RMCQ-PART ONE

Question 1

Which part of the brain is responsible for coordinating voluntary muscle movements, balance, and posture?
a) Cerebellum.
b) Hypothalamus.
c) Frontal lobe.
d) Medulla oblongata.

Answer 1

a) Cerebellum.

Question 2

Which of the following is a key feature of spina bifida occulta?
a) Complete absence of the vertebral defect.
b) Abnormal cord and membranes.
c) Bony defect with protruding meningeal sac.
d) Covered by intact skin.

Answer 2

d) Covered by intact skin.

Question 3

Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for spasticity in patients with cerebral palsy?
a) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.
b) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
c) Baclofen.
d) Benzodiazepines.

Answer 3

c) Baclofen.
The treatment of choice for spasticity in patients with cerebral palsy is often the use of muscle relaxants, and one of the most commonly prescribed medications for this purpose is baclofen.

Question 4

What is the characteristic histological feature seen in the brain tissue of patients with subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)?
a) Formation of Lewy bodies.
b) Presence of intranuclear eosinophilic inclusion bodies.
c) Accumulation of neurofibrillary tangles.
d) Loss of Purkinje cells in the cerebellum.

Answer 4

b) Presence of intranuclear eosinophilic inclusion bodies.
known as “Glanzmann inclusion bodies” or “Negri bodies.”

Formation of Lewy bodies (option a) is associated with neurodegenerative disorders such as Parkinson’s disease and dementia with Lewy bodies

neurofibrillary tangles (option c) is a pathological feature commonly observed in Alzheimer’s disease, not in SSPE

Question 5

Which of the following is a key feature of spina bifida occulta?
a) Complete absence of the vertebral defect.
b) Abnormal cord and membranes.
c) Bony defect with protruding meningeal sac.
d) Covered by intact skin.

Answer 5

D

Question 6

What is one of the indications for prenatal screening in the case of Mr Big’s daughter?
a) Young maternal age.
b) Family history of neural tube defect.
c) Lack of prenatal care.
d) Maternal smoking during pregnancy.

Answer 6

b) Family history of neural tube defect.

Question 7

You should know how access risk of having a child with spina bifida,

Answer 7

based on the scenario given

Question 8

Which of the following factors may prevent access to termination of pregnancy (TOP) services in South Africa?
a) Equitable distribution of services.
b) Lack of trained personnel.
c) Abundance of facilities providing abortions.
d) No knowledge of the TOP legislation.

Answer 8

b) Lack of trained personnel.

Question 9

Which cell type mediates the barrier function in the choroid plexus?
a) Endothelium.
b) Astrocyte.
c) Ependymal cell.
d) Choroid epithelium.

Answer 9

d) Choroid epithelium.

Question 10

What is the full name of the most likely causative bacteria in a meningitis Case where purpura, pechiae ?
a) Neisseria meningitidis.
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
c) Haemophilus influenzae.
d) Escherichia coli.

Answer 10

a) Neisseria meningitidis.

Question 11

Which form of encephalitis associated with measles virus usually occurs months after the measles rash?
a) Acute measles post-infectious encephalitis.
b) Measles inclusion body encephalitis.
c) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.

Answer 11

b) Measles inclusion body encephalitis.

Question 12

What is the most suitable laboratory test and sample for viruses causing aseptic meningitis?
a) Blood culture.
b) Urine analysis.
c) Stool culture.
d) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) on cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

Answer 12

d) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) on cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

Question 13

Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for spasticity in patients with cerebral palsy?
a) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.
b) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
c) Baclofen.
d) Benzodiazepines.

Answer 13

c) Baclofen.

Question 14

Which imaging modality is the most appropriate for the initial evaluation of a suspected spinal cord tumor?
a) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
b) Computed tomography (CT) scan.
c) X-ray.
d) Positron emission tomography (PET) scan.

Answer 14

A

Question 15

Identify the structures labeled A, B, and C in the following cross-sectional diagram of the spinal cord.

Question 16

Which of the following is the primary neurotransmitter involved in the transmission of pain signals?
a) Dopamine.
b) Serotonin.
c) Glutamate.
d) Acetylcholine.

Answer 16

c) Glutamate.

Question 17

What is the characteristic histological feature seen in the brain tissue of patients with subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)?
a) Formation of Lewy bodies.
b) Presence of intranuclear eosinophilic inclusion bodies.
c) Accumulation of neurofibrillary tangles.
d) Loss of Purkinje cells in the cerebellum.

Answer 17

b) Presence of intranuclear eosinophilic inclusion bodies.

Question 18

Which surgical procedure involves the removal of a portion of the skull to access the brain?
a) Laminectomy.
b) Craniotomy.
c) Discectomy.
d) Hemispherectomy.

Answer 18

b) Craniotomy.

Question 19

Which cranial nerve is responsible for controlling eye movements?
a) Cranial nerve III (oculomotor nerve).
b) Cranial nerve IV (trochlear nerve).
c) Cranial nerve VI (abducens nerve).
d) Cranial nerve II (optic nerve).

Answer 19

A

Question 20

What is the physiological effect of botulinum toxin on neuromuscular junctions?
a) Inhibition of acetylcholine release.
b) Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase activity.
c) Stimulation of acetylcholine receptors.
d) Inhibition of muscle fiber contraction.

Answer 20

a) Inhibition of acetylcholine release.

Question 21

Which class of medications is commonly used as prophylaxis against migraine headaches?
a) Beta-blockers.
b) Antihistamines.
c) Calcium channel blockers.
d) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

Answer 21

Beta-blockers are a class of medications that are frequently used for migraine prophylaxis. These medications work by blocking the effects of adrenaline (epinephrine) and other stress hormones on beta receptors in the body. By doing so, they help to reduce the frequency and severity of migraine attacks.

