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Embraer 550 > RKA's > Flashcards

RKA's Flashcards

1
Q

What is the length of the aircraft?

A

68 Feet, 1 Inch

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2
Q

What is the width of the aircraft?

A

66 feet, 5 inches

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3
Q

What is the height of the aircraft?

A

21 feet, 2 inches

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4
Q

What is the required minimum width for runway use?

A

56 Feet

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5
Q

What do we know about the internal stowage compartment?

A

It is accessed through the lavatory, which means its also pressurised. It can hold up up to a maximum of 330 lbs of of baggage and it also has a smoke detector.

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6
Q

How many types of DU reversion and what are they?

A

There are two and they are automatic and manual.

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7
Q

How do the two ways of reversion differentiate?

A

Automatic is when the DU pick up a fault and then interchange to provide the mandatory displays.

Manual is when they either pilot uses the DIM/BRT know on the reversionary panel switches

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8
Q

Where are the pocket doors and what state should be they be in taxi, take off and landing?

A

It separates the cabin to the lavatory and they should be open and locked.

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9
Q

What 5 doors does the door warning system provide for?

A

1) Main door
2) Cargo door
3) Electronics door
4) Emergency door
5) Fuelling door

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10
Q

What colour will the 5 doors appear as on the EICAS?

A

All of them will be red apart from the cargo and fuelling door. They will be amber because they aren’t pressurised.

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11
Q

What will appear on the ELT control panel if it its activated?

A

A red light will appear, transmitting periodic flashes on 121.5/243 Mhz or long flashes on 406Mhz

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12
Q

What do we know about the courtesy lights?

A

There are individual lights on each step of the stairs as well as a dome light. They can be activated by pressing a momentary switch in the cabin and they will be activated for 5 minutes by being powered from the HOT BUS

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13
Q

What also powers the dome light?

A

EMER BUS 2 powers the dome light encase of an electrical emergency

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14
Q

There is an EMER LT knob, what position should it be in and why?

A

It should be in auto because if the aircraft suffers an electrical emergency, they will automatically come on.

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15
Q

What electrical system is the aircraft equipped with?

A

28 Volt DC EGPDS

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16
Q

How do you know if the GPU is connect and available for use?

A

The GPU voltage will be between 25 - 30 volts and there will be a white AVAIL appearing on the GPU button.

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17
Q

If the GPU is connected and in use and the APU is started, what is used at the power source?

A

The APU will take over

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18
Q

If the batteries are discharging, what colour will they be?

A

Amber

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19
Q

There are three generators, two for the engine and one for the APU, what are they rated at?

A

28 V 600 AMP continuous

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20
Q

The GPU may be used to charge the batteries, but is the requirement?

A

Initially 28 Volts and then must not drop below 27 volts

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21
Q

What is the max altitude you can start the APU?

A

31,000 feet.

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22
Q

If the APU is the only electrical source on the ground, what is it powering?

A

All electrical loads, charging the batteries and SHED buses.

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23
Q

If the APU is the only electrical source in the air what is it powering?

A

All electrical loads, charging the batteries but NOT the SHED buses

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24
Q

What is classed as an electrical emergency?

A

When all three generators are offline

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25
Q

What is automatically deployed in an electrical emergency?

A

The RAT

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26
Q

What does the RAT power?

A

EMER BUS 1, 2, 3, as well as charging the batteries

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27
Q

What is the minimum speed for the RAT to operate?

A

140 knots

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28
Q

What are the two batteries and what are they rated at?

A

They are two NiCad batteries and both rated at 24 Volts

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29
Q

If there’s an electrical emergency, how do you the batteries are the only source of power?

A

Only the emergency buses will be energised and the batteries will be discharging and therefore will be amber

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30
Q

How are the emergency buses energised by the batteries during an electrical emergency?

A

They will be isolated from the main electrical system to be energised by the batteries

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30
Q

Why does BATT 2 have an AUTO detent and no an ON detent?

A

It will be isolated to help power with APU start

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31
Q

How many generators are needed to power the SHED buses?

A

You need two

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32
Q

How many FADEC’s are there for each engine?

A

There are two single channel FADEC’s for each engine

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33
Q

If you leave the ignition knob in AUTO, what does this do to the engines?

