Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Career Tech LMC > Rockwell Automation > Flashcards

Rockwell Automation Flashcards

1
Q

Which is true of all overload relays?

A

All overloads have a normally closed ‘trip’ contact.
They are required for most motor circuits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

E100 Solid State overload relay selection
Select an E-100 solid state overload relay. The overload must directly mount to a NEMA Bulletin 500 Size 1 contactor.
Motor Data
Full load current - 13.5 amps
Class 20 Protection

A

592-1EFDC, 592-1EFEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Auxiliary Contacts

A

Use in control circuits or to provide indication or feedback status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Coil

A

Must be energized for the starter to turn on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hold-In Contact

A

Normally open contacts used for 3-wire control circuits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Power Contacts

A

Normally open contacts that when closed apply voltage to the motor terminals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following is not true of contacts?

A

Power contacts are optional.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is not true of reversing starters?

A

Separate overloads operate the motor in both directions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Combination Starter

A

This starter also includes a disconnect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Full Voltage Starter

A

This starter transfers the line (system) voltage to the motor terminals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

IEC Enclosed Starter Selection
Enclosed IEC starter non-reversing:
Plastic enclosure Outdoor and NEMA 4X rating
Smallest possible enclosed starter
System Voltage 480 V AC
Control Voltage 120 V AC
Motor 2hp
On/Run Pilot Light
Blue Reset Push Button
Bimetallic Overload Relay

A

109-C09KDB40-4R-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

NEMA Starter Selection
Bulletin 509 Enclosed Starter
Stainless Steel Enclosure Type 4X
Motor Information: 10 HP 460V AC 60hz
Coil Voltage 24V AC 60hz
Overload Type - Heater type
Modifications:
Start and Stop Push-buttons
Red Pilot Light
Note: Modular Kits
Modular kitting is offered with open style NEMA Starters Sizes 0-4. Stocked modular components are shipped in a single carton. The starter will appear as one item with one catalog number.

A

509-BCJ-1-4R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

NEMA Starter Selection
NEMA design Bulletin 509 in a Modular Kit
Open Style
Motor Information: 3 HP 460V AC 60hz
Coil Voltage 120V AC 60hz
Overload Type - Euclectic (heater type)
Modifications:
Surge Suppressor
1 Normally Open, 1 Normally Closed Auxiliary Contacts
Note: Modular Kits
Modular kitting is offered with open style NEMA Starters Sizes 0-4. Stocked modular components are shipped in a single carton. The starter will appear as one item with one catalog number.

A

509-AOD-17-901

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

NEMA Starter Selection
Full Voltage Reversing Starter
Traditional design using NEMA 500 line contactors
Motor Information: 25HP 460V AC 60hz
Coil Voltage 120V AC 60hz
Overload Type - Euclectic
Normally Open Auxiliary on each contactor

A

505-COD-90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Inductive proximity sensors detect which types of targets?

A

Inductive proximity sensors only detect metal targets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which inductive proximity family is the most cost effective?

A

The 872C WorldProx is a general purpose cylindrical proximity sensor and is the most cost effective proximity sensor line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which inductive proximity family features a mental sensing face?

A

The 871TM is the only listed model with a metal sensing face. The others have plastic sensing faces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which inductive proximity family features a mental sensing face?

A

The 871TM is the only listed model with a metal sensing face. The others have plastic sensing faces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Rank the sensing modes from the most reliable detection to the least reliable dfetection.

A

1.Transmitted Beam
2.Polarized Retroreflective
3.Standard Retroreflective
4.Background Suppression
5.Standard Diffuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following would be a typical response time for a standard discrete DC photoelectric sensor?

A

1 ms is a typical response time for a standard DC photoelectric sensor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A retroreflective sensor turns its output ON when the target is present and OFF when no target is detected. Is the output Light Operate (LO) or Dark Operate (DO)?

A

Dark Operate (DO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Background Suppression is more reliable than which other sensing mode or modes?

