissues
2). infarct of distal tissues

108
Q

how does tissue damage happen when there is unrelieved pressure on the skin (lying immobile)?

A

1). prevents skin capillaries from receiving oxygenated blood (ischemia)
2). tissue injury and breakdown = pressure ulcer/stasis ulcer/bed sore/ decubitus

109
Q

when hypoxia is caused by an arterial circulation problem/interruption, what is it called? what does it lead to?

A

ischemia, infarct

110
Q

hypoxia can lead to?

A

necrosis

111
Q

CO is an _____, _____ gas produced by an incomplete combustion of fuel. People in high risk situations can inhale CO and ________ array of S&S.

A

odorless, colorless, suffer

112
Q

each RBC has about _____ Hgb molecules that each bind to _____ O2 molecules.

A

300, 4

113
Q

when RBCs are carried to the tissues by the arteries, what do they do?

A

Hgbs release their O2 to the cells

114
Q

CO has a high affinity for ______ compared to oxygen. when it binds to _____, what does it form?

A

Hgb, carboxyhemoglobin (HgCO)

115
Q

HgCO prevents _____ from binding to ____. tissues become ______, leading to _____.

A

O2, Hgb, hypoxic, cell damage

116
Q

S&S of CO poisoning

A
  • most relate to nervous system and depend of % of HgCO in body
  • headache
  • giddiness
  • confusion
  • seizures
  • coma
117
Q

treatment of CO poisoning

A

100% O2 by oxygen mask and/or hyperbaric chamber until HgCO levels come down to normal

118
Q

______ is a byproduct of the breakdown of nucleotide purines found in all cells.

A

uric acid

119
Q

____ is a substance converted from ammonia, which is a protein breakdown byproduct.

A

urea

120
Q

abnormal cellular accumulations

A

when substances accumulate in the cells pathologically, can interfere with normal cellular functions and cause cell injury

121
Q

examples of abnormal cellular accumulations

A
  • lipids from fatty liver from dz processes like alcoholism
  • urates (uric acid) accumulation from gout
122
Q

gout

A

systemic disease caused by buildup of uric acids in the blood (hyperuricemia)

123
Q

uric acid is the breakdown product of _____, an organic compound found in all of out cells. normally. we excrete excess uric acid in ____.

A

purine, urine

124
Q

people with gout are unable to process ______ effectively. _____ crystals accumulate and settle in joints, causing ____, ____, ___>

A

uric acid, uric acid, inflammation, swelling, pain

125
Q

where does uric acid crystals often settle?

A
  • first metatarsal joint of the big toe
  • in the ankle joint
126
Q

treatment for gout

A
  • medications
  • diet low in found that is high in purines (red meat, cream sauce, red wine)
127
Q

free radicals

A
  • vandal
  • separate molecule species bc don’t behave like normal atoms or molecules
  • act different bc spin-off of abnormal, accelerated, and/or uncontrolled rxns, esp redox rxns
128
Q

typical generators of free-radical-producing rxns

A
  • simple aging
  • environmental pollutants
  • certain drugs and alc abuse
  • various types of radiation damage (too much sun)
  • certain foods (high in preservatives and charred meat_
129
Q

example of a free radical

A

superoxide (created in our body esp during rapid redox rxns of ETC)

130
Q

how does free radicals reacting with lipids in cell membranes cause problems?

A

lipid peroxidation damage to cell membrane, lead to leaky cells

131
Q

how does free radicals attacking proteins cause problems?

A

attack proteins like transmembrane proteins needed for ion pumps

132
Q

how does free radicals damaging DNA cause problems?

A
  • altered protein synthesis and cause gene mutations
  • mutations can lead to cancer or damage to mitochondria (alters metabolism)
133
Q

how to counteract free radicals?

A
  • vitamins like C and E can stop wild molecule behavior of free radicals
  • body can defuse free radicals by using enzymes (superoxide = superoxide dismutase)
134
Q

direct causes of cellular injury (mechanical trauma)

A
  • contusions (bruises)
  • hematomas (collection of blood in soft tissues or an enclosed space)
  • abrasions (scrapes)
  • lacerations (tear or rip in skin)
135
Q

cell proliferation

A
  • multiplication or reproduction of cells, resulting in rapid expansion of a cell population
  • part of the normal growth and development of cells
136
Q

example of cell proliferation

A
  • hematopoietic system (birthplace of blood cells) in bone marrow
  • basic stem cells differentiate into different types of blood cells that mature, proliferate, and released into blood
137
Q

____ cell proliferation includes dz processes such as ____

A

altered, cancer

138
Q

tumor

A

abnormal mass of tissue that is NOT NEEDED

139
Q

tumor used interchangeably with?

A

neoplasm

140
Q

benign tumors

A
  • slower growth than malignant cells
  • area of growth well-encapsulated + non-metastasizing
  • cells in area of growth fairly well-differentiated + usually resemble tissue they come from
141
Q

example of benign tumor

A

lipoma - benign neoplasm from encapsulated area of fat cells that overgrown

142
Q

malignant tumor is interchangeable with?

A

cancer

143
Q

key characteristic of malignant tumors

A

very rapid growth rate of cells that are poorly differentiated

144
Q

malignant tumors can occur in ______ and/or ____ can occur.

A

a specific site, metastasis

145
Q

example of a malignant tumor growing in a specific site

A

local malignant tumor like cancerous skin lesion

146
Q

metastasis

A
  • propensity of malignant cells to invade sites distant to immediate area
  • major cause of illness + death from most human malignant dz
147
Q

example of a cancer being wide-spread by nature

A

leukemia

148
Q

oncology

A

study or field of cancer

149
Q

basic etiology of cancer is?

A

gene mutations

150
Q

the gene mutations that cause cancer is prompted by what factors?

A
  • normal aging
  • heredity
  • environmental, from free radicals and carcinogens
  • invading organisms
151
Q

how does normal aging factor into cancer?

A

wear and tear of cells -> older age increases the number of “hits” to DNA

152
Q

example of a heredity cause to cancer

A

certain kinds of breast cancer runs in families

153
Q

where do the free radicals and carcinogens that prompt cancer come from?

A
  • use of tobacco, alcohol, and certain drugs
  • ingestion of certain dietary substances (nitrates in preservatives)
  • air pollution
  • UV light (sun)
  • ionizing radiation
  • occupational hazards (abestos_
154
Q

what invading organisms prompt cancer?

A
  • some species of HPV (human papillomavirus) cause cervical cancer in women and are linked to mouth/throat cancer
  • HBV and HCV cause hep B and C and increase risk of liver cancer
155
Q

no matter what the initiating factor that causes accumulation of genetic hits/mutations, when sufficient mutations have occurred, _____ can develop.

A

cancer

156
Q

what is the genetic mutation that sets cancer into motion?

A

oncogene

157
Q

the oncogene promotes?

A

clonal proliferation

158
Q

clonal proliferation

A

a rapid increase in growth and development

159
Q

how does the oncogene promote clonal proliferation?

A
  • stimulating cells to overreact to growth factor signals to cause wild, rapid dup with very little diff
  • overriding normal braking signals
  • stimulating the development of tumor cells’ own blood supply (angiogenesis)
160
Q

instead of differentiating into a specific tissue type with a specific function, cancer cells do not _________. they stay in a _____ stage of development and continue to _____.

A

differentiate, younger, replicate.

161
Q

anaplasia

A

loss of differentiation

162
Q

how does angiogenesis contribute to cancer killing people?

A

cancer cells divert nourishment from other cells

163
Q

examples of diagnostic tests for cancers

A
  • CAT scans
  • MRIs
  • biopsies
  • tumor and genetic markers
164
Q

tumor markers

A

substances in the body produced by cancer cells or released by cancer-damaged tissue that can be found in blood, spinal fluid, or urine

165
Q

tumor markers can be?

A

hormone, enzyme, antigen, antibody, gene

166
Q

PSA (prostate specific antigen) is a?

A
  • tumor marker
  • glycoprotein found in prostate gland cells that are released into the blood when cancer invades the prostate
  • can help detect prostate cancer early
167
Q

genetic markers

A

genetic abnormalities that are found in some people that predict odds of having certain types of cancer

168
Q

chronic myeloid (myelocytic or myelogenous) leukemia develops because of?

A

translocation of pieces of the chromosome, causing it to get shortened

169
Q

Philadelphia chromosome

A

short chromosome

170
Q

the genes on the chromosome related to chronic myeloid leukemia code for?

A

WBC creation

171
Q

the chromosome related to chronic myeloid leukemia being shortened or squashed causes?

A

1). disruption in normal coding
2) overproduction of leukocytes in the bone marrow + release to blood
3). extreme leukocytosis
4). leukemia

172
Q

CML diagnosis is _____ when bone marrow sample is taken and the _____ chromosome is seen in the WBCs

A

clinched, Philadelphia

173
Q

leukocytosis

A
  • generic term that means condition of too many WBCs in blood
  • can develop in many disease processes
174
Q

leukemia is a ____. one sign of leukemia is ____>

A

diagnosis (the disease in itself), leukocytosis

175
Q

biopsies can help to ____ and then ___ the tumor (how far along it is in its growth). knowing the _____ is important in ____ and _____.

A

diagnose, stage, staging, treatment, prognosis

176
Q

TNM staging

A
  • T: size of tumor
  • N: extent of lymph nodes involvement
  • M: metastasis (“mets”), spread to other tissues beyond local lymph nodes
177
Q

levels of T of TNM

A
  • T0: no cancer cells
  • T1-T3: cancerous tumor size, increasing severity and poorer prognosis with higher #
178
Q

levels of N of TNM

A
  • N0: no lymph node involvement
  • N1-N3: nodes involved (usually ones closest to the cancer site, increasing severity and poorer prognosis w/ higher #)
179
Q

levels of M in TNM

A
  • M0: no metastasis
  • M1-M3: mets present, increasing severity and poorer prognosis with higher #
180
Q

T0N0M0 means?

A

growth that is entirely benign

181
Q

benign tumors classification/naming

A
  • first part of name is usually tissue involved
  • usually ends in oma
  • ex: lipoma (fatty tissue growth) or leiomyoma (benign tumor of smooth muscle)
182
Q

malignancies classification/naming

A
  • named according to cell type of origin in addition to oma
  • usually has root words like carcino, sarco, or blasto
183
Q

malignancies involving epithelial tissue usually have _____ plus _____ of origin.

A

carcinoma, organ

184
Q

examples of epithelial tissue malignancies

A
  • surface epithelium: carcinoma; hepatocellular carcinoma or basal cell skin carcinoma
  • glandular tissue: adeno, adenocarcinoma
185
Q

benign tumor of the gland would be?

A

adenoma

186
Q

malignancies involving connective tissue usually have ______ plus organ of origin

A

sarcoma

187
Q

examples of connective tissue malignancies class/name

A
  • bone: osteosarcoma
  • cartilage: chondrosarcoma
  • blood vessels: hemangiosarcoma
188
Q

osteoma

A

benign bone tumor

189
Q

malignancies involving muscle tissue usually have specific muscle type plus _____ plus ____>

A

sarcoma, myo

190
Q

examples of muscle tissue malignancies class/name

A
  • leiomyosarcoma (smooth)
  • rhabdomyosarcoma (striated/skeletal muscle)
191
Q

malignant tumors involving neural tissue usually have a specific nerve type plus ________.

A

blastoma (blast refers to any cell early in development)

192
Q

example of neural tissue malignancies class/name

A
  • neuroblastoma: malignant tumor of nerve cell
193
Q

neuroma

A

benign nerve cell tumor

194
Q

malignancy of lymph tissue

A

lymphoma

195
Q

is Hodgkin’s lymphoma benign or malignant?

A

malignant - type of lymphatic cancer

196
Q

malignant skin cancer

A

melanoma

197
Q

example of malignancy of hematological tissue

A

leukemia (WBCs cancer)

198
Q

S&S of cancer

A
  • pain
  • fatigue due partly to angiogenesis of tumor cells
  • cachexia due to angiogenesis and other factors
  • hematologic alterations
199
Q

pain S&S of cancer

A
  • inflammation and nerve irritation in the area causes pain
  • initially might not be pain bc malignant cells don’t crowd other cells - just kill of other cells and take over space
200
Q

how does fatigue S&S of cancer work?

A

the angiogenesis of tumor cells - tumor cells leech nutrition from normal cells by diverting blood supply

201
Q

what is the cachexia S&S of cancer?

A
  • a syndrome that includes anorexia, early satiety, weight loss, weakness, altered cellular metabolism
  • patients have sunken features and generally malnourished appearance
202
Q

examples of hematologic alterations S&S of cancer

A
  • anemia
  • leukopenia
  • thrombocytopenia
203
Q

adaptation

A

process of accommodating to a new situation the body is undergoing, or creating a new state to accommodate changes in the environment/situation; temporary or permanent

204
Q

adaption can be a response to?

A
  • physiologic conditions
  • pathologic conditions
205
Q

physiologic condition in which adaption is a response looks like?

A
  • normal
  • ex: tissues of the uterus enlarge and increase in pregnancy
206
Q

pathologic conditions in which adaptation is a response looks like?

A
  • abnormal
  • ex: high BP cause the heart to enlarge bc has to work harder to maintain cardiac output in the face of more resistance
207
Q

forms of adaption

A
  • atrophy
  • hypertrophy
  • hyperplasia
  • metaplasia
  • dysplasia
208
Q

atrophy

A

disease or shrinkage in cellular size

209
Q

physiologic atrophy

A

occurs in early development (ex: thymus gland)

210
Q

pathologic atrophy often occurs as result of decreases in ______ _____ - an area or organ is ___ ___ _______ very much to do its work, so the cells _____.

A

work load, no longer stimulated, shrink

211
Q

example of atrophy

A

disuse atrophy

212
Q

when does disuse atrophy happen?

A
  • patient in bed for a long time or immobilized in some way
  • having a case (cells shrink while cast is on, then slowly grow back to normal when cast is off and stimulated to work again)
213
Q

hypertrophy

A

increase in size of cells and consequently size of organ

214
Q

hypertrophy is caused by ____ _____ or increased ______ _______, which results in ____ of cellular ______, not cellular fluid.

A

hormonal stimulation, functional demand, accumulation, proteins

215
Q

physiologic examples of hypertrophy

A
  • heavy work, working out leads to hypertrophy of skeletal muscles
  • kidney removed leads to other kidney increases function and size of cells
216
Q

pathologic example of hypertrophy

A
  • hypertrophy of left ventricle due to from it trying to fight against hypertension (HTN)
  • cardiac hypertrophy
217
Q

cardiac hypertrophy is a compensatory resp to a bad situation. as a large muscle, the heart can overcome the ______ presented by ____. eventually the heart can get too ____ and will _____.

A

resistance, HTN, big, decompensate

218
Q

hyperplasia

A

increase in number of cells resulting from increased rate of cell division

219
Q

physiologic example of hyperplasia

A
  • certain organs can regenerate using hyperplasia
  • ex: removal of part of liver leads to hyperplasia of liver cells (hepatocytes); even with removal of 70% of liver, regeneration is complete in 2 wks
220
Q

pathologic hyperplasia

A
  • benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH); man gets older, prostate enlarges from increase #s of cells
  • pathology that is very common in men over 50
221
Q

metaplasia

A
  • reversible replacement of one mature cell by another type of less differentiated (less specialized) mature cell
  • happens when cells are being subjected to chronic injury or irritation
222
Q

metaplasia example

A
  • normal columnar ciliated epithelial cells of bronchial linings in smokers’ lungs are replaced by stratified squamous epithelial cells
  • reverse and normalize when irritant is removed
223
Q

dysplasia

A

abnormal changes in size, shape, and organization of mature cells due to persistent, severe cell injury or irritation

224
Q

dysplasia is sometimes called _____ because the cells are much less _______ than normal, but not quite as _____ and _____ as cancer cells.

A

pre-cancer, differentiated, undifferentiated and disorganized

225
Q

the ____ the differentiation, the lower the function, the _____ specialized, the _____ likely to divide and proliferate, _____ potential to be disorganized and cancer like

A

less, less, more, more

226
Q

example of dysplasia

A

PAP smears can revel dysplastic cells of cervix that often must undergo laser-type treatment or close watching to make sure they do not deteriorate into cervical cancer

227
Q

immobility

A

an alteration in mobility as result of an acute (recent surgery, bone fracture, pneumonia, or new disease state) or chronic illness (sequel from a stroke/BA or long-standing disease)

228
Q

most disease and rehabilitative states involve some degree of?

A

immobility

229
Q

the longer a patient remains _____, the ____ the level of debilitation that will occur

A

immobile, greater

230
Q

what systems (that were specifically mentioned) are involved with the potential complications of immobility?

A
  • integumentary
  • musculoskeletal
231
Q

integumentary complications of immobility

A

risk for the development of pressure ulcers (ischemia) and/or skin breakdown

232
Q

musculoskeletal complications of immobility

A

muscle cells shrink when no longer stimulated to do much work - disuse atrophy

233
Q

treatment/nursing interventions for immobility

A
  • frequent repositioning/turning of bedbound patients
  • encourage early activity and ambulation
  • check skin for breakdown
  • use of protective devices for the skin, feet/heels/elbows
  • ensure adequate nutrition and hydration
  • educate patients + families on the risks of immobility