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RMA AMT Flashcards

1
Q

Many of the questions on patient history forms are used to determine

A

lifestyle choices such as smoking and drinking.

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2
Q

Where are the sublingual glands located?

A

Beneath the tongue

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3
Q

The largest bone of the body is the

A

femur

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4
Q

The abbreviation for “prescription” is

A

Rx.

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5
Q

A patient diagnosed with epistaxis has

A

a bloody nose

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6
Q

Metabolic syndrome can be detected by

A

urinalysis.

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7
Q

Encephalopathy is defined as

A

disease of the brain

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8
Q

At what point does systolic pressure occur?

A

During ventricular contraction

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9
Q

The axial skeleton consists of ____ bones?

A

80

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10
Q

A medical assistant taking a pulse by listening to the heart is taking a

A

apical pulse.

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11
Q

The suffix meaning “inflammation” is

A

itis

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12
Q

The duodenum is part of the

A

small intestine.

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13
Q

What is the disease, that is also known as inflammatory bowel disease, that often affects the end of the small intestine?

A

Crohn’s disease

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14
Q

The internal folds of the stomach are known as

A

rugae.

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15
Q

The most important digestive enzyme in the gastric juice is

A

pepsin.

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16
Q

Which combining form means “red”?

A

erythro

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17
Q

A small mass of masticated food ready to be swallowed is

A

bolus.

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18
Q

What is the thin transparent layer covering the front of the outer layer of the eye?

A

Cornea

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19
Q

The function of insulin is to

A

regulate the amount of glucose in the blood.

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20
Q

The right lung is divided into how many sections?

A

3( superior, inferior, and middle.)

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21
Q

“Abnormal widening of the arterial wall that is weak and bulges”, defines the term

A

aneurysm

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22
Q

Receiving the vaccine for the COVID-19 virus provides

A

Artificial Acquired Active Immunity.

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23
Q

There are 4 parts of a tooth. Which part contains the nerves and causes the pain with a toothache?

A

Pulp

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24
Q

The urinary system consists of

A

two kidneys, two ureters, the urinary bladder, and the urethra.

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25
Q

A nerve impulse is carried across a synapse by

A

a neurotransmitter.

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26
Q

What does the combining form “hist/o” mean?

A

tissue

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27
Q

The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery?

A

Aorta

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28
Q

What is the study of the stomach and the intestine?

A

Gastroenterology

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29
Q

What term is best associated with cancer that has spread to other organs of the body?

A

Metastasis

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30
Q

What are some of the nutritional factors that positively influence the wellness of a diabetic patient?

A

Increasing exercise, eating healthy and controlling blood sugar levels.

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31
Q

Which of the following means pertaining to after meals?

A

Postprandial

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32
Q

The three sections of the small intestine are the

A

duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.

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33
Q

The kidneys are located behind the

A

peritoneum.

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34
Q

What laboratory test reports the average glucose levels for the past 2 to 3 months?

A

A1C

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35
Q

An accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity is

A

ascites.

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36
Q

Presbycusis is

A

the hearing loss associated with aging.

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37
Q

Nutrients absorbed by the body in the small intestine include

A

carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, vitamins, minerals, and water.

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38
Q

The lining of the uterus is called the

A

endometrium.

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39
Q

The term “myotomy” means incision into

A

a muscle.

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40
Q

Prostatic hypertrophy is

A

an enlarged prostate.

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41
Q

The outermost of the pericardial membranes is the

A

fibrous pericardium.

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42
Q

In a patient’s progress note you see that the physician has used the term “necrosis” regarding a lesion. The physician is referring to

A

dead tissue

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43
Q

What is the combining form for the intestine?

A

enter/o

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44
Q

A hernia of part of the rectum into the vagina is called

A

rectocele.

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45
Q

Who created physiological ideas such as the id, ego, and superego?

A

Freud

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46
Q

Which of the following terms describes calling an insurance carrier to determine if medical procedures are covered under a patient’s health insurance policy?

A

Precertification

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47
Q

Workers’ Compensation insurance provides benefits for

A

Workers’ Compensation insurance provides benefits for

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48
Q

Which of the following is a legally binding request to provide records or documents to a court that is usually issued to the person considered the custodian of the records?

A

Subpoena duces tecum

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49
Q

When making travel arrangements for the physician to attend a medical seminar or convention, the medical assistant should provide the physician with details of the entire trip, including dates and times of arrival and departure, flight and hotel confirmation numbers, and other details all in one document. This detailed description is called

A

an itinerary.

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50
Q

An ICD-10-CM code may contain up to how many digits?

A

Seven

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51
Q

Claims with a signed assignment of benefits are paid to the

A

physician.

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52
Q

To comply with Medicare guidelines, the physician must write off which of the following charges if not covered by Medigap?