A

Standard Diffuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Because of their reliance on sound waves, ultrasonic sensors have relatively poor repeatability

A

False. The speed of sound is constant in a given media at a given temperature. As a result, ultrasonic sensors have excellent repeatability - typically around 0.1% of the maximum sensing range. For example, an 873P with a maximum range of 900mm has a repeatability of +/- 0.9mm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Conventional Thermal Overloads are only able to provide the following information?

A

Tripped condition - Motor offline - Production lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What kind of diagnostic data are we getting from the Smart Motor Control Device?

A

Location of motor
Nature of alarm condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What information do we have available to inform an operator about the location of a sensor?

A

ASN (Application Specific Naming)
Sensor location information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How can we detect incorrect wiring during commissioning?

A

by using Smart Sensor diagnostic information
by using electronic keying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which technology does RA offer for Track and Trace?

A

RFID System (Bulletin 56RF)
Code Reader Camera (Bulletin 48CR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What kind of data can we track with Ident products

A

Production Data
2D Code Data
Logistical Data
Barcode Data
LOT Code Data
Quality Data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Why does time stamping help to improve the machine performance?

A

time stamping is used to synchronize sensor to actor function
to optimize infeed speed of a machine
to measure how long it took to solve an event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A system consists of a fast robotic arm that can operate in three distinct areas - Loading, stamping, and unloading. The stamping operation itself is a hazard. The feeder mechanism in the load area has a pinch point hazard. The material load and unload areas are each protected by light curtains. Loading and unloading are performed manually and the operators’ arms do pass through the light curtains for each of these operations. It is not possible to access the other areas of the machine through either light curtain. There is a maintenance access door that is protected with a safety locking mechanism and monitored with a safety switch. This door allows access to the whole machine. There is a multi-zone laser scanner that is capable of detecting a person anywhere in the machine area that must be clear prior to a system restart. What is the maximum number of safety zones that can be implemented on this system?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which safety circuit Categories (CAT) are dual channel?

A

CAT 3 and CAT 4 are dual channel circuit structures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a reason to use a Programmable Safety Controller instead of a Safety Monitoring Relay?

A

For increased application flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

1791 Compact Block Guard I/O modules can be configured for safety related analog inputs.

A

False. Safety related analog inputs are only available in 1734 Point I/O.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the key features of the SmartGuard stand-alone safety controller?

A

The ability to communicate diagnostic information via EtherNet/IP
The inclusion of embedded (local) safety I/O
The ability to send and receive CIP safety messages via DeviceNet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

An L71S processor must be used with a 1756-LSP safety partner to achieve SIL3.

A

False. An L71S is used with a 1756-L7SP, not the -LSP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which drive is optimized for HVAC fan control?

A

The Powerflex 400 is optimized for HVAC fan control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The PowerFlex 525 does not have:

A

The PowerFlex 525 does not have Torque Regulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which drive does not offer the 7th IGBT for dynamic braking?

A

PowerFlex 400 does not offer the 7th IGBT for dynamic braking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a feature of compact class drives?

A

Torque Prove capability is NOT a feature of compact class drives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Active Front End (AFE) technology controls which of the following processes within PowerFlex 755T drives?

A

Mitigates harmonic distortion
Return excess energy back to the power source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which factors below improve energy efficiency?

A

Powering down unused equipment
Proper tuning of drive to the application
Optimized move types
Reuse the energy from a motor operating as a generator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Optimized Move Types

A

Fine tunes the acceleration and deceleration response of a drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Drive Efficiency

A

A fundamental characteristic, based on ratio of power output and power input.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

This feature provides a path for different drives to share DC energy:

A

Common Bus System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Provides tighter control of moving parts, which reduces wear and saves on material costs

A

Adaptive Tuning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Automatically compensates for changing inertia, compliance, and low frequency resonances

A

Load Observer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which Autotuning mode would be used if the inertia of the motor is not known?

A

10:910=InertialMotor, Motor Inertia Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Torque filters address resonances in which frequency range?

A

Mid Frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the possible benefits of torque filters?

