RNA Interference Flashcards

1
Q

What is RNAi?

A

RNA interference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is dsRNA? (2)

A
  • Double stranded RNA
  • Longer than 30 nucleotides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is miRNA? (5)

A
  • microRNA
  • 21-25nt
  • Encoded by endogenous genes
  • Hairpin precursors ~70nt
  • Recognise multiple mRNA targets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is siRNA? (5)

A
  • Short-interfering RNA
  • 21-25nt
  • Mostly exogenous origin (mainly experimental tool to knockdown protein expression)
  • dsRNA precursors
  • May be target specific
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is post-transcriptional gene silencing (PTGS)/quelling? (3)

A
  • Jorgenson attempted to overexpress chalcone synthase protein in petunias to make them deeper purple but ended up with some areas with no chalcone synthase expression instead (co-suppression of both endogenous and introduced genes)
  • Called it PGTS
  • Similar results seen in N.crassa (called it quelling)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What did Fire and Mello first discover? (4)

A
  • Antisense RNAs were used to bind to and silence target RNAs by preventing translation or triggering degradation before RNAi took off
  • Fire and Mello found that both sense and antisense RNAs are sufficient for silencing of the endogenous gene = strange
  • Silencing persisted even though the injected RNA was easily degraded
  • RNA for silencing was often generated using a template DNA strand and a T7 bacteriophage polymerase which can make ectopic transcripts because it jumps to the other DNA strand and carries on transcribing = low level of double stranded RNA present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What experiment led to the discovery of RNAi? (6)

A
  • Unc-22 gene inactivation in C.elegans causes uncoordinated twitching
  • Injected (ss) sense RNA, antisense or both (ds) into C.elegans gut
  • dsRNA was orders of magnitude more effective than ssRNA, only a few molecules needed
  • Unc-22 null phenotype was also in the progeny of injected worms
  • Inactivation was due to degradation of target mRNA
  • Coined the term “RNA interference” (Fire et al., 1998)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How was siRNA identified? (2)

A
  • Long dsRNA gets processed into duplexes 21-25bp long in plants (Baulcombe)
  • Also happens in drosophila (Elbashir) and the fragments are siRNAs which are necessary for degradation of the target RNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How are miRNAs made? (6)

A
  • Transcription in the nucleus produces a pri-microRNA which contains a hairpin sequence which is the microRNA sequence
  • Microprocessor (contains DGCR8 and Drosha) removes flanking sequences resulting in a smaller hairpin structure = pre-microRNA
  • Pre-microRNA exported from the nucleus to cytoplasm
  • Hairpin loop chopped off by Dicer
  • AGO protein selects the microRNA strand that is complementary to the target and delivers it to the target
  • microRNA causes cleavage/degradation or translational suppression of the target (or both)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is an example of microRNA?

A

Let-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are mirtrons? (2)

A
  • A type of microRNA produced from introns of protein-encoding mRNA primary transcripts
  • Produced by splicing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the components of the microprocessor? (2)

A
  • DGCR8
  • Drosha
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Drosha?

A

RNase III type enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does the microprocessor know where to cleave? (2)

A
  • DGCR8 positions binds to the loop sequence and positions Drosha
  • Drosha cleaves the pri-miRNA ~11bp up the stem producing pre-miRNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How are pre-miRNAs exported to the cytoplasm? (2)

A
  • Exportin5 and Ran-GTP GTPase binds to pre-miRNA, complex escorts pre-miRNA to the cytoplasm
  • GTP hydrolysis when in the cytoplasm induced by RanGAP on the cytoplasmic side of the nuclear pore which drives disassembly of the complex and releases pre-miRNA for Dicer processing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does Dicer do? (3)

A
  • Phosphorylates 5’ end of synthetic duplexes
  • Chops up long dsRNA into 21-25nt duplexes
  • Main job is to chop off the hairpin loop sequence leaving double stranded short duplex to be used
17
Q

How does the argonaute (AGO) complex know which strand to select? (3)

A
  • There is thermodynamic asymmetry in the duplex and AGO will unwind from the end that is the easiest (least number of hydrogen bonds, CG has 3 so strongest, AU is weaker and GU wobble bp is also weak)
  • The 5’ strand at the side being unwound is the guide strand, other one is the passenger strand
  • AGO complex cleaves the passenger strand and associates with the guide strand = RISC
18
Q

What is RISC? (2)

A
  • RNA induced silencing complex
  • Guide strand bound to AGO complex
19
Q

What are the different ways in which the RISC complex suppresses gene expression? (6)

A
  • RISC microRNA complex binding site is usually on 3’ UTR of target mRNA
  • Most commonly RISC cleaves the target mRNA and it is degraded
  • Block translation initiation by inhibiting initiation factors or block elongation
  • Drive deadenylation by recruiting CCR4NOT complex, mRNA susceptible to degradation without polyA
  • Proteolysis of the nascent polypeptide as it is being translated
  • (Cleave and degrade or translational repression)
19
Q

What is the interferon response? (3)

A
  • Long dsRNA injected into mammalian cell triggers production of interferons (anti-viral proteins which cause an inflammatory response) so useless as a tool
  • Cascade triggers activation of RNase L (non-specific ribonuclease) which degrades all RNA in the cell
  • PKR enzyme autophosphorylates (active) and phosphorylates EIF2alpha (translation initiation factor) so it can’t be recycled for further rounds of translation initiation (blocks protein synthesis)
20
Q

What can be used in mammalian cells instead of dsRNA?

A

siRNAs which are too short to trigger interferon response

21
Q

What does RNAi achieve?

A

KnockDOWN of target gene (just reducing the levels of target mRNA), not knockout

22
Q

How can you make a miRNA mimic in vivo instead of buying siRNAs? (4)

A
  • Expression of hairpin like structure from a plasmid that will be processed by Drosha and produce a miRNA mimic
  • Make the 2 strands of the hairpin homologous to the target gene
  • Useful for silencing of essential proteins to identify function, inducible gene silencing
  • Can make short hairpin RNA (shRNA) (looks very similar to miRNA)
23
Q

What was the primary method for reducing gene function before RNAi? (2)

A
  • Mouse knockouts
  • Expensive and more difficult
24
Q

How was RNAi used for proteasome screening? (4)

A
  • Used a range of shRNAs to knockdown genes and identify the subunits of the proteasome
  • Used GFP fused to PEST sequence as the reporter
  • PEST sequence targets to proteasome for degradation so the GFP is very unstable
  • Knockdown of proteasome subunit genes stops degradation of GFP
25
Q

How does RNAi by feeding in agar plates work? (4)

A
  • Make E.coli expressing dsRNA of target gene
  • Add C.elegans eggs to the plate
  • Worms eat the bacteria, goes into gut, releases dsRNA into the worm which can do RNAi
  • Make a library of bacteria to do a genome wide screen of C.elegans
26
Q

What is an example of an RNAi screen? (2)

A
  • C.elegans screen to identify genes which drive fat deposition
  • Daf2 mutation causes fat worm phenotype
  • Bacteria library screen knockdown to identify genes which cause fat deposition e.g. HMG-CoA reductase