A

Disallowed charges

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53
Q

The policy describing a period of non-coverage for conditions diagnosed before the issuance of an insurance benefit plan is called

A

a pre-existing conditions waiver.

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54
Q

On an insurance claim form, the patient’s presenting problem is listed under

A

primary diagnosis.

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55
Q

Medical records in this medical office are filed via terminal digit order. Arrange the following medical record numbers in terminal digit order from the lowest to the highest. Select the correct terminal digit order sequence.

(1) 06 14 06
(2) 06 06 06
(3) 06 05 06
(4) 05 01 06

A

(4), (3), (2), (1)

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56
Q

Medical sole proprietorship, partnerships, groups, and corporations are encouraged to purchase insurance policies that include benefits for medical expenses payable to individuals who are injured in the insured person’s home, business, or car, without regard to the insured person’s actual legal liability for the accident. This type of insurance is called

A

liability insurance

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57
Q

Which of the following legal proceedings is most likely to result in the revocation or suspension of a physician’s license to practice medicine?

A

Felony conviction

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58
Q

The law requires which one of the following to be reported to the appropriate authorities?

A

Suspected child abuse

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59
Q

Which of the following words is required in the heading of a memorandum?

A

Date

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60
Q

An example of a Medicare HCPCS code number is

A

J0540.

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61
Q

A threat to cause bodily harm to another is referred to as

A

assault.

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62
Q

When a patient fails to keep an appointment, the medical assistant should

A

document the failed appointment in the patient’s chart.

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63
Q

When an order arrives from a supplier, the box should be inventoried. The list of the items included in a shipment is called the

A

packing slip

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64
Q

HIPAA requires covered entities to submit Medicare claims

A

through electronic data exchange.

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65
Q

This insurance covers a health benefits program for the spouses and dependent children of veterans suffering total, permanent, service-connected disabilities and for surviving spouses and dependent children of veterans who died as a result of service-related disabilities.

A

CHAMPVA

66
Q

The term “total permanent impairment” means that the patient

A

is unable to perform previous occupational duties.

67
Q

The routine waiving of co-payments

A

is against federal guidelines.

68
Q

A physician performed plastic surgery on a patient and later published an article about the procedure in a medical journal. A photograph of the surgical site was included. Permission to publish the photograph had not been obtained. This act is an example of

A

invasion of privacy.

69
Q

The medical assistant develops a matrix or a template prior to creating the physician’s schedule in order to

A

block out time slots when the physician is not available to see patients.

70
Q

Which type of listening is highly recommended for health care providers and patients in communicating needs? It involves participation in a conversation with another by means of repeating words and phrases or giving approving or disapproving nods.

A

Active listening

71
Q

Traditional health insurance plans that pay for all or a share of the cost of covered services, regardless of which physician, hospital, or other licensed healthcare provider is used. Policyholders and their dependents choose when and where to get healthcare services.

A

Indemnity plan

72
Q

Which of the following converts printed matter into a form that can be read by a computer?

A

Scanner

73
Q

Two insurance plans working together for coverage of the same person is called

A

coordination of benefits.

74
Q

Medicare patients treated by a non-participating physician

A

are responsible for a portion of the fee.

75
Q

The purpose of HIPAA security standards is to set national standards for safeguarding the confidentiality of

A

electronic exchange of patient information

76
Q

An example of a medical assistant illegally practicing medicine is

A

giving advice on a patient condition.

77
Q

Translated as “the thing speaks for itself”, which of the following is evidence showing that negligence by the accused person may be reasonably inferred from the nature of the injury occurring to the plaintiff?

A

Res ipsa loquitur

78
Q

Which of the following priorities is most important when working with multi-user computerized patient record systems?

A

Maintaining patient confidentiality

79
Q

Who is the legal owner of the medical record (original hardcopy or electronic medical record)?

A

The physician or medical facility which initiated and developed the record

80
Q

When patients arrive at the physician’s office, medical records should not be found lying on the reception desk in view of patients signing in or approaching the desk. Avoiding this situation prevents violation of regulations established by the

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

81
Q

A person who holds a health insurance plan is the

A

subscriber.

82
Q

A military medical insurance plan that is administered by the government is

A

TRICARE.

83
Q

If a caring family member asks about a patient’s treatment, the medical assistant should

A

provide information that has been authorized by the patient.

84
Q

Speaking clearly and articulating carefully during telephone conversations is referred to as

A

enunciation.

85
Q

Which of the following is a payment method used by many managed care organizations in which a fixed amount of money is reimbursed to the provider for patients enrolled during a specific period of time, no matter what services are received or how many visits are made?

A

Capitation

86
Q

In some states, a minor is legally unable to make treatment decisions with limited exceptions. Under what circumstances would a patient such as Jane Doe, a 16-year-old minor, suffering from cancer, be allowed to refuse continued chemotherapy treatments?