Question 22

Which of the following neurodegenerative diseases is characterized by the presence of Lewy bodies in the brain?
a) Alzheimer’s disease.
b) Parkinson’s disease.
c) Huntington’s disease.
d) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS).

Answer 22

b) Parkinson’s disease.

Question 23

Which part of the brain is responsible for regulating body temperature, appetite, and sleep?
a) Hypothalamus.
b) Cerebellum.
c) Medulla oblongata.
d) Thalamus.

Answer 23

a) Hypothalamus.

Question 24

Which brain hemisphere is typically associated with language comprehension and production in most right-handed individuals?
a) Right hemisphere.
b) Left hemisphere.
c) Both hemispheres equally.
d) Frontal lobe.

Answer 24

b) Left hemisphere.

Question 25

What is the imaging modality of choice for visualizing acute intracranial hemorrhage?
a) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
b) Computed tomography (CT) scan.
c) X-ray.
d) Ultrasound.

Answer 25

b) Computed tomography (CT) scan.

Question 26

Which class of medications is commonly used to treat symptoms of anxiety disorders?
a) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).
b) Beta-blockers.
c) Anticonvulsants.
d) Opioids.

Answer 26

a) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).

Question 27

A patient presents with sudden-onset facial droop, weakness on one side of the body, and difficulty speaking. Which condition is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
a) Migraine headache.
b) Multiple sclerosis.
c) Stroke.
d) Epilepsy.

Answer 27

c) Stroke.

Question 28

Which part of the neuron receives incoming signals from other neurons?
a) Dendrites.
b) Axon.
c) Cell body (soma).
d) Myelin sheath.

Answer 28

a) Dendrites.

Question 29

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Alzheimer’s disease on histological examination?
a) Presence of neurofibrillary tangles.
b) Formation of Lewy bodies.
c) Loss of myelin sheath.
d) Accumulation of eosinophilic inclusion bodies.

Answer 29

a) Presence of neurofibrillary tangles

Question 30

Which procedure involves the insertion of a shunt to drain excess cerebrospinal fluid from the brain?
a) Laminectomy.
b) Craniotomy.
c) Ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt placement.
d) Spinal fusion.

Answer 30

c) Ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt placement.

Question 31

Which neurodegenerative disease is characterized by the loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra region of the brain?
a) Alzheimer’s disease.
b) Parkinson’s disease.
c) Huntington’s disease.
d) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS).

Answer 31

b) Parkinson’s disease.

Question 32

A patient presents with sudden, severe headache, neck stiffness, and fever. Which condition is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
a) Migraine headache.
b) Meningitis.
c) Cluster headache.
d) Temporal arteritis.

Answer 32

b) Meningitis.

Question 33

Which of the following is a key symptom of Alzheimer’s disease?
a) Intermittent muscle weakness and fatigue.
b) Visual hallucinations and delusions.
c) Impaired memory and cognitive decline.
d) Loss of balance and coordination.

Answer 33

c) Impaired memory and cognitive decline.

Question 34

Which of the following neurotransmitters is primarily associated with mood regulation and is commonly targeted in the treatment of depression?
a) Dopamine.
b) Serotonin.
c) GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid).
d) Glutamate.

Answer 34

b) Serotonin.

Question 35

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
a) Degeneration of the optic nerve.
b) Progressive weakness and muscle wasting.
c) Impaired coordination and balance.
d) Accumulation of Lewy bodies in the substantia nigra.

Answer 35

b) Progressive weakness and muscle wasting.
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the progressive degeneration and loss of motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord. One of the characteristic features of ALS is the presence of progressive weakness and muscle wasting.

Question 36

Which of the following is the most common type of primary brain tumor in adults?
a) Glioblastoma.
b) Meningioma.
c) Medulloblastoma.
d) Ependymoma.

Answer 36

a) Glioblastoma.

Question 37

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of acute bacterial meningitis?
a) Purpuric rash.
b) Papilledema.
c) Non-blanching petechiae.
d) Positive Kernig’s sign.

Answer 37

d) Positive Kernig’s sign.

Question 38

Which of the following is a primary risk factor for developing a subdural hematoma?
a) Hypertension.
b) Coagulopathy.
c) Diabetes mellitus.
d) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

Answer 38

b) Coagulopathy.

Question 39

Which of the following is a common symptom of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
a) Ascending muscle weakness and paralysis.
b) Visual disturbances and optic neuritis.
c) Progressive cognitive decline.
d) Fluctuating muscle weakness and fatigability.

Answer 39

a) Ascending muscle weakness and paralysis.

Question 40

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Huntington’s disease?
a) Selective loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra.
b) Spasticity and hyperreflexia.
c) Rapidly progressive dementia and choreiform movements.
d) Loss of peripheral sensory neurons.

Answer 40

c) Rapidly progressive dementia and choreiform movements.

Question 41

What is a characteristic feature of anencephaly?
a) Vertebral defect
b) Normal cord and membranes
c) Cranial vault missing
d) Disorganized brain tissue and vessels

Answer 41

c) Cranial vault missing

Question 42

Which of the following is an indication for prenatal screening?
a) Maternal age above 35 years
b) Family history of neural tube defect
c) Abnormalities detected during pregnancy
d) All of the above

Answer 42

D

Question 43

Which antenatal findings will influence prognosis in spina bifida?
a) Level of the lesion
b) Associated abnormalities
c) Severity of ventriculomegaly
d) All of the above

Answer 43

D