Roentgen Signs Flashcards

1
Q

5 Radiographic Densities

A
– Air
– Fat
– Water
– Bone
– Metal
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2
Q

______ determines if further imaging

is indicated

A

Plain film radiography

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3
Q

Need at least ______ decarse in bone density to see lesion in Conventional Radiography

A

30-50%

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4
Q

Need a lesion at least _____ in size to detect

Conventional Radiography

A

1-5cm

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5
Q

Time until a lesion is seen by plain film radiography

A

Radiographic Latent Period

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6
Q

Osteomyelitis in peripheral bone radiographic latent period

A

10-14 days

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7
Q

Spinal osteomyelitis radiographic latent period

A

21 days

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8
Q

Aggressive tumors radiographic latent period

A

4-6 weeks

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9
Q

– Trauma – Unexplained weight loss – Night pain – Motor deficit – Malignancy

A

red flag

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10
Q

– Inflammatory arthritis – Fever of unknown origin – Abnormal blood results – Deformity

A

red flag

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11
Q

– Failure to respond to therapy – Medicolegal concerns

A

red flag

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12
Q

– >50 yo – Drug or alcohol abuse – Corticosteroid use – Old or lost previous x rays – Research

A

yellow flag

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13
Q

– Systemic disease – Recent immigration – Rule out contraindications – Therapeutic response

A

yellow flag

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14
Q

– Patient education – Routine screening – Habit – Discharge status assessment – Routine biomechanical analysis – Pre-employment status

A

non indicators

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15
Q

– Physical limitations of patient – Inadequate equipment – Non-trained personnel – Financial gain – Recent high-level radiation exposure – Pregnancy

A

non indicators

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16
Q

evidence-based guidelines to assist referring
physicians and other providers in making the
most appropriate imaging or treatment decision for a specific clinical condition.

A

The ACR Appropriateness Criteria

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17
Q

Injection of water soluble iodinated contrast into IVD’s nucleus
pulposus via fluoroscopic control in order to determine pain
generator

A

Discography

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18
Q

Radionuclide Imaging

A

Bone Scan

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19
Q

used to identify pars fractures (gymnastic athletes)

A

SPECT Scan

“Single-Photon Emission Computed Tomography”

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20
Q

detects:
Metastatic disease
Tumors Infection Arthritis Fracture (occult, stress, recent fx) Avascular Necrosis (AVN)

A

bone scan

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21
Q

– Detects as little as 3-5% bone destruction/production
– 10x more sensitive than plain film radiography
– Great for early detection of many disease processes

A

bone scan

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22
Q

No uptake in Multiple Myeloma unless pathological

fracture

A

bone scan

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23
Q

vascular dz
msk disorders
abdominal and pelvic imaging

A

diagnostic ultrasound

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24
Q

high level of radiation dose

excellent bone detail

A

Computed Tomography (CT)