A

Reduced machine maintenance
Energy savings
Shorter commissioning time
Extended product life
Accounts for machine variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Removing a mechanical control device (damper or valve) and using a PowerFlex drive to control the motor provides which benefits?

A

Motor runs at the speed required by the application
Current draw determined by load needs
Control initial current draw and minimize noise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which are true of modular stack lgihts?

A

They are available with steady or flashing operation.
The light modules can be assembled in any order.
Each light module can be replaced without replacing the whole stack light.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the advantage/s of having an in-line sound module with the 856T Control Tower Stack light?

A

The top level is available for other modules such as a beacon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

True or False. Before the enclosure door can be opened the disconnect switch must be turned off.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Combination Starter uses a disconnect handle that is mounted on the flange.

A

NEMA Combination starters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

This combination starter has the smallest form size.

A

IEC combination starter in a plastic enclosure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

512 Combination Starter Selection
Line (System) Voltage 240 Volts - 3 phase
Enclosure: Reset in Door. Dust-tight, Outdoor Use.
Fusible Disconnect: Class R 60-amp fuse clips
Motor Overload protection - Eutectic Overload
Motor information-Full voltage non-reversing. 230 Volts AC 15 horsepower
Control Voltage 120 Volt AC (customer supplied)
Start-Stop Pushbutons
Red Pilot Light (start) Green Pilot Light (stop)
Auxiliary Contacts: 1 N.O. auxiliary on contactor. 1 N.O. auxiliary on disconnect.

A

512-CFAD-1-4RG-25R-908

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When implementing device hardening as part of a defense-in-depth strategy, which protocol would be used for troubleshooting problems on the network?

A

When implementing device hardening as part of a defense-in-depth strategy, use SNMPv3 for troubleshooting problems on the network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which of the following are methods for securing network access?

A

Firewalls, intrusion protection, and intrusion detection are used for securing network access.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which of the following is at the core or center of the Defense-in-Depth Strategy Model?

A

The Device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which of the following enhance physical security?

A

IP Video Surveillance
Electronic Locks
Mechanical Locks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which of the following are best practices for restricting access to a network?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which of the following are considered types of network attacks?

A

VLAN Hopping
Rogue DHCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which is NOT a best practice for mitigating VLAN attacks in a layer 2 network?

A

Configuring all IACS facing ports as trunked ports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What product would you recommend for an applications where the input voltage drops for very short durations of time?

A

Buffer module

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

True or False. Switch Mode Power Supplies convert DC voltages to AC voltages.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Select a power supply to meet the following specification.
Performance power supply (XLS family)
Must accept input voltages from 100 to 240V AC single phase (Wide Rage)
Output voltage- 24VDC (adjustable to 28VDC)
Power Supply Size - 480 Watts
No special features like Conformal Coating or ATEX compliance are required

A

1606-XLE480EPC, 1606-XLE480EA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

In a linear network system which has not been upgraded and has had no maintenance intervention, which of these design steps will mitigate against unexpected network shutdown?

A

Quality of Service and VLAN segmentation will protect a system from changes to the network configuration, but will operate consistently through a systems lifecycle. Resilient Ethernet Protocol only offers advantages in a ring topology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which technique makes real-time control possible with IEEE802.11 wireless communications today?

A

TCP, AES128 and Producer/Consumer are all important techniques for IACS networks that include wireless segments, none define EtherNet/IP’s ability to operate in a wireless environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which of these engineering decisions results in increased risk of plant downtime due to accidental creation of network loops?

A

Poor grounding increases risk of noise related failure, but not network loops. REP, RSTP and PRP all reduce the risk of network loops resulting in network failure Isolation can limit the scope of network failure, but can also reduce the ability to diagnose network failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the best way to secure the PAC connection?

A

Block unused port provides network security, but lock-in connectors on a cable provide a similar protection and production security is improved by the ring’s cable fault protection as well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the best way to secure the central switch?