A

This allows the FADEC’s to control the ignition system depending on engine requirments.

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34
Q

What does pressing the EVENT MARKER button do?

A

It allows the FADEC’s to record 3 minutes of data. 2 minutes of data before pressing the date to 1 minute after

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35
Q

What do we know about the thrust reversers?

A

1) There are only used for landing or RTO
2) They are not to be used while taxiing
3) They must be stowed at 40 knots
4) They are only available when the WOW signal is indicating the aircraft is on the ground

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36
Q

There are two colours for the reversers, what are they and what do they mean?

A

1) Amber means they are commanded and in transition
2) Green means they are commanded and deployed

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37
Q

What do we know about the oil?

A

1) Its best to check 5-30 minutes after flight.
2) It measurement is hidden in flight
3) The consumption is 0.04 quarts an hour

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38
Q

What is the purpose of and air turbine starter?

A

It can use air pressure from the APU, opposite engine or ground air supply to start an engine

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39
Q

What does ATTCS stand for?

A

Automatic take off thrust available

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40
Q

When is ATTCS available?

A

When wing anti ice is on. The ice protection mode knob should be in the position ‘ALL’

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41
Q

If the ATTCS is armed, when will it operate?

A

1) Greater than 15% N1 (OEI)
2) Windshear is detected
3) Thrust lever is moved to the MAX position
4) Loss of cross communication between engines

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42
Q

What are the starter motoring limits?

A

It will be either max accumulated time of 5 minutes or max 3 consecutive cycles which ever is first. After this, a period of 15 minutes cool down is required.

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43
Q

What is the process for starting an engine with an ITT of 450 degrees or higher?

A

You must dry motor the engine for the 30 seconds

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44
Q

What is the process for starting an engine between 15 and 180 minutes?

A

You must dry motor the engine for either 15 seconds or until N2 reaches 23%, what ever is first

Then to start the engine, it must be between 3 and 40 minutes since the dry motor

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45
Q

How is the engine fire detection system monitored, periodically or continuously?

A

Continuously monitored

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46
Q

What happens to the APU if you run two fire tests within 15 seconds?

A

It may shutdown

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47
Q

What do you test for when pressing the FIRE TEST button?

A

It will test the smoke detection system and will check for cockpit aural and visual indications. The test lasts for 10 seconds.

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48
Q

How many fire extinguishing bottles are there?

A

There two, bottle A and bottle B. A is for the engines, B is for both the engines and APU

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49
Q

What happens if you push the engine fire shutoff buttons?

A

This will shut off the associated fuel, hydraulics and will close the bleed shut off valves. The bottles will then light up which means they’re armed to be discharged

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50
Q

What happens if you push the APU fire shutoff button?

A

This will shut off the fuel and close the bleed air shut off valves. It will then arm bottle B to be discharged

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51
Q

What will the APU do if it over heats or detects a fire?

A

It will automatically shut down

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52
Q

What happens if you press the fire cargo button on the ground?

A

It will immediately discharge the high rate bottle but you will need to push it again to discharge the metred bottle.

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53
Q

What happens if you press the fire cargo button in flight?

A

It will immediately discharge the high rate bottle but it will wait 2 minutes to then discharge to discharge the metred bottle.

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54
Q

How many configurations are there for the metred bottle?

A

There are two, either 110 or 78 minutes

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55
Q

How should the pilots acknowledge the CAS messages?

A

By pressing the master warning or master caution buttons.

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56
Q

What does a fault mean?

A

It can still operated but there is a partial loss of system function

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57
Q

EICAS messages that generate more than one CAS message are called what?

A

Golden CAS messages and they are proceeded by a chevron

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58
Q

When are some CAS messaged inhibited?

A

Take off, approach and landing

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59
Q

How are time critical warnings presented?

A

Through voice messages

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60
Q

What is the purpose of the AURAL MUTE button?

A

Inhibits the warnings on the respective side.

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61
Q

What happens when TCAS issues an RA?

A

There will be a green box on the ADI showing you the fly zone

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62
Q

Where will traffic and TCAS overlay appear?

A

On the HSI

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63
Q

How many hydraulics systems are there and what pressure do they operate at?

A

There are 3 and operate at 3000 PSI

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64
Q

There is an amber tick mark on the pressure indication for the hydraulics, what pressure is it?

A

1800 PSI

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65
Q

What happens if 2 out of 3 hydraulic systems fail?

A

Due to system design, not even 2 failures will cause a complete loss of flight critical functions

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66
Q

What happens if the HYD pump 1 is in AUTO?

A

The DC motor pump is commanded to start by the LGHCU during take off and landing phases

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67
Q

What other systems can hydraulic system 3 operate with?

A

The RAT and battery

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68
Q

What is the purpose of the PTU?

A

It’s a backup for Hydraulic system 1 and 2 and can transfer power from one to another

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69
Q

What happens to the overheating protection for HYD 3 the aircraft loses HYD 1 and 2?

A

The protection will be inhibited

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70
Q

When will the PTU be activated automaticaly?

A

When the PTU knob is in auto and there is an engine failure or engine driven pump failure

71
Q

Why would the landing gear indications be red?

A

The landing gear level and actual position of the gear are different and the fault has been detected for more than 20 seconds

72
Q

When nose wheel steering has been activated, how long does it take for the CAS message and light to disappear?

A

2 seconds

73
Q

Out of the steering button and steering disengage switch, which one has priority?

A

The steering disengage switch

74
Q

What is the minimum distance to start towing an aircraft before turning?

A

3 Metres

75
Q

When should you use the down lock release button?

A

When the landing gear control lever has failed or when you need to clear obstacles

76
Q

What colour should the break temps be to take off?

A

Green

77
Q

What will the auto brake in RTO demand?

A

Pressure equivalent to maximum manual braking

78
Q

Is there any anti ski protection while braking with the emergency/parking brake?

A

No

79
Q

When will autobrake kick in?

A

1 second after WOW indicates the aircraft is on the ground and thrust levers at idle. The selected level will apply 1 second after nose wheel touches the ground

80
Q

Why would the steering system be automatically disengaged when airborne?

A

To stop the nose wheel moving in the bay

81
Q

What do we know about the parking break accumulators?

A

They can make 6 emergency braking applications or 16 hours of parking

82
Q

What is the turning range of the nose wheel?

A

-/+ 170 degrees

83
Q

What are the steering angles and associated speeds?

A

1) +/- 62 degrees 10 knots
2) +/- 8 degrees 25 knots
3) +/- 3 degrees 68 knots

84
Q

The autobrake should be set to what in for emergency and abnormal procedures?

A

Set to ‘OFF’

85
Q

How many cylinders provide O2 for the crew and passengers?

A

Only 1 bottle.

86
Q

At what cabin altitude would the masks deploy?

A

14,500 feet

87
Q

There are two capacities of oxygen bottles, what are they?

A

77 and 115 cubic feet

88
Q

What mode selectors are there for the oxygen mask?

A

NORM, 100% and EMGCY

89
Q

What position do you need the mode selector to be in to stow the O2 masks away?

A

100%

90
Q

Why do the masks have an oxygen saver push/pull button?

A

So the crew can breathe cabin air when O2 is not required

91
Q

When would you need to refer to the oxygen dispatch pressure charts?

A

When the oxygen pressure is white

92
Q

Why do the smoke goggles have a vent valve?

A

So they can purge any smoke or toxic fumes.

93
Q

How quickly should the oxygen masks be donned?

A

5 seconds

94
Q

What position should the oxygen toggle switch be in if the cabin temp is -15 or lower?

A

Should be set to off

95
Q

When can we use the TCS button as a trim button?

A

Manual flight, flaps 3 or landing with gear down

96
Q

When can the pitch trim switch be manually commanded?

A

Either on the ground or direct mode

97
Q

When is manual reversion to DM inhibited?

A

1) Low and high speed protection
2) AOA limiter protection

98
Q

How many bands do the low speed awareness have in normal mode?

A

Three bands, Vss, Vaoa and Vlim

99
Q

How many FCC’s are needed for functionality in normal mode?

A

Only 1

100
Q

What is the minimum time the black battery can operate for for crew to recover electrical operation?

A

15 minutes

101
Q

When the PBIT automatically tests the FCS, how long does it take?

A

Less than one minute, but if not satisfied then up-to 3 tests are performed

102
Q

What is the rate of the de-rotation law?

A

2 degrees a second

103
Q

When would the speed brakes automatically stow?

A

1) Below 160 knots
2) Thrust levers greater than 55
3) Flap lever and position is set to 3 or full
4) AOA limiter is engaged

104
Q

If the crew detects a flight control misbehaviour, what should they do?

A

Revert to Direct mode

105
Q

What are the limits of the normal flight envelope?

A

1) Bank angle up to 33 degrees
2) High speed protection
3) Low energy avoidance protection
4) Pitch attitude protection

106
Q

What are the limits of the high speed protection envelope?

A

Vmo + 22 knots

107
Q

What records flight parameters and for how long?

A

The FDR does and records from engine start to engine stop

108
Q

what is the function of the Quick access recorder?

A

Acquire airplane flight data

109
Q

What does the CVR record and for how long?

A

Records a minimum of 120 minutes of cockpit environment audio and transmitted/received audio. It also records all written communication exchanged via data link

110
Q

What happens if there is a fuel imbalance of more then 880 LBS for 5 or more minutes?

A

You will get a CAS message saying ‘FUEL LEAK SUSPECTED’

111
Q

What does each fuel tank have?

A

Two DC fuel pumps and two scavenge pumps

112
Q

When will you receive a fuel imbalance CAS message?

A

When there is a difference of more than 510 lbs of fuel

113
Q

When are the back up pumps commanded to ‘ON’?

A

1) Main pumps fails
2) APU start or run
3) Low fuel pressure
4) Engine start

114
Q

The FCU energises the refuelling/defuelling display but how long does the pre-test take?

A

Only 10 seconds

115
Q

The power selection switch located on the refuelling control panel gives you two options on how to enable pressurised refuelling, what are they?

A

External ground power or the batteries

116
Q

What should you do if the STOP REFUEL message appears during re-fuelling?

A

The operator shall move the refuelling switch to off

117
Q

Apart from pressurised refuelling, is there another way to refuel?

A

Gravity ports on top of the wing

118
Q

Can the aircraft be defueled?

A

Yes, either by suction or pressure

119
Q

What is the total fuel capacity?

A

13,140 LBS

120
Q

What is the total take off fuel?

A

13,050 LBS

121
Q

What is the max fuel temp for take off?

A

52 degrees

122
Q

How many consecutive unsuccessful start attempts are allowed for the APU?

A

3 attempts with 30 second intervals

123
Q

Is the APU the primary source of pneumatic air?

A

Yes, but only on the ground

124
Q

What altitude is the limit for the APU to supply bleed air for an engine start?

A

23,000 feet

125
Q

What altitude is the limit for the APU to supply bleed air for the ECS?

A

20,000 feet

126
Q

What are the limits for flying in FPA mode?

A

+/- 9.9 degrees

127
Q

What do we know about the half bank limit?

A

1) It is restricted to 15 degrees above 25000 in a climb
2) It then increases to 30 degrees below 25000 in a descent

128
Q

Where are the ILS checkpoints?

A

1500 and 800 feet.

129
Q

When is EDM enabled?

A

AP is engaged and above 25000

130
Q

What happens if the speed gets below the top of the LSA with AP engaged?

A

The auto throttle will engage

131
Q

What are the parameters of AT hold?

A

From 60 knots to 400 feet AGL with aut throttle will go into hold mode to prevent any reduction in thrust

132
Q

What is the minimum height you can engage the AP?

A

400 feet AGL

133
Q

If the ‘DETENT C’ is selected, where does the cabin temp control transfer too?

A

The VIP seat panel

134
Q

On the ECS, when can you look at the outflow valve and what indicates its position?

A

Only on the ground and it is indicated by a green pointer

135
Q

Can you have bleed air from the APU and engines at the same time?

A

No

136
Q

When does the bleed air source change from APU to the engines?

A

When the thrust levers are moved over 50

137
Q

What closes on case of an air bleed leak or overpressure?

A

The XBSOV is commanded to close

138
Q

What does the PSC automatically select?

A

It will auto select the bleed source

139
Q

What happens if the air con pack fails?

A

The PSC automatically engages the back backup and control the cockpit and cabin temp to 24 degrees

140
Q

What is provided for non-pressurised flight or smoke evacuation?

A

RAM air ventilation

141
Q

What happens if the air con pack and back up pack fail?

A

The PCS commands the emergency RAM air door to open

142
Q

Is there another way to open the RAM air door?

A

Yes, by pressing the ‘DUMP’ button

143
Q

Can the PSC provide heating to anywhere?

A

Yes, the cargo compartment and it is automatic

144
Q

What happens if there is a temp difference of 6 degrees between the selected and actual temp?

A

Fast cooling or fast heating will be auto enabled

145
Q

There are negative and positive pressure relief valves, how are they actuated and are they open or closed during normal ops?

A

They are mechanically actuated and they are closed during normal ops

146
Q

What do the negative and positive PRV do?

A

They prevent over or under pressurisation

147
Q

What does the MODE button do on the pressurization panel?

A

Allows automatic or manual control of the pressurisation. If in manual, you can move the knob next to it to change the cabin altitude in 50 feet increments.

148
Q

What does the pressure ‘DUMP’ button do?

A

Rapidly depressurises the cabin

149
Q

What is the max differential pressure for the cabin altitudes?

A

1) 9.73 PSI for 5800 feet
2) 9.64 PSI for 6000 feet

150
Q

What is the max differential over pressure?

A

10.4 PSI

151
Q

What is the max differential negative pressure?

A

-0.5 PSI

152
Q

What is the max diff pressure for take off and landing?

A

0.2 psi

153
Q

When may icing conditions exist?

A

When there is visible moisture and OAT is 10 degrees C

154
Q

What is OPERA?

A

An approved software to provide performance data for all stages of flight

155
Q

Performance data for icing conditions can be found where?

A

The performance section and/or OPERA

156
Q

What does the ‘ICE SPEED RESET’ do?

A

If you move the knob to this detent, it resets the stall protection to non-icing conditions

157
Q

Can the APU be used as a bleed source for the ice protection system?

A

No, only for ground tests which is why it will only appear on the synoptic page on the ground.

158
Q

How are the engine inlets protected from ice?

A

The engine ice protection systems extracts hot air from the engines

158
Q

How are the wings and stabilizer protected from ice?

A

They use hot air from the pneumatic system for protection

159
Q

How long is the wing and stabilizer test?

A

35 seconds. It can be manually initiated by pressing the ‘test’ button.

160
Q

How many ice detectors are there and where are they located?

A

There are two that are located on the left and right side of the aircraft nose

161
Q

How is the windshield protected from ice?

A

Uses electrical power to heat the windscreen

162
Q

When is the only time the windshield heat does not operate?

A

When the only power source at the batteries

163
Q

What is the max altitude for anti ice single bleed operation?

A

20,000 feet

164
Q

How are the ADS probes protected?

A

The ADSP/TAT heating system uses electrical power to heat and protect the probes

165
Q

The ice protection mode knobs has 4 detents, what are do detents ENG, ALL and AUTO do?

A

1) ENG - If temp is between 5-10 degrees C with visible moisture

2) ALL - If the temp is below 5 degrees C with visible moisture

3) AUTO - the protection will be activated is above 1700 feet or 2 minutes in the air, which ever is first

166
Q

When will wing and the stabilizer anti ice system be operated when in the ALL detent?

A

Once the wheel speed has reached 30 knots or more

167
Q

When will wing and the stabilizer anti ice system be automatically turned off when in the ALL detent?

A

2 minutes after leaving icing conditions or if ice detectors aren’t detecting any ice.

168
Q

What is the max demonstrated crosswind for take off and landing?

A

25 knots

169
Q

What is minimum drag speed?

A

200 knots

170
Q

How many vortex generators are there?

A

21

171
Q

What is the max ramp and take off weight?

A

1) 17,480kg
2) 17,400kg

172
Q

What is the MLW?

A

15,660kg

173
Q

What is the MZFW?

A

12,020kg

174
Q

Can you use the FMS for OEI and drift down speeds?

A

No, the aircraft must be in manual speed

175
Q

What are the ranges for the weather radar system?

A

320 NM for precipitation related weather
40 NM for precipitation related turbulence

Embraer 550 (2 decks)

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