A

Being an emancipated minor

87
Q

The physician informs the medical assistant that they will no longer treat a patient who refuses to follow their medical advice and treatment plan. The procedure that the medical assistant should follow is to

A

send a letter of formal withdrawal to the patient by certified mail, return receipt requested

88
Q

In the absence of the employing physician, a medical assistant determines that a patient needs a prescription drug and dispenses the wrong drug from the physician’s supply. The performance of this totally wrongful and unlawful act is known as

A

malfeasance

89
Q

Which of the following Medicare plans provides outpatient prescription drug coverage?

A

Part D

90
Q

The signature of the treating physician, medical assistant, or other healthcare provider on the medical record indicates that the record is accurate. This is called

A

authentication.

91
Q

Positioning or sitting behind a desk communicates the message of

A

authority.

92
Q

It is recommended that a multipurpose ABC fire extinguisher be readily available and prominently mounted in a visible, convenient place in the medical office. All employees must be trained in the use of the fire extinguisher. The proper way to operate a fire extinguisher is to

A

pull the pin, aim the hose, squeeze the handle, sweep the nozzle.

93
Q

Who created the theory on the stages of death and dying?

A

Kubler-Ross

94
Q

Under this doctrine, physicians are legally responsible for the acts of their employees when they are acting within the scope of their duties or employment

A

Respondeat superior

95
Q

Which of the following is the most common format of letter styles that is used in the medical office?

A

Full block

96
Q

The avoidance of confronting a personal problem or reality by acting as if the problem or reality never existed is a defense mechanism known as

A

denial.

97
Q

A patient’s implied consent usually covers which one of the following procedures?

A

Blood test

98
Q

Which of the following pieces of incoming mail should be delivered directly to the physician unopened?

A

A certified letter marked “Confidential”

99
Q

Which of the following is the primary benefit of numeric filing?

A

Patient confidentiality is preserved

100
Q

A medical assistant wants to order boxes of 21-gauge, 1/2-inch needles. If the clinic uses four boxes weekly and supplies are ordered once every four weeks, how many boxes should she order?

A

16

101
Q

A hemostat is used to

A

control bleeding.

102
Q

Which one of the following is the primary method for sterilizing instruments and equipment?

A

Autoclave

103
Q

Calibration

A

detects errors caused by laboratory equipment not working properly.

104
Q

When performing skin preparation before a surgical procedure, the antiseptic solution or soap should be applied starting at the incision site and using a motion that is

A

circular starting from the incision area to the outside edges of the area.

105
Q

What instrument holds open layers of tissue, exposing the areas beneath?

A

Retractors

106
Q

The concept “Universal precautions” refers to

A

assuming all human blood and some body fluids may carry infectious or bloodborne pathogens.

107
Q

While Susan is preparing a blood specimen for laboratory analysis, the container tips over and blood spills on the laboratory table. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the spill?

A

Wear personal protective equipment such as gloves, use a cleanup kit, sprinkle congealing powder over the spill, scoop up the spill, place contents in bag, wipe area with germicide, place all contaminated materials in biohazard container.

108
Q

The difference between handwashing and antiseptic handwashing is

A

antiseptic handwashing utilizes antimicrobial soap.

109
Q

The process of sanitization

A

removes organic material and reduces the number of microorganisms.

110
Q

Sterilization is the

A

destruction of all microbial life.

111
Q

Laura disinfects the exam tables in between each patient using a 1:10 bleach solution. In order for the process to be effective she must

A

prepare the solution according to the recommended dilution, store the solution in a closed container, allow recommended contact time, and change after recommended period of expiration.

112
Q

What are the two most important factors in performing an effective hand wash?

A

Friction and running warm water

113
Q

The tympanic thermometer is inserted into the

A

ear.

114
Q

What instruments have sharp edges and are used to incise skin and tissue?

A

Cutting and dissecting instruments

115
Q

One of the best ways to ensure that you are obtaining the most accurate blood pressure reading is by

A

selecting the appropriate size blood pressure cuff for the patient’s arm.

116
Q

What kind of machines do electrocardiograph technicians operate?

A

EKG

117
Q

What regulatory body is responsible for monitoring the observance of Standard Precautions guidelines?

A

OSHA

118
Q

The most effective method of sterilization is

A

autoclaving.

119
Q

When performing a sedimentation rate, the Wintrobe or Westergren tube is filled to the level marked

A

0mm

120
Q

What kind of instrument is a blood pressure cuff?

A

Sphygmomanometer

121
Q

A stainless-steel instrument with a handle at one end and two prongs at the other end used to test hearing is a

A

tuning fork.

122
Q

Items should be removed from the autoclave

A

after all items in the autoclave have dried completely.

123
Q

You can prevent the spread of Microorganisms by the use of

A

asepsis.

124
Q

Why did Congress pass the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment (CLIA) in 1988?

A

To ensure accuracy, reliability, and timeliness of testing

125
Q

A urine specimen collected over a specific period of time for quantitative analysis is

A

timed.

126
Q

Which one of the following processes is required for surgical instruments and equipment that will come into contact with internal body tissues or cavities that are considered sterile?

A

Sterilization

127
Q

The destruction of all microorganisms is known as

A

sterilization.

128
Q

Instruments required by the physician for a basic suture set-up include

A

needle holder, scissors, and forceps.

129
Q

When obtaining a patient’s blood pressure, the patient’s arm should be

A

at the level of the heart.

130
Q

The destruction of all microorganisms is essential for surgical asepsis. The method often used in the medical office that completely destroys microorganisms is

A

sterilization.

131
Q

Which of the following sutures does not require removal from the body?

A

Gut

132
Q

Which of the following are applied to the outside of the material used to wrap instruments or supplies for the autoclave that lets you know when an item or items have been sterilized?

A

Sterilization indicators

133
Q

Cold sterilization is achieved through the use of

A

chemicals.

134
Q

Which of the following is a surgery that is used to treat an abscess?

A

Incision and drainage

135
Q

According to Standard Precautions guidelines, personal protective equipment MUST be worn whenever there is contact with

A

blood.

136
Q

The cleansing process used to remove debris such as blood, tissue, and other body fluids from medical instruments or equipment is called

A

sanitation.

137
Q

The urinalysis may reveal leukocytes which could indicate

A

a urinary tract infection.

138
Q

When performing medical aseptic handwashing, the hands should be positioned

A

below the elbows.

139
Q

What is a fenestrated sterile drape?

A

A drape that is placed over the patient, with the opening over the area where the surgical procedure will be performed.

140
Q

Two tablespoons of medication are equal to

A

30 mL.

141
Q

You have just done a venipuncture on your patient and the patient says she feels like she is going to faint. Into what position do you quickly place your patient in?

A

Trendelenburg

142
Q

Which of the following information must be given to the patient in order for them to have received informed consent?

A

An explanation of risks involved in the procedure

143
Q

Which of the following can help patients learn and retain information?

A

Repeat and reinforce important information

144
Q

Tim is newly diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. Tim is receiving insulin. His medical assistant knows that Tim needs to be taught to be cautious about which of the following adverse effects?

A

Hypoglycemic reaction

145
Q

The normal specific gravity of urine, which measures the ability of kidneys to concentrate urine, ranges from

A

1.010 to 1.030.

146
Q

Staphylococci are the primary causative pathogen for which one of the following diseases?

A

Acne/boils

147
Q

Michelle has an order to administer a TB test to her patient. She knows that the body sites used for an intradermal injection are the

A

Anterior forearm and the upper back.

148
Q

The correct site for an adult IM injection is the

A

Gluteus medius.

149
Q

Diabetic patient education must be acknowledged and followed by the patient. Which of the following is recommended for a diabetic patient?

A

Check feet daily for sores and wounds

150
Q

Excessive squeezing around a capillary puncture site will cause

A

dilution of the sample with tissue fluid.

151
Q

The angle for a subcutaneous injection is

A

45 degrees.

152
Q

When explaining drug use terminology to the patient, prophylactic is best explained as

A

Preventing the occurrence of a condition (e.g., vaccines prevent the occurrence of specific infectious diseases).

153
Q

Fire extinguishers must be inspected and recharged, if necessary,

A

once a year.

154
Q

A second-degree burn would appear as

A

red, edematous, wet, shiny, or blistered.

155
Q

The basic ECG has how many leads?

A

12

156
Q

Sarah knows that legally, all vaccine providers must give patients, their parents, or their legal representatives, the appropriate Vaccine Information Statement (VIS) whenever a vaccination is administered. The required information that must be recorded on the patient’s medical record includes the

A

Edition date of the VIS, the date the VIS is provided (i.e., the date of the visit when the vaccine is administered).

157
Q

When educating a patient on the signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction, which of the following is a classic sign and symptom?

A

Shortness of breath (SOB)

158
Q

Nancy has been given the following physician order: Give 500 mg of a medication intramuscularly now. The drug that is available is 1000mg/1mL. The amount of the drug that Nancy should draw up is

A

0.5 mL

159
Q

If it is necessary to move an unresponsive, adult victim quickly away from a scene unassisted, you should

A

drag the patient by the heels to safety.

160
Q

What should be done if a patient reports intense pain after a needle is inserted into the patient’s arm?

A

Remove the needle immediately and treat the patient appropriately.

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