A

Block unused port only mitigates against one threat vector. It is best practice on managed switches also, but managed switches have multiple tools to prevent unauthorized access.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Industrial Zone characteristic

A

Human interaction, Routing, Client-Server Interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Cell/Area Zone characteristic

A

MAC Address, IACS QoS, I/O Modules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which command must be enabled on routers or Layer 3 switches for remote EtherNet/IP browsing to occur?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Electrical power is distributed within the MCC section to all the units by:

A

Horizontal bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The ___ provides the means for a unit to be plugged onto a vertical bus and conduct power to the unit:

A

Fusible disconnect

77
Q

The DCS sales strategy is ___ in nature.

A

A library of pre-defined components. A system designed to be configured rather than programmed.

78
Q

At which location would you be likely to find a nightshift, and why?

A

An oil refinery, because the continuous process typically runs without interruption and will keep constant staffing requirements, day and night.

79
Q

In which of the following Heavy Industries is it common to find equipment deployed in remote locations?

A

Oil & Gas. Alternative Energy (such as wind turbines). Mining

80
Q

Which entity typically has more influence over the specification of automation products in the HIE segment?

A

End User (via EPIC)

81
Q

In which Heavy Industry sub-segment would one find Yaw and Pitch applications?

A

Wind Energy

82
Q

In which Heavy Industry sub-segment would one find Artificial Lifts and Drillers?

A

Oil & Gas

83
Q

A means to identify the function of a push button

A

Two Color molded legend caps

84
Q

Self Monitoring Contact Block

A

Validates contact block is installed correctly

85
Q

You are being asked to find a replacement relay that switches low voltage power levels. Which of the following relays would you focus on?

A

A relay with gold plated contacts

86
Q

Which of the following protects a PLC from the effects of voltage transients?

A

Surge suppressor

87
Q

Which of the following is best practice to reduce the risk of connecting a cable to the wrong port?

A

Patch panels for cable termination. Color-coded cables and connectors.

88
Q

The chart shows the sensing ranges of various 872C WorldProx sensors (in mm). The correction factor for aluminum for 872C standard range models is 0.4. What is the nominal sensing distance to aluminum of the 30mm barrel, shielded, standard range 872C WorldProx?

A

The nominal sensing range of a standard, shielded, 30mm 872C WorldProx is 10mm. The range for a specific metal equals the nominal sensing distance times the correction factor. 10 mm x 0.4 correction factor = 4 mm nominal sensing range to aluminum.

89
Q

Inductive proximity is a great solution for an application that requires detecting a piece of mild steel in a dirty environment at a range of 150mm

A

False. Inductive prox is great for detecting metal in a dirty environment but would not be capable of the required 150mm range.

90
Q

Which of the following IACS Network Protocols should be contained within the Industrial Zone?

A

Common Industrial Protocol and Modbus TCP should be contained with the Industrial Zone.

91
Q

Which of the following would a remotely-located expert require to gain access to IACS assets?

A

A remotely-located expert requires software applications housed on the remote access server to gain access to IACS assets.

92
Q

For role-based network access, which user class would be granted occasional access to the Industrial Zone via the remote access server?

A

For role-based network access, a trusted contractor is granted occasional access to the Industrial Zone via the remote access server.

93
Q

Which are considered “Northside” and “Southside” IDMZ protocols?

A

North - Https (SSL VPN), and South - Remote Desktop protocol are considered “Northside” and “Southside” IDMZ protocols.

94
Q

Match the user with the appropriate access method

A

Enterprise User May need some access to Industrial Zone. Industrial User Granted complete or limited access to Industrial Zone. Trusted Contractor/Partner Occasional access to Industrial Zone. Guest Worker Only allowed access to Internet and email.

95
Q

Place in order of sequence the procedure for Hairpinning

A

Create a dedicated SSID and VLAN for enterprise workers. Traverse the Industrial DMZ with this traffic into the Enterprise Zone wireless LAN controller. Connect to the northbound interface of the industrial DMZ through to the remote access server, which is actually a VPN connection. Access is granted via remote access server.

96
Q

Which of the following is a difference between ACM and MBL controllers?

A

MBL controllers contain several tasks by default, whereas ACM controllers do not. Either of these controller types can be configured to include a motion group.