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25
Mathematical Data from Axial Images is Reformatted rendering Sagittal Lumbar Spine Image
Computed Tomography (CT)
26
excellent for soft tissue resolution very sensitive for detecting bone marrow dz great for spinal dz, especially disc dz
MR
27
Model of bone structure formed by condensed mesenchymal cells after which bone is formed • Skull • Clavicles • Mandible
Intramembranous Ossification
28
Controls width of long bones via activity of periosteum
Appositional Bone Growth
29
– Osteoblasts transform cartilage template into bone • Tubular bones • Vertebrae – Chondroblasts and chondrocytes form and produce a cartilage cast of the definitive bone
Enchondral Ossification
30
surrounds bone except at ends of bone
Periosteum
31
Located at ends of long bones
Epiphysis
32
Consists of layers of progressively maturing cartilage & developing bone
Physis
33
Harris Growth Arrest (Park) Lines
growth arrest during systemic disease
34
Thin radiopaque line at junction of | physis and metaphysis
Zone of Provisional Calcification (ZOPC)
35
* Most metabolically active region of a bone | * Most common site for tumors and infection
Metaphysis
36
(bones appear wider than usual)
Undertubulation
37
(bones appear slender)
Overtubulation
38
• Longest part of bone • Thickened cortex and decreased medullary space • Provides mechanical strength and contains bone marrow
Diaphysis = Shaft
39
• Densest and strongest part of bone • Densely packed compact lamellar bone and osteons and is interconnected by Haversion canal systems
Cortex
40
predominates in all bones in children
Red marrow
41
Adults have red marrow only in
axial skeleton, | epiphyses, and metaphyses
42
• Does not cover epiphysis; does not enter synovial joint. Forms synovial lining of synovial joint. • Thin membrane covering diaphysis and metaphysis
Periosteum
43
produced due to pus, blood or tumors produced due irritation or elevation from bone
Periosteal Reactions
44
Trabeculae and inner cortical margins are covered by ______ that has osteogenic properties
endosteum
45
– May be separated from bone by a thin layer of soft tissue – Originates in muscle, nerve, arterial, or synovial tissue – May see pressure erosion of bone with sclerotic margin – Do not originate in bone
Extraosseous Lesions - bone dz
46
``` – Lytic lesions such as fibrous dysplasia, and cartilaginous lesions the endosteal surface of the medullary cavity – Thinning of the cortex along ```
Endosteal Scalloping - bone dz
47
``` – Poor, hazy, ill defined margins, long zone of transition – Gradation between normal and abnormal bone occurs gradually – Indicates aggressive bone destruction • Infections • Malignancy ```
Imperceptible Margination - bone dz
48
– Definite and sclerotic margins – Narrow zone of transition – Clear identification between normal and abnormal bone – Usually slow growing lesion
Sharp Margination - bone dz
49
Loss of bone density and structure
Osteolytic Lesions
50
– Circumscribed lesion – Uniformly lytic lesion – Usually solitary – >1cm – Sharp margin – Usually slower growing and are usually benign – May be septated or soap bubbly
Geographic Lesion
51
– Multiple, poorly defined, small radiolucent lesions – 2-5mm in size – Ragged irregular margins of lesions – Confluence of lesions occurs – Aggressive lytic lesions • Multiple myeloma • Metastatic disease • Infection
Moth-Eaten Lesion
52
``` – Numerous, tiny, pinhole size lesions – < 1.0mm in size – Wide zone of transition – Most rapidly aggressive bone tumors – Easily missed on conventional radiography ```
Permeative Lesion
53
– Increased density due to overproduction of bone or calcium laden tissue – Blastic Metastasis – Osteosarcoma – Paget’s Disease
Osteoblastic Lesions
54
– Continuous layer of new bone that attaches | to outer cortex – Usually benign process – Slow disease process – Elliptical, undulating, continuous
Solid Periosteal Reaction
55
– Slow and aggressive tumors – Infection – Ewing’s Sarcoma – Alternating layers of lucent and opaque densities on external cortical surface – Radiolucent zones contain loose connective tissue and dilated blood vessels that have not ossified
Laminated: Lamellated, Onionskin
56
``` – Perpendicular, brushed whiskers, hair on end – Sunburst: radiating spicules of bone from a point source – Aggressive tumors – Fine linear spiculations of new bone perpendicularly oriented away from cortex ```
Spiculated Periosteal | Reactions
57
``` Periosteal new bone at the peripheral lesion – cortex junction as result of subperiosteal extension of lesion • Primary malignant bone tumors • Benign bone tumors • Infections ```
Codman’s Triangle
58
Increased soft tissue density
Synovial Sarcoma
59
Soft Tissue Calcification
Synovial Sarcoma
60
– Increased tendency of rbc’s to precipitate out due to increased concentrations of fibrinogen – Nonspecific index for disease – Especially good for Inflammatory Diseases
ESR: Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
61
– Due to inflammatory changes or tissue necrosis – Released by liver – Nonspecific
CRP: C - Reactive Protein
62
– Normally within strict limits – Disorders of bone destruction – Disorders of increased parathormone activity
Serum Calcium
63
– Indicator of bone destruction – Important indicator of bone activity – Inverse relationships to calcium levels
Serum Phosphorus
64
– Reflects an increase in osteoblastic activity | – Paget’s disease – Metastatic disease – Healing fractures – Lymphoma
Alkaline Phosphatase
65
``` • Metastatic lesions in bone and soft tissue liberate acid phosphatase – Located in prostate gland – Increased in Prostate metastasis and Gaucher’s disease – Capsule of prostate must be disrupted ```
Acid Phosphatase
66
– Multiple Myeloma: • IgG spike • IgA spike • Bence Jones proteinuria (40%) of patients with MM – Elevated total serum protein often indicates metastatic disease or multiple myeloma
Total Protein