RMCQ-PART Flashcards
Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of lymphocytosis?
a) Reactive viral infection
b) Transient stress response
c) Adrenaline administration
d) Splenectomy
d) Splenectomy
How can bone marrow aspiration and trephine biopsy contribute to the diagnosis of a lymphoid malignancy?
a) They provide information about the patient’s immune status
b) They help identify specific gene mutations associated with lymphoid malignancies
c) They allow for the examination of morphological and immunophenotypic features of the bone marrow
d) They provide direct visualization of lymph nodes affected by the malignancy
c) They allow for the examination of morphological and immunophenotypic features of the bone marrow
What are the three basic components of treatment for leukemia?
a) Surgery, radiation therapy, and targeted therapy
b) Chemotherapy, immunotherapy, and stem cell transplantation
c) Chemotherapy, supportive care, and psychosocial support
d) Hormone therapy, targeted therapy, and immunotherapy
c) Chemotherapy, supportive care, and psychosocial support
Which drug is used in the immediate management of acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL)?
a) Methotrexate
b) Cyclophosphamide
c) All-trans retinoic acid (ATRA)
d) Imatinib
) All-trans retinoic acid (ATRA)
What specific test should be requested on the bone marrow sample of a patient with suspected chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) to confirm the diagnosis?
a) Complete blood count (CBC)
b) Bone marrow biopsy
c) Cytogenetics/Karyotyping
d) Immunophenotyping by flow cytometry
c) Cytogenetics/Karyotyping
Which genetic abnormality is associated with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)?
a) t(9;22) - Philadelphia chromosome
b) t(14;18) - Burkitt’s lymphoma translocation
c) t(8;21) - Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) translocation
d) t(15;17) - Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) translocation
a) t(9;22) - Philadelphia chromosome
Which drug is used to treat herpes simplex infections, and what is its mechanism of action?
a) Amantadine - blocks viral entry into host cells
b) Acyclovir - inhibits viral DNA synthesis by acting as a chain terminator
c) Oseltamivir - inhibits viral neuraminidase activity
d) Ribavirin - disrupts viral protein synthesis
) Acyclovir - inhibits viral DNA synthesis by acting as a chain terminator
What are the different forms of post-exposure prophylaxis for varicella, and to whom are they given?
a) Varicella vaccine - healthy individuals over 1 year of age
Acyclovir - pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals
b) Varicella vaccine - pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals
Varicella immunoglobulin (VZIG) - healthy individuals over 1 year of age
c) Varicella immunoglobulin (VZIG) - healthy individuals over 1 year of age
Acyclovir - pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals
d) Varicella vaccine - pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals
Varicella immunoglobulin (VZIG) - healthy individuals under 1 year of age
a) Varicella vaccine - healthy individuals over 1 year of age
Acyclovir - pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals
Which two herpesviruses can cause cancer, and what cancers are associated with each?
a) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) - cervical cancer and liver cancer
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) - Kaposi’s sarcoma and Burkitt’s lymphoma
b) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) - nasopharyngeal carcinoma and Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) - Kaposi’s sarcoma and primary effusion lymphoma
c) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) - Burkitt’s lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) - Kaposi’s sarcoma and cervical cancer
d) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) - Kaposi’s sarcoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) - Burkitt’s lymphoma and Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) - nasopharyngeal carcinoma and Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) - Kaposi’s sarcoma and primary effusion lymphoma
Name three risk factors for infection in Mrs Singh undergoing chemotherapy.
a) Abnormal white cell count
b) Neutropenia
c) Use of invasive devices (e.g., IV lines)
d) Increased contact with healthcare system and healthcare-associated infections
Any three of the above options.
Which four opportunistic pathogens pose a risk to Mrs Singh undergoing chemotherapy?
a) Aspergillus species
b) Candida species
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Gram-negative bacilli
Any four of the above options.
Outline the three main mechanisms of defense against infection in a normal host, and briefly describe their main functions.
a) Physical barriers (intact skin, intact mucous membranes) - Prevent entry of pathogens into the body.
b) Innate (natural) immunity - Rapid but non-specific response to pathogens.
c) Adaptive immunity - Delayed but specific response to particular pathogens, with improved response on repeated contact and memory.
The three mechanisms of defense are as mentioned above.
Immunocompromised individuals like Mrs Singh are at risk of reactivating latent infections. Name two pathogens that commonly reactivate in such patients.
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Herpes simplex viruses (HSV), Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), cytomegalovirus (CMV).
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Herpes simplex viruses (HSV), Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Mrs Singh complains of difficulty swallowing and a sore mouth. On examination, creamy white plaques are seen on her tongue and oral mucous membranes.
a) The most likely microorganism causing this infection is Candida albicans.
b) Two reasons why Mrs Singh could have developed this infection:
The disease itself leading to abnormal white cells
Damage to the epithelium following chemotherapy leading to mucositis.
a) Candida albicans
b) Any two of the above reasons.
Describe dermatopathic lymphadenitis under the following headings:
a) Site: Enlarged groin and axillary lymph nodes
b) Macroscopic: Yellow or brown cut surface
c) Microscopic: Prominent paracortical hyperplasia, expansion of the paracortex by pale histiocytes, some containing melanin pigment
The description should include the information mentioned above.