97
Q

Display a numeric value.

A

Metric chart

98
Q

Which of the following states can trigger the Initialize equipment phase?

A

Resetting

99
Q

Display the value of a key indicator and highlight where the value falls within its range.

A

Gauge chart

100
Q

Which emerging technology has made it possible for every enterprise to have access to limitless storage and high-performance computing?

A

Cloud computing

101
Q

What is the function of vertical cable fingers and horizontal cable managers in an Industrial Data Center application?

A

The function of vertical cable fingers and horizontal cable managers is to reduce the risk of accidental cable disturbance.

102
Q

Which of the following are considered good cable management practices?

A

Cabling wrapped around slack spools and bundled with hook/loop ties. Use of vertical cable fingers and horizontal cable managers.

103
Q

The PowerFlex® 755T Predictive Maintenance feature monitors which of the following components?

A

Motor bearings. Heatsink fans. Power transistors. Predictive Maintenance monitors key fans, bus and LCL capacitors, precharge contacts, power transistors. digital output relays, and motor bearings. It compares the accumulated runtime to the threshold limit to determine if replacement is needed.

104
Q

In use cases for RDBMS, what is one of the reasons that relational databases are so well suited for OLTP applications?

A

Support the ability to insert, update, or delete small amounts of data. Allow you to make changes in the database even while a query is being executed, Offer easybackup and restore options, Minimize data redundancy are the advantages RDBMSs offer, they do not particularly make them more suitable for OLTP applications.

105
Q

I of PID stands for:

A

integral

106
Q

Which of the following components requires the drive user to enter the lifespan specification data to determine the threshold limit?

A

Motor bearings. Only the motor bearings require the drive user to enter the lifespan data. This data is provided by the motor manufacturer or bearing supplier.

107
Q

What type of data repository is used to isolate a subset of data for a particular business function, purpose, or community of users?

A

A data mart is a sub-section of the data warehouse used to isolate a subset of data for a particular business function, purpose, or community of users.

108
Q

P of PID stands for:

A

proportional

109
Q

Datastore

A

Provides indexing and searching capability to connected data sources

110
Q

Meta Database

A

Stores information required for the management of FactoryTalk Analytics DataView.

111
Q

What are the common components that can be shared in the deployment of FactoryTalk Analytics products?

A

FactoryTalk Activation. FactoryTalk Analytics Security Provider.

112
Q

You are responsible for a new FactoryTalk® Analytics™ DataView distributed installation. You expect that the deployment will include a large number of concurrent users and you are considering future expansion.
What components are commonly deployed on the same host forming the FactoryTalk Analytics DataView web application and would simplify horizontal scaling?

A

Web Server, Message Queue, Data Importer, Data Scheduler and Prediction

113
Q

Select the file format that does NOT store a private key:

A

.p7b

114
Q

correct order for each certificate type in the certificate path validation.

A

End Entity Certificate->Intermediate Certificate->Root Certificate

115
Q

Using the training deployment example, select the software that requires Java KeyStore and TrustStore files (“.jks”) for secure communication.

A

FactoryTalk® Analytics™ Security Provider. Tomcat.

116
Q

Select the right certificate file type required by the FactoryTalk® Activation WebSocket Service.

A

.p12

117
Q

You are asked to back up the web server’s certificate with associated private key and certificate chain in a single file. Which of the following file extensions could be used?

A

.pem. .p12

118
Q

You are setting up a test environment with a FactoryTalk® Analytics™ DataView application. You decide to use the private CA scripts included in the installation media to create a private certificate authority and generate required certificates for the test.
What software package(s) must be installed in order to use the scripts?

A

OpenSSL. Java keytool

119
Q

You need to check the Java TrustStore to verify that the required root certificate is installed in the TrustStore. Which of the following tools could you use?

A

KeyStore Explore. Java keytool

120
Q

You are preparing certificates for the FactoryTalk® Analytics™ DataView web server and security provider. What are the file type and extension of the certificates that you need to generate?

A

Java KeyStore and TrustStore with the extension “.jks”

121
Q

What are typical characteristics of a fieldbus architecture?

A

A fieldbus architecture typically has a highly predictable and highly repeatable network.

122
Q

Which are benefits of using Network Address Translation segmentation?

A

The three main benefits of using NAT segmentation are the ability to resuse IP addresses across machines, the control through the NAT interface, and that HTTP passes through the NAT interface.

123
Q

Which of the following statements about stacked switches is incorrect.

A

Stacked switches are managed as a single object, provide redundancy in a redundant star configuration, and are proprietary and do not support multi-vendor interoperability.

124
Q

Which redundancy technology is idea for geographically separated core installations?

A

Virtual Switch System (VSS)

125
Q

When using HSRP for default gateway redundancy protocol, which redundant star protocol is recommended for connecting to the Cell/Area Zone?

A

Flex Link

126
Q

When implementing HSRP, what priority value should be assigned the active router?

A

It should be assigned to 254

127
Q

What are the requirements in order for data to be reliable?

A

For data to be considered reliable, it needs to be relevant to the use case. For data to be considered reliable, it needs to be free of all errors.

128
Q

What type of data is semi-structured and has some organizational properties but not a rigid schema?

A

Emails are considered a source of semi-structured data as they have some organizational properties but do not follow a rigid schema.

129
Q

Which of the following elements in an Ethernet frame change as a packet transitions through a Layer 3 switch?

A

As a packet transitions through a Layer 3 switch, the source and destination MAC addresses are the only elements in the Ethernet frame to change.

130
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the outgoing ARP message?

A

The destination address of the outgoing message is MAC broadcast

131
Q

Which of the following is NOT user configurable in the end device?

A

VLAN tag. MAC address.

132
Q

What kind of devices send IGMP membership reports?

A

A multicasting consuming IACS device sends IGMP membership reports.

133
Q

The best route for the EIGRP protocol is called?

A

The Successor Route

134
Q

Which type of clock is used in a segmented network architecture?

A

A Boundary Clock is used in a segmented network architecture.

135
Q

Which command must be entered on routers or Layer 3 switches for remote EtherNet/IP browsing to occur?

A

The IP Directed Broadcast command must be enabled on routers or Layer 3 switches for remote EtherNet/IP browsing to occur.

136
Q

Which type of EtherNet/IP traffic has a Time to Live (TTL) of 1?

A

EtherNet/IP Multicast Traffic

137
Q

Which of the following is true regarding EtherNet/IP multicast packets?

A

Can only live in a single VLAN. Will never traverse through a router.

138
Q

Coordinated Motion is best implemented in which scenario?

A

Motion controller and axis in the same VLAN.

139
Q

Which of these is a skill, according to the definition in this video?

A

Making a meal out of whatever’s in the kitchen. Making a meal by following a recipe is more like an algorithm because the recipe provides step by step instructions about what to do in every situation. Making a meal out of whatever’s in the kitchen is a skill because it involves improvising based on practice and experience

140
Q

when should you use Autonomous AI?

A

Only if current automation isn’t always reliable. Automation that needs human intervention occasionally is a good indicator you may have a problem that can benefit from Autonomous AI. When human intervention in the process is absolutely necessary. Humans are able to adapt to changing conditions more easily than most automated systems; and Autonomous AI systems have also proven to be very adaptable to dynamic systems.

141
Q

Can you think of conditions in which the ideal gas law might not model the situation accurately?

A

Gases at high pressure. The ideal gas law does not work well when gases are at high pressure. Very dense gases. The ideal gas law does not work well with very dense or heavy gases. Gases at low temperature. The ideal gas law does not work well in very cold conditions.

142
Q

Gradient based methods differ from brute force search in that they _______.

A

Do not directly consider every solution to the problem. Gradient-based methods are efficient because they limit the options they consider. To learn more about gradient-based optimization. Work better for more complex problems. Gradient-based methods are a better choice for more complex problems because they limit the number of options the algorithm must consider. To learn more about gradient-based optimization. Are like explorers searching the surface of the earth for the highest mountain. Both brute force search and gradient-based optimization can be represented as explorers searching through points on a map.

143
Q

When should you use menus in your brain designs?

A

To explore a task that you don’t have much knowledge about. Menus are great for exploring unfamiliar areas. Continue watching to learn more.

144
Q

Which of these are capabilities of machine learning?

A

Recognizing correlations between complex variables. Finding correlations in a way that resembles human intuition is one of the important abilties of machine learning. Pattern matching. Machine learning’s curve-fitting abilities allow it to spot patterns in data

145
Q

Based on what you just learned, what unique capabilities do you think deep reinforcement learning can bring to AI brain designs?

A

Working differently in different situations. Responding to variables that are difficult to measure. Figuring out strategies for completing tasks. Sensing what’s going on in the environment

146
Q

Which of these tasks would be well suited to deep reinforcement learning?

A

Adjusting settings based on the sound a machine is making. Making adjustments based on sound is an example of acting on complex perception, one of DRL’s unique capabilities. Cheating at a video game by finding and exploiting bugs in the game. Exploiting bugs in a video game involves strategy, one of DRL’s unique capabilities. Setting the speed of a machine by reacting to camera images of quality. Reacting to camera images is an example of acting on complex perception, one of DRL’s unique capabilities

147
Q

What are strategies based on?

A

The characteristics of an environment or task.

148
Q

What is the best way to learn strategy?

A

Studying with a teacher

149
Q

What is the value of storytelling for autonomous A.I.?

A

Storytelling is an important element of persuasion, which is necessary to gain support for building autonomous A.I. Brain designs capture a process, but they don’t necessarily tell a story. Subject matter experts may use storytelling to help communicate their expertise, but that’s not the main use of storytelling for brain designers.

150
Q

Which of these are roles that autonomous AI should play in a story you tell to build support for a project?

A

A way to solve an important problem. A high-value problem should be part of the plot of your story, with autonomous AI providing a solution. Something that helps a character to succeed. There should be a main character of your story, who can find success with the help of autonomous AI. Autonomous AI should not be the hero of the story, but should be a way that characters can solve their problem. Autonomous AI should help the characters on their journey, but it’s not the journey itself.

151
Q

When adding logic to a Ladder Diagram routing using ASCII text, which of the following would you use to advance to the next branch level?

A

NXB

152
Q

When creating a Studio 5000 Logic Designer project, which of the following is true?

A

The software revision of the finished project must match the controller’s firmware revision before it can be transferred to

153
Q

You want to change your Studio 5000 Logix Designer communications software to the FactoryTalk Linx software. Which of the following is true?

A

You must close your project before changing communications
The FactoryTalk Linx communications drivers must be configured in the FactoryTalk Linx application prior to using it in the Logix

154
Q

What is most common programming language that is used for high level execution management as well as batch process application

A

Structured Text

155
Q

You need to create a driver in RSLinx Classic that will discover devices on an Ethernet network without you having to specify IP addresses. Which of the following drivers would you choose?

A

Ethernet/IP

156
Q

You need to access program-scoped data located in a program parameter of one program from another program. Which of the following is true?

A

You can directly access the data in the other program using direct addressing and without creating another

157
Q

A hardware tag for a digital output module contains a DINT member that identifies point faults. How could you use this data as a permissive that only allows the machine to start if there are no faults?

A

Use an EQU instruction to compare the overall DINT value to 0

158
Q

You have created a new routine and you want to use it as the main routine. Where do you change the main routine assignment?

A

Program Properties

159
Q

Which folder within the Logix Designer Controller Organizer contains the data type definition of the input structure for a digital output module?

A

Module-Defined

160
Q

In Panel View 5000 V9, which Studio 5000 Logix Designer data types are now supported?

A

String and Boolean
Floating Point and Integer

161
Q

What type of objects may not completely convert using the FactoryTalk View ME to View Designer conversion tool?

A

Numeric inputs and numeric displays
Strong inputs and string displays

162
Q

In the context of data logging, which database is used for enhanced capabilities and integration with Edge Historian with data log?

A

InfluxDB

163
Q

Which data source is now available for the Data Grid in FactoryTalk View version 14.00?

A

FactoryTalk Historian

164
Q

How is network-based security implemented in PanelView 5000 V9?

A

Active Directory authentication

165
Q

What is NOT the new feature introducing in FT View SE version 14.00?

A

Show annotations on the TrendPro

166
Q

What potential issue can lead to long production delays after replacing a failed advice?

A

Lack of proper training
Inefficient communication channels
Difficulty in locating the correct device configuration
Lack of device replacement plans

167
Q

How does FactoryTalk Historian Vision relate to ProcessBook?

A

It complements ProcessBook.

168
Q

Which component of the Historian is responsible for storing data?

A

Data Archive

169
Q

What is the maximum number of Vision clients allowed per FactoryTalk Historian SE Server?

A

20

170
Q

What does the Asset inventory agent of FactoryTalk AssetCentre scan?

A

Rockwell Automation controllers, drives, switches, and third-party devices

171
Q

What does FactoryTalk AssetCetre offer in terms of connectivity to the FactoryTalk Services Platform?

A

Native connectivity to the security, diagnostics, and audit logs within the FactoryTalk Services playform

172
Q

What is a unique feature of FactoryTalk AssetCentre related to Studio 5000 Logix Designer projects?

A

Integration with third-party devices

173
Q

What is the role of the Asset Framework in the Historian system?

A

Contextualize data

174
Q

What is a strategic approach to addressing challenges in manufacturing systems?

A

Implementing a comprehensive and secure arrangement strategy (FT Asset

175
Q

What is the primary objective of Batch control methodology in manufacturing?

A

Managing equipment and recipes for multiple products

176
Q

PlantPAx is positioned to serve various heavy industries. Which is NOT one of the heavy industries covered?

A

Information Technology

177
Q

What challenge is associated with Traditional DCS in terms of migration and modernization?

A

Difficult to migrate and modernize

178
Q

PlantPAx is designed for customers with specific types of process control applications. Which of the following applications are targeted by PlantPAx?

A

Continuous, Batch, and Hybrid

179
Q

In the Utility sector, which specific areas are targeted by PlantPAx?

A

Water Wastewater, Power Generation

180
Q

What is a notable feature of Modern DCS in terms of system capabilities?

A

Wider range, scalable system capabilities

181
Q

Where can PlantPAx Instructions be accessed for use in Studio 5000 Logix Designer?

A

Available via drag-and-drop in the PlantPAx Element Group

182
Q

What is the primary function of PhaseManager in the Batch Portfolio?

A

Controller-based solution for organizing routines for use with batch

183
Q

What capabilities are included in FactoryTalk Batch for recipe management?

A

Recipe management, including formulations, scaling, secure approvals

184
Q

What is system engineering tools that is NOT included in PlantPax 5+?

A

Plant Pax system Estimator

185
Q

What is one of the key benefits of using Control Strategies in terms of development?

A

Reduction in development effort and simplification

186
Q

Which standard is Batch control methodology aligned with for managing equipment and recipes?

A

ISA-88

187
Q

What is a key feature of the integration between PlantPAx Library and FactoryTalk View SE v13?

A

Automatic addition of Process Objects, including process faceplates, global objects, images, tags, and macros, into an HMI project

188
Q

What significant change is introduced in PlantPAx 5.0 regarding PlantPAx Instructions and RA Library AOI’s?

A

PlantPAx 5.0 introduces new PlantPAx instructions that can coexist with

189
Q

How many PlantPAx instructions were originally introduced in P-Controller firmware version 35 of PlantPAx 5.0?

A

30 PlantPAx instructions

190
Q

How are Control Strategies integrated into a Studio 5000 Logic Designer project?

A

Through a separate Control Strategy project

191
Q

How does PhaseManager enhance its functionality in organizing routines for batch processing?

A

Integrates ISA-88 state model directly in a Logix-based controller
Embeds ISA-86 state model

Career Tech LMC (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions