Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Rosh Review > Rosh review 1 > Flashcards

Rosh review 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Whats the dose of propofol for procedural sedation

A

0.5 to 1 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Treatment for Corneal abrasion?

A

Topical Abx:

  • Erythromycin ointment
  • Cipro drops
  • Contact lenses = need tx for Psudomonas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Classic phys exam finding associated with Endophthalmitis?

A

Hypopyon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Induction agent of choice for RSI of severe asthma exac

A

Ketamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mechnical vent settings for Asthma patient?

A

Objective = maximize expiratory time

  • Low RR
  • High insp flow rate
  • maintain plateau press > 30
  • Permissive hypercapnia to avoid breath stacking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Neonatal fever: what is fluid admin. rate and what is antibiotic choice?

A
  • 20 mL/Kg

- Ampicillin and Cefotxime (consider Acyclovir)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Suspected Meningitis in pt >65 years old, what should antibiotic choice be?

A
  • Ampicillin (Listeria)
  • Ceftriaxone
  • Vancomycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is normal Retropharyngeal space width in children on Lateral plain film?

A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is initial therapy for HIV patient with PNA in whom you expect a low CD4 count ?

A

Cover PCP, especially if hypoxic

  • Azithro
  • Ceftriaxone
  • Bactrim
  • +/- Prednisone (PaO2 35 mm/Hg)

*Alternative PCP treatment = Pentamidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Initial tx of ITP?

A
  • Prednisone + IVIG

* Platelets only if life-threatening hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Clinical/lab features of TTP?

A
  • Fever
  • Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • MS changes
  • Renal failure

*Tx = Plasmapheresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Tx of Thyroid storm 2/2 exogenous thyroid consumption?

A
  • Beta blocker (propanolol)

- Dexamethasone (blocks periph conversion of T4 to T3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tx of endogenous thyroid storm?

A
  • BB
  • Dexamethasone
  • PTU or methimazole (blocks thyroid hormone production)
  • Potassium-Iodide (blocks release from gland)

*PTU should be given at least 1 hr prior to K-I, otherwise K-I can cause incr hormone production by gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Jones criteria for Dx of Acute Rheumatic fever?

A

Major criteria:

  • Carditis (including valve)
  • Polyarthritis
  • Chorea
  • Subq nodules
  • Erythema marginatum

Minor criteria:

  • Fever
  • Arthralgia
  • Elevated ESR or CRP
  • Prolonged PR interval on EKG

*Need 2 major, or 1 major + 2 minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What can cause exaggerated, super deep inverted T waves on EKG with QT prolongation ?

A

-Cerebral T waves

Casued by incr ICP from ICH, SAH, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

For WPW pt….Give _____ drug ______ mg IV

A

Procainamide

100 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tx for HF acid exposure?

A
  • Ca-gluconate (topical + IV)

* Fluoride bind calcium and Mg avidly, decr calcium in blood –> Dysrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 5 major classes of QT prolonging drugs?

A

antidysrhythmics

nonsedating antihistamines, macrolide antibiotics, antidepressants, and antipsychotics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Management of decompression illness? (4 things)

A
  • 100% O2
  • IV fluids
  • Aspirin
  • hyperbaric chamber
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What lab value can be abnormal in HIV pts with PCP PNA?

A

Incr LDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

EKG differentiating factors in TCA overdose vs other anticholinergic overdose?

A

TCA:

  • QRS prolongation
  • Terminal R wave in AvR (big R wave…R:S ration >0.7)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When does Ibuprofen toxicity occur following ingestion?

A

typically within 4 hours, and typically mild stuff. Always check a tylenol level too

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Diagnosis in a child 3-6ish, who had recent URI which turned into suddenly worsening High fever, stridor, cough, toxic appearance?

Organism?

Management?

A
  • Bacterial tracheitis (like croup but bacterial, more toxic appearing)
  • Staph Aureus
  • IV Abx, fluids, OR intubation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tx of Meniere’s dz?

A

Thiazide diuretic

-inhibits Na rab in distal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What vital sign abnormality might you expect in ruptured ectopic, but can be absent? And why?

A
  • Tachycardia.

- Pts can have a reflex Bradycardia 2/2 vagal nerve irritation in peritoneal cavity

26
Q

How is pH affected by cooling in pt’s with arrest?

A

Decreases (falsely)

27
Q

Which factor is deficient in Hemophilia A?

A

Factor 8

-use recombinant factor 8, cryoprecipitate, or FFP

28
Q

Serotonin syndrome Clinical presentation:

A
  1. MS changes
    - Agitation, pressured speech
  2. Autonomic instability
    - Tachy, diarrhea, sweating, mydriasis, shivering
  3. Neuromusc. abnormalities:
    - Clonus, Hyperreflexia (lower>upper), tremor, seizure
29
Q

Serotonin synd tx?

A
  • Benzos
  • Hydration + cooling
  • Cyproheptadine
30
Q

Mnemonic and list of unstable C-spine fractures/dislocations?

A

-Jefferson Bit Off a Hangman’s thumb.

  • Jefferson burst fracture
  • bilateral facet dislocation
  • Odontoid type 2 and type 3 fractures
  • Hangman’s fracture (any fracture involving dislocation)
31
Q

What are the five NEXUS criteria for clinically clearing the cervical spine?

A
  • No focal neurologic deficits -normal alertness
  • no evidence of intoxication –no distracting injuries
  • no posterior midline cervical tenderness.
32
Q

Dangerous effect of inhaled hydrocarbons? treatment?

A

Cardiac sensitization –> inciting event causing catecholamin surge –> Incr sensitivity with catechol –> dysrhythmia

Tx = Beta blockers

33
Q

In anaphylaxis, what is the Epi dose for mild symptoms in adults vs children?

What’s the dose for severe symptoms in adults vs children?

A

Mild:

  • Adults: 0.3 to 0.5 mL 1:1000 solution IM q15 minutes
  • Children: 0.01 mL/kg 1:1000 solution IM q15 minutes

Severe:

  • Adults: 1-5 mL 1:10,000 solution IV over 10 minutes
  • Children: 0.01 mL/kg 1:10,000 solution IV prn
34
Q

What are characteristics of complex febrile seizures?

A
  • multiple seizures during same febrile illness
  • prolonged seizures (>15 minutes)
  • Focal component of seizures

*simple febrile seizures are generalized

35
Q

Treatment of choice in Acute otitis media?

A

-Amoxicillin 90 mg/kg per day divided into 2–3 doses for 10 days (high-dose amoxicillin)

36
Q

Treatment (including duration) for bacterial prostatitis?

A

4-6 week course of oral ciprofloxacin or trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

If systemic infection, unstable, etc –> admit

37
Q

What is the dosing of alteplase for massive pulmonary embolism?

A

100 mg IV over 2 hours

38
Q

What are treatment options for stable V-tach?

A
  • Amiodarone
  • Procainamide
  • Lidocaine
39
Q

What small bowel diameter on radiographs indicates small bowel dilatation?

A

3 cm or more.

40
Q

Why do you not want to give NSAIDs to a transplant patient on Cyclosporine?

A

-It can worsen or precipitate renal failure since cyclosporine already causes renal damage on its own

41
Q

What is the recommended energy level for pediatric cardioversion?

A

0.5-1 J/kg.

42
Q

What are clinical features of Coarctation of aorta?

A
  • CHF possible
  • HTN
  • Bounding pulses in UE, weak in LE
  • Rib notching on CXR
43
Q

Treatment of Tylenol tox with NAC needs to be initiated within ______ hours of ingestion

A

8

44
Q

Describe the phases of tylenol toxicity

A

1 - < 24 hrs. Vague, anorexia, N/V

2- 1 to 3 days. Transaminitis, elev INR, incr Bili, RUQ pain

3 - 3 to 4 days. Fulm hep failure, multiorgan failure

45
Q

Name 2 potential US findings with ovarian torsion (not including decr/absent flow)

A
  • Ovarian enlargement

- Peripherally displaced follicles

46
Q

Which classes of Abx are most commonly assoc with C diff?

A

Lincosamides (clinda) , Cephalosporins, Fluoroquinolones

47
Q

A bradycardic patient who fails to respond to Atropine can get ______ or _____?

A

Epinephrine or Dopamine

48
Q

What are some EKG findings assoc. with Hypokalemia?

A
  • QT prolongation
  • Incr amplitude and widening of P wave
  • Flattened or inverted T waves
  • U waves ** (upward deflection following T wave)
49
Q

What are some digitalis effects on EKG?

A
  • Downward sloping ST segments
  • Flattened, inverted, or biphasic T waves
  • Shortened QT segment
50
Q

What are the EKG findings assoc with Brugada syndrome?

A
  • Incomplete RBBB

- ST segment elev in leads V1 thru V3

51
Q

What nerve is commonly injured in knee dislocations?

A

Peroneal nerve (common fibular)

52
Q

When an Rh negative mom miscarries….administer _____ug of rhoGam within _____ hours

A
  • 300
  • 72

*this is true even if she’s received Rhogam with previous pregnancies

53
Q

What are some drugs you can give to lower IOP?

A
  • topical BB (Timolol)
  • Topical alpha agonists
  • Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (Acetazolamide po, IV, topical)
  • IV mannitol

**In sickle cell pts with hyphema which can cause incr IOP, dont give acetazolamide bc it can incr sickling

54
Q

First line Abx for pts with post-partum endometritis?

**2-3 days post c-section, fever, abd/pelv pain, foul smelling discharge, incr WBC

A

-Clinda + Gentamycin

55
Q

how much pRBC should a child get if they have already been fluid resucitated with NS?

A

-10 mL/Kg

56
Q

What is the formula for calculating the minimum systolic blood pressure in a child?

A

Minimum SBP = 70 + (2 x age in years).

57
Q

Which antibiotic should be prescribed to cover marine bacteria in seawater-associated wounds?

A

A third-generation cephalosporin or fluoroquinolone to cover Vibrio species

58
Q

Patient presenting with the following CVA Sx:

  • Vertigo
  • ipsilateral Horner’s
  • ipsilateral facial numbness
  • contralateral trunk and limb sensory loss
  • Bulbar symptoms

What area is infarcted?

What artery?

Name of this syndrome?

A
  • Lateral Medulla
  • Vertebral artery
  • Wallenberg syndrome
59
Q

Patient presents with stroke symptoms that include coma, quadriplegia, “locked in syndrome”

What artery was occluded?

A

Basilar Artery

60
Q

Patient presents with stroke symptoms that include:

  • Aphasia or neglect
  • homonymous hemianopsia contralateral
  • Contralateral focal deficits to extremities worse in upper

What artery is occluded?

A

MCA

Rosh Review (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions