Rita Hot topics

Question 1

Scope

what is the definition of scope management?

(p 153)

Answer 1

Defining what work is required and then making sure all that work- and only that work-is completed

Question 2

Scope

what is the difference between product scope and project scope?

(p 154)

Answer 2

product scope refers to the requirements related to the product, service, or result of the project, while project scope involves the work the project team would do to deliver the product of the project

Question 3

Scope

what is timeboxing?

(p 154)

Answer 3

an agile planning tool using short, fixed periods of time set for the team to complete a selected in prioritize set of activities.

Question 4

Scope

describe the purpose of a minimal viable product (MVP)

(p 154)

Answer 4

On an agile project, it allows the customer to take delivery of the product and use it while the team continues to build the rest of the product. Also known as the minimal marketable features (MMFs)

Question 5

Scope

describe what a scope management looks like on a predictive project

(p 156)

Answer 5

1. Develop a plan for how to plan, validate and control scope and requirements
2. Determine requirements
3. Analyze and balance stakeholder needs to determine scope
4. Create a WBS to break the scope down to smaller, more manageable pieces. Define each piece in the WBS dictionary
5. Obtain validation (signed acceptance) that the complete scope of work is acceptable to the customer or sponsor
6. Measure scope performance and adjust as needed.

Question 6

Scope

describe what scope management looks like on an agile project

(p 157)

Answer 6

1. requirements are identified and documented at a sufficient level of detail so they can be prioritized and estimated at a high level
2. the product’s features are kept in the list called the product backlog
3. the work is broken into product releases
4. for each release, the work is completed through iterations
5. the work of each iteration (and release ) is defined successively in more detail just before the work for each iteration begins

Question 7

Scope

how is product scope different for agile projects than it is for plan-driven projects?

(p 157)

Answer 7

product scope is typically more flexible in agile projects.

Question 8

Scope

what artifacts result from the plan scope management process?

Answer 8

1. scope management plan
2. requirements management plan

Question 9

Scope

which is the difference between a product backlog and a product roadmap?

(p 158/159)

Answer 9

a product backlog is a list of the functional and non-functional work identified for the project, while a product roadmap is a visual representation of the product’s main components broken into sequential products releases

Question 10

Scope

what is the difference between eliciting requirements in a predictive environment versus an adaptive environment?

(p 161/162)

Answer 10

predicting environments: A missed requirement early in the project could mean significant changes and conflict throughout the remainder of a project

adaptive environments: Agile teams initially define requirements at a high level and then progressively refines them, helping to avoid or lessen the effect of change requests

Question 11

Scope

name several requirements-gathering techniques

(p. 162- 164)

Answer 11

1. brainstorming
2. interviews
3. focus groups
4. questionnaires and surveys
5. benchmarking
6. facilitation
7. voting
8. multicriteria decision analysis
9. nominal group technique
10. observation
11. prototypes
12. affinity diagrams
13. mind maps
14. context diagrams

Question 12

Scope

what artifacts should the project manager look at to resolve competing requirements?

(p. 167)

Answer 12

competing requirements can be resolved by accepting those that best comply with the:
1. business case
2. project charter
3. scope statement
4. known project constraints

Question 13

Scope

what are some ways requirements can be verified?

(p 169)

Answer 13

meetings
prototypes
iteration reviews

Question 14

Scope

what are acceptance criteria?

(p. 169)

Answer 14

criteria used to ensure the project meets stakeholder requirements

Question 15

Scope

what does the value of a requirements traceability matrix?

(p 170)

Answer 15

helps link requirements to objectives and/or other requirements to ensure the strategic goals are accomplished

Question 16

Scope

what is product analysis?

(p. 172)

Answer 16

a method of analyzing the objectives and description of the product as stated by the customer or sponsor

Question 17

Scope

what is the key artifact of the Define Scope process?

(p 172)

Answer 17

project scope statement

Question 18

Scope

what are the key items included in a project scope statement?

(p 172)

Answer 18

1. product scope
2. project scope
3. list of product deliverables
4. acceptance criteria

Question 19

Scope

what is not part of the project?

(p 172)

Answer 19

assumptions and constraints.

Question 20

Scope

when is a work breakdown structure (WBS) created and what is it used for?

(p 173)

Answer 20

created during project planning by the team and used to define or decompose the project the smaller, more manageable pieces

graphically provides a structured vision for a project and helps Ensure that nothing is missed and no deliverables are forgotten

Question 21

Scope

how are work packages different from from activities?

(p 174)

Answer 21

what packages are deliverables (things), rather than actions (activities)

Work packages are shown in the WBS

activities are shown in an activity list and network diagram

Question 22

Scope

what is the WBS dictionary?

(p. 177)

Answer 22

documentation providing details needed to build each work package

Question 23

Scope

what makes up the scope baseline?

(p 178)

Answer 23

1. project scope statement
2. WBS
3. WBS dictionary

Question 24

Scope

describe scope the composition on an agile project

(p 180)

Answer 24

1. high-level requirements are gathered at the beginning of the project
2. features are created from large and complex, high-level requirements
3. medium-level requirements are broken into smaller stories
4. each story needs to be broken further by various types of requirements

Question 25

Scope

What is MoSCoW analysis?

(p 181)

Answer 25

I breeakdown method of higher-level requirements at the release map and product (feature) backlog levels

MoSCoW stands for “must have, should have, could have, and would like to have,” and is a prioritization scheme for selecting features and functionalities

Question 26

Scope

what is the validate scope process? when is it done?

(p 182)

Answer 26

the process of gaining formal acceptance of the deliverables by the customer or sponsor. done during project monitoring and controlling at the end of each face of the Project Life cycle

Question 27

Scope

what key artifacts result from the validate scope process?

(p 185)

Answer 27

1. work performance information
2. change requests
3. accepted deliverables
4. updates to project management plan and project documents

Question 28

Scope

what are some methods for controlling and validating scope?

Answer 28

predictive:
1. inception
2. data analysis
3. decision making

Adaptive :
1. agile ceremonies
2. customer valued prioritization
3. incremental product delivery

Question 29

Schedule

what are dependencies?

(p. 189)

Answer 29

logical relationships between activities in a project

Question 30

Budget & Resources

According to the Process Groups model, what are the processes of cost management?

(p. 230)

Answer 30

1. Plan Cost Management
2. Estimate Costs
3. Determine Budget
4. Control Costs

Question 31

Budget & Resources

What combined baselines are called the performance measurement baseline?

(p. 235)

Answer 31

Scope, schedule, and cost baseline

Question 32

Budget & Resources

What is earned value analysis, and how is it used?

(p. 230)

Answer 32

It is an analysis method that uses earned value and other metrics to evaluate how well the project is doing relative to what was planned to date.

Together with other measures, the project manager can determine the overall project performance against the performance measurements baseline.

Question 33

Budget & Resources

What is earned value management (EVM)?

(p. 230)

Answer 33

The practice of managing scope, schedule, and cost using earned value analysis to control the project

Question 34

Budget & Resources

What artifact results from the plan cost management process?

(p. 230)

Answer 34

Cost Management Plan

Question 35

Budget & Resources

What artifacts are needed for the Estimate Costs process?

(p. 233)

Answer 35

1. Resource requirements documentation (Project Docs)
2. Cost and quality management plans (Project Management Plan)
3. Scope and schedule baselines (Project Management Plan)
4. Lessons learned and risk registers (Project Docs)
5. Policies and historical records related to estimating (OPAs)
6. Templates and processes, including those from past projects (OPAs)
7. Corporate governance (OPAs)
8. Marketplace conditions, commercial cost databases, exchange rates, inflation, and supply sources (Enterprise Environmental Factors)

Question 36

Budget & Resources

How do variable costs differ from fixed costs?

(p. 232)

Answer 36

Variable costs change with the amount of production or amount of work done on the project

Fixed costs do not change as production changes

Question 37

Budget & Resources

What is a direct cost?
What is an indirect cost?

(p. 233)

Answer 37

Direct cost: A cost that is directly attributable to the work of the project

Indirect cost: Overhead costs or costs incurred for the benefit of more than one project

Question 38

Budget & Resources

Name the advantages of analogous estimating

(p. 233)

Answer 38

1. Quick
2. Activities do not need to be identified
3. Less costly create
4. In initiating, provides cost constraints to evaluate high-level project feasibility
5. Overall project costs can be capped for this type of estimate

Question 39

Budget & Resources

Name the advantages of bottom-up estimating

(p. 233)

Answer 39

1. More accurate
2. Gains buy-in from the team
3. Based on a detailed project and deliverable
4. Provides a basis for monitoring and controlling, performance measurement, and management

Question 40

Budget & Resources

Name the typical range for the following:
* Rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate
* Budget estimate
* Definitive estimate

(p. 234)

Answer 40

1. -20% to + 75% from actual
2. -10% to +25% from actual
3. +/- 10% from actual

Question 41

Budget & Resources

What key artifacts result from the Estimate Costs process?

(p. 234)

Answer 41

1. Cost estimates
2. Basis of estimates
3. Update to project documents

Question 42

Budget & Resources

What methods are used to estimate costs in an adaptive environment?

(p. 235)

Answer 42

1. T-shirt sizing
2. Planning poker
3. Affinity estimation

Question 43

Budget & Resources

What is cost aggregation

(p. 236)

Answer 43

Pulling together the costs of all activities.

Question 44

Budget & Resources

At what point are contingency reserves added to the budget?

(p. 236)

Answer 44

After risk management planning

Question 45

Budget & Resources

What is the difference between a cost budget and a cost baseline?

(p. 236)

Answer 45

The cost baseline is an estimated total cost performance measurement baseline; it does not include the management reserves

The cost budget is the total that includes the cost baseline + management reserves

Question 46

Budget & Resources

What agile tool can be used to anticipate future budgetary issues on agile projects?

(p. 237)

Answer 46

Velocity

Question 47

Budget & Resources

On adaptive projects the majority of cost estimates for projections and estimate at completion are based on what?

(p. 237)

Answer 47

Burn rate

Question 48

Budget & Resources

What key artifacts result from the Determine Budget process?

(p. 237)

Answer 48

1. Cost baseline
2. Project funding requirements
3. Update to project documents

Question 49

Budget & Resources

How can progress reporting help the project manager?

(p. 239)

Answer 49

It can help control schedule and costs

It can help the project manager assess whether the project is on track through earned value analysis

Question 50

Budget & Resources

What is the purpose of reserve analysis?

(p. 239)

Answer 50

It allows the project manager to identify and apply lessons learned and controlling cards

Cost control includes analyzing where contingency reserves are still necessary or where new reserves are required.

Question 51

Budget & Resources

What is the difference between planned value and earned value?

(p. 240)

Answer 51

Planned value is the estimated value of the work planned, as of today

Earned value is the estimated value of the work actually accomplished, as of today

Question 52

Budget & Resources

What is actual cost?
What is budget at completion?

(p. 240)

Answer 52

The actually incurred for the work accomplished, as of today

The project’s planned budget;it indicates what the end cost of the project would be if everything were according to plan

Question 53

Budget & Resources

What is the formula for cost variance?

(p. 241)

Answer 53

EV - AC = CV

Question 54

Budget & Resources

What is the formula for schedule variance?

(p. 241)

Answer 54

EV - PV = SV

Question 55

Budget & Resources

What is the formula for cost performance index?

(p. 241)

Answer 55

EV/AC= CPI

Question 56

Budget & Resources

What is the formula for schedule performance index?

(p. 241)

Answer 56

EV/PV=SPI

Question 57

Budget & Resources

What does a positive number indicate for CV or SV?

(p. 241)

Answer 57

A positive number indicates that the project is under budget (CV) or ahead of schedule (SV)

A negative number would indicate that the project is over budget (CV) or behind schedule (SV)

Question 58

Budget & Resources

What does a number less than one indicate with CPI and SPI?

(p. 241)

Answer 58

Greater than one is good
Less than one is bad

Question 59

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is the definition of quality?

(page 249)

Answer 59

The degree to which the project fulfills requirements

Question 60

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is the ‘definition of done’?

(page 250)

Answer 60

Agile teams define what ‘done’ looks like throughout the project

Definitions of done are decided at the project release, and story levels

Question 61

Quality of Deliverables & Products

Define grade

(page 250)

Answer 61

General classification of a product that can be used for various technical specifications

Question 62

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What does gold plating mean?

(page 251)

Answer 62

Giving the customer extras ( extra functionality, higher-quality components, extra scope, or better performance)

It is often the team’s impression of what is valued by the customer. (The customer might not agree)

Question 63

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What does continuous improvement involve?

(page 251)

Answer 63

Continously looking for ways to improve the quality of work, processes, and results

Question 64

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is the focus of total quality management (TQM)?

(page 251)

Answer 64

Finding ways to continuously improve the quality of products and business practices at every level of the organization.

Question 65

Quality of Deliverables & Products

How much inventory is maintained in a just in time (JIT) environment? How does this affect attention to quality

(page 251)

Answer 65

Little inventory is maintained. It forces attention to quality as well as schedule

Question 66

Quality of Deliverables & Products

According to the process group’s model, what processes are involved in quality management?

(page 252)

Answer 66

1. Plan Quality management
2. Manage quality
3. Control quality

Question 67

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What artifacts result from the plan quality management process?

(page 257)

Answer 67

1. Quality management plan
2. Quality metrics
3. Update the project management plan and project documents.

Question 68

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What artifacts result from the manage quality process?

(page 258)

Answer 68

1. Test and evaluate documents
2. Quality reports
3. Change requests

Question 69

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What are quality metrics?

(page 257)

Answer 69

Specific measures of quality that the project manager uses to determine how the project is performing compared to what was planned

Question 70

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What artifacts result from the Control Quality process?

(p. 258)

Answer 70

1. Quality control measurements
2. Work performance information
3. Update the project management plan and project documents
4. Change requests
5. Verified deliverables

Question 71

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What does mutual exclusivity mean?

(page 258)

Answer 71

Two events are said to be mutually exclusive if they cannot both occur in a single trial (e.g. flipping a coin once cannot result in both a head and a tail)

Question 72

Quality of Deliverables & Products

In what form is probability usually expressed?

(page 258)

Answer 72

As a decimal or a fraction

Question 73

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is normal distribution and how is it used?

(page 258)

Answer 73

Expressed as a chart that takes the shape of a bell curve and is used to measure variations away from the “norm”

Question 74

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is statistical independence?

(page 259)

Answer 74

The probability of one event occurring does not affect the probability of another event occurring (for example, the probability of rolling a six on a die is statistically independent from the probability of getting a five on the next roll)

Question 75

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What does sigma signify in a process? What’s another name for sigma?

(page 259)

Answer 75

It is a measure of how far you are from the mean (not the median). Standard deviation.

Question 76

Quality of Deliverables & Products

Name some methods used in plan quality management

(page 259 - 261)

Answer 76

1. Interviews
2. Brainstorming and benchmarking
3. Decision-making
4. Cost-benefit Analysis
5. Cost of Quality
6. Marginal Analysis
7. Logical Data Models
8. Matrix Representations
9. Mind Mapping
10. Prioritization Matrix
11. Flowcharts
12. Test and inspection planning
13. Meetings

Question 77

Quality of Deliverables & Products

Define benchmarking

(page 259)

Answer 77

Comparing the project to other projects or organizations to establish quality metrics and acceptable variance ranges, and measure quality

Question 78

Quality of Deliverables & Products

Define cost-benefit analysis

(page 259)

Answer 78

Comparing the costs of an effort to the benefits of that effort to determine the appropriate quality level and requirements for the project.

Question 79

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What does the cost of quality (COQ) do?

(page 260)

Answer 79

Ensures the project is not spending too much to achieve a particular level of quality

Question 80

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What does a logical data model represent?

(page 260)

Answer 80

The types of data an organization needs to use in a particular application, and the relationships between those data types

Question 81

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What does a flowchart shows?

(page 261)

Answer 81

How a process or system flows from beginning to end, how the elements interrelate, and alternative paths the process can take

Question 82

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is the purpose of test and inspection planning?

(page 261)

Answer 82

How the team will confirm that the required level of quality has been achieved in the completed project deliverables, and how the deliverables will be evaluated for performance and reliability.

Question 83

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is the purpose of marginal analysis?

(page 260)

Answer 83

Finding the point at which the benefits or revenue to be received from improving quality equals the cost to achieve it.

Question 84

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is a prioritization matrix used for?

(page 261)

Answer 84

To numerically rank available options. It is useful for decision analysis about quality management planning.

Question 85

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What are some of the methods used in the manage quality process?

(page 261-264)

Answer 85

1. Checklist
2. Cause-and-effect (fishbone) diagrams
3. Histograms
4. Scatter Diagrams
5. Document analysis
6. Alternatives analysis
7. Design of experiments (DOE)
8. Process analysis
9. Root coast analysis
10. Failure analysis
11. Multicriteria decision analysis
12. Flowcharts
13. Affinity Diagrams
14. Audits
15. Designs for X
16. Problem-solving

Question 86

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is a cause-and-effect (fishbone) diagram?

(page 261)

Answer 86

A graphical tool used to confirm that policies and procedures are being followed and metrics are being used correctly, and that the procedures were adequate to produce the required level of quality in project deliverables.

Question 87

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is design of experiments?

(page 263)

Answer 87

A technique used to quickly discover optimal conditions in which to produce a quality deliverable.

Question 88

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is process analysis?

(page 263)

Answer 88

As part of the continuous improvement effort, it focuses on identifying improvements that might be needed in project processes.

Question 89

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is the purpose of failure analysis?

(page 263)

Answer 89

It analyzes failed components of deliverables or failed processes to determine what led to that failure.

Question 90

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is design for x used for?

(page 264)

Answer 90

Analyzing variables to evaluate both the effectiveness of the quality management plan and the team’s ability to meet objectives. It can help determine what changes are needed.

Question 91

Quality of Deliverables & Products

Name some Control Quality methods

(page 264-266)

Answer 91

1. Checklists
2. Statistical Sampling
3. Questionnaires and Surveys
4. Performance Reviews
5. Root cause analysis
6. Inspection
7. Control Charts
8. Cause-and-effect (fishbone) diagrams
9. Histograms and parents charts
10. Checksheets
11. Scatter Diagrams

Question 92

Quality of Deliverables & Products

How does a Checksheet differ from a quality checklist?

(page 264 - 265)

Answer 92

Although a checksheet is a type of checklist, it’s primary purposes to keep track of data.

In Control Quality checklists are used to determine that all required features and functions are included, and that they meet acceptable criteria.

Question 93

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is statistical sampling?

(page 265)

Answer 93

Inspecting by testing only part of the population

Question 94

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is a control chart?

(page 264)

Answer 94

Control charts are used in Control Quality to help determine if the results of a process are within acceptable limits.

Question 95

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What do specification limits represent on the control chart?

(page 265)

Answer 95

The customer’s expectations or contractual requirements for performance and quality on the project.

Question 96

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is a mean on a control chart?

(page 266)

Answer 96

The average-the middle of the range of acceptable variation

Question 97

Quality of Deliverables & Products

How is a process defined as statistically out control?

(page 266)

Answer 97

A data point falls outside the upper or lower control limit.

There are non-random data points; these may be within the upper and lower control limits.

Question 98

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What does out of control mean?

(page 266)

Answer 98

There is a lack of consistency and predictability in the process or its results.

Question 99

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is the rule of seven? What does it signify?

(page 266)

Answer 99

A group or series of non-random data points that total seven on one side of the mean.

The rule of seven indicates that although none of these points are outside of the control limits, they are not random and the process is out of control.

Question 100

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is an assignable cause/special cause variation?

(page 267)

Answer 100

An assignment cause or special cause variation signifies that the process is out of control.

If there is an assignable cause or special cause variation, it means a data point, or a series of data points, requires investigation to determine the cause of the variation.

Question 101

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is a Pareto chart?

(page 264)

Answer 101

A histogram that arranges the results from most frequent to least frequent to help identify which issues are resulting in the most problems. Problems that need the most immediate attention or that are most likely to prevent the project from achieving its quality requirements.

Question 102

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is a scatter diagram used for?

(page 264)

Answer 102

It is used to compare actual results to what was anticipated, and to estimate and forecast future outcomes based on this comparison

Question 103

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What term describes how discovering quality issues early may decrease cost and rework that can impact a project?

(page 267)

Answer 103

Cost of change

Question 104

Quality of Deliverables & Products

On Agile on hybrid projects, how does getting feedback on small increments of work as soon as possible help the project manager evaluated when there is an issue with quality?

(page 267)

Answer 104

Learning about quality issues early, when they are usually still small and minor, allows them to be corrected while they are still low on the cost of change curve.

Question 105

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is frequent verification (QC) and validation (UAT)?

(page 268)

Answer 105

Regular testing, short timeboxes, and reviews to meet the customer’s needs.

Used by agile teams as a way to discover and address human error or the misinterpretation of customer expectations, early and often.

Question 106

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is retrospective?

(page 268)

Answer 106

A meeting that may be held after a release or even the entire project

Most often refers to the meeting that is held at the end of each short, time-boxed iteration of product development.

Question 107

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is the difference between lead time and cycle time?

(page 269)

Answer 107

Lead time measures how long something takes to go through an entire process.

Cycle time measures how long something takes to go through just a part of the process

Question 108

Quality of Deliverables & Products

Define Work in Progress (WIP) and throughput

(pages 268-269)

Answer 108

WIP (Work in progress) is the number of unfinished pieces of work going on at the same time.

Throughput is average time it takes to complete the work

Question 109

Quality of Deliverables & Products

How can WIP and throughput be used to calculate cycle time?

(page 269)

Answer 109

Cycle time is a function of WIP and throughput and can be calculated by using the formula:

Cycle Time=WIP/Throughput

Question 110

Quality of Deliverables & Products

What is defect cycle time?

(page 269)

Answer 110

Defect cycle time is the amount of time between the time the defect was introduced and the time it was fixed.

Question 111

Quality of Deliverables & Products

Why is it important to create a safe and open environment?

(page 269)

Answer 111

Creating a safe and open environment will help the project team feel comfortable not just to do their work but to admit their problems, failures, and mistakes and ask for help so that the project can stay on track and save time and money.

Question 112

Leadership Skills

How can a project manager create more productivity on a team?

(p 105)

Answer 112

By considering skills, learning styles, and motivations of the team and aligning project tasks and goals accordingly

Question 113

Leadership Skills

List some of the differences between management and leadership

(p 105)

Answer 113

Management Focus
* Tasks/Things
* Control
* Efficiency
* Doing things right
* Speed
* Practices
* Command
Leadership Focus
* People
* Empowerment
* Effectiveness
* Doing the right things
* Direction
* Principles
* Communication

Question 114

Leadership Skills

What is involved in critical thinking?

(p 106)

Answer 114

• Gathering unbiased information
• Responding logically, and without bringing more emotion to the situation
• Resolving issues using analytical skills
• Analyzing data to address the issue and choose the right path
• Being aware of relationships and related patterns
• Identifying when someone is off base with their reasoning.

Question 115

Leadership Skills

What is emotional intelligence?

(p 106)

Answer 115

The ability to perceive, evaluate, and control emotions in self and other

Question 116

Leadership Skills

Named the four primary duties a leader performs in the servant leadership role.

(p 107)

Answer 116

• Makes sure team members stay on trach and have no unnecessary interruptions, and that work unrelated to the project does not get added.
• Works to remove impediments to keep the team moving forward
• Continually communicate the project vision so team members have a good understanding of the final goal
• Gives the team everything they need to be productive and to stay motivated (rewards, compensation, support, encouragement etc)

Question 117

Leadership Skills

What is the difference between centralized and distributed management and leadership?

(Page 107)

Answer 117

Centralized teams report to one leader, such as the project manager. Distributed management is when the team follows the leadership of several individuals.

Question 118

Leadership Skills

How should communications flow on a project

(page 108)

Answer 118

Project communications occur internally and externally to the core project team - vertically (up and down the levels of their organization) and horizontally between peers.

Question 119

Leadership Skills

What are the four types of communication?

(page 108)

Answer 119

• Formal Written
• Formal verbal
• informal Written
• informal verbal

Question 120

Leadership Skills

What are the five Cs Of communication?

(page 110)

Answer 120

• Correct grammar and spelling
• Concise and well-written
• Clear and purposeful
• Coherent and logical
• Controlled flow of words and ideas

Question 121

Leadership Skills

Describe an interactive model of communication

(page 110)

Answer 121

Interactive communication includes three main components: the sender, the receiver, and the confirmation that the message is correctly understood.

Factors such as the receiver’s perception of the message, everyday destructions, or even lack of interest (also known as noise) can affect the way the receiver decodes a message

Question 122

Leadership Skills

What is active listening?

(page 111)

Answer 122

The receiver confirms they are listening, accurately reflect back on the speaker’s remarks, expresses agreement or disagreement, and asks for clarification as necessary.

Question 123

Leadership Skills

What is the difference between the gulf of execution and the gulf of evaluation?

(page 111 & 112)

Answer 123

The gulf of execution is related to how closely a feature or product can actually be implemented compared to what the user wants

The gulf of evaluation is a communication gap between the user and the developer.

Question 124

Leadership Skills

What are possible communication blockers on a project?

(page 112)

Answer 124

• Noisy surroundings
• Distance between those trying to communicate
• Improper encoding of messages
• Language challenges
• Culture

Question 125

Leadership Skills

What are key considerations regarding communications technology?

(page 112)

Answer 125

Determining the optimal technology with which to communicate information.

Complexity of the information that needs to be communicated.

Question 126

Leadership Skills

Define interactive, push, and pull communication methods

(page 113)

Answer 126

Interactive: The sender provides the information and recipients receive and respond to it

Push: The sender provides the information but does not expect feedback on the information

Pull: The sender places the information in a central location, and recipients are responsible for receiving it.

Question 127

Leadership Skills

What is the formula for communication channels?

(page 114)

Answer 127

n(n-1)/2, n is the number of stakeholders

Question 128

Leadership Skills

Define extrinsic and intrinsic motivation.

(page 114)

Answer 128

Extrinsic: external factors such as salary; they are limited and short-lived motivations

intrinsic: internal factors; they motivate people long-term

Question 129

Leadership Skills

Describe the three categories of internal motivation

(page 114)

Answer 129

1. Adonomy: The desire people have to direct their own lives
2. mastery: The desire to improve, excel, learn, and do excellent work
3. purpose: The intrinsic need for a sense of purpose

Question 130

Leadership Skills

Name and explain the four motivation theories

(page 116)

Answer 130

1. Theories of x y and z
   X: Managers believe workers are incapable
   Y: Employees can direct their own efforts
   Z: Linked to self-realization, values, and a higher calling
2. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs: People are motivated by using their skills and contributing to the project
3. McClelland’s theory of needs: People are motivated by one of three needs (Achievement, Affiliation, Power)
4. Herzberg’s Two-factor theory of motivation: Hygiene factors are not sufficient to motivate people; motivating agents will keep people energized and engaged

Question 131

Leadership Skills

Define each stage of the Shu-Ha-Ri model

(page 116)

Answer 131

Shu: Rules are learned and obeyed
Ha: Rules have been mastered through practice
Ri: Rules become second-nature

Question 132

Leadership Skills

What is the Dreyfus model of Adult Skill Acquisition?

(page 117)

Answer 132

Proposes that adults learn new skills through five different stages: novice, advanced beginner, competent, proficient, and expert

Question 133

Leadership Skills

What is the difference between I-shaped and T-shaped team members?

(page 117)

Answer 133

I-shaped team members specialize in one area, while T-shaped team members have a broad range of skills.

Question 134

Leadership Skills

What’s two factors does the situational leadership II model focuses on?

(page 118)

Answer 134

Competence
Commitment

Question 135

Leadership Skills

What is the OSCAR model?

(page 118)

Answer 135

A coaching tool that helps leaders define the goals for individualty numbers

It stands for outcome, situation, choices/consequences, actions, and reviews

Question 136

Leadership Skills

According to the Tuckman ladder, what are the stages of team formation and development?

(page 119)

Answer 136

1. Forming
2. Storming
3. Norming
4. Performing
5. Adjourning

Question 137

Leadership Skills

What are the stages in the Drexter/Sibbet Team Performance model?

(page 120)

Answer 137

Step 1: Orientation, or “Why” (purpose of the project)
Step 2: Trust building, or “Who” (information is shared and learned)
Step 3: Goal clarification, or “What” (team elaborates on project information)
Step 4: Commitment, or “How” (team plans and achieves the project’s goals)
Step 5: Implementation (high-level plans are decomposed and deliverables are produced)
Step 6: High performance (team has reached a level of high performance)
Step 7: Renewal (team renews goal clarification, commitment, or other ways of working together)

Question 138

Leadership Skills

What is a common method for increasing trust on agile projects?

(page 121)

Answer 138

Engage the team in the development of estimates

Question 139

Leadership Skills

What is the value of negotiation?

(page 121)

Answer 139

Developing the team while working to build consensus on project decisions.

Including the team members in the decision-making process shows the project manager values and considers their input.

Question 140

Leadership Skills

What is involved in influencing?

(page 121)

Answer 140

Actively listening to different viewpoints express waiting members. Acknowledging those different perspectives and using communication and persuasion skills helps the project manager develop mutual trust and eventually agreement within the team.

Question 141

Leadership Skills

How can the training of the members positively impact the project?

(page 121)

Answer 141

Training can help decrease the overall project cost and schedule by increasing efficiency

Question 142

Leadership Skills

What is the goal of coaching?

(page 121)

Answer 142

Is help to members stay on track, overcome issues, continually improve their skills, and achieve their goals.

Question 143

Leadership Skills

Why is it valuable to provide recognition and rewards to team or individual team members?

(page 121)

Answer 143

In addition to recognizing past accomplishments, rewards provide incentive for ongoing achievements and efforts

Question 144

Leadership Skills

List the most common sources of conflict on projects, in order of most to least common

(page 123)

Answer 144

1. Schedule
2. project priorities
3. resources
4. technical opinions
5. administrative procedures
6. cost
7. personality

Question 145

Leadership Skills

Name five conflict resolution techniques and their definition

(page 123)

Answer 145

1. Collaborating ( Problem solving) a win-win situation
2. compromising ( reconciling) a lose-lose situation
3. withdrawal ( Avoidance)
4. smoothing ( Accommodating)
5. forcing ( directing) a win-lose situation

Question 146

What are stakeholder expectations?

Answer 146

Beliefs about (or mental pictures of) the future
Some expectations will become requirements

Question 147

Stakeholders

what is the theory behind the cost of change?

Answer 147

The closer the customer is engaged on the product design and development, the fewer costly changes that will come later. The cost of change rises over time while the ability to influence and sign falls.

Question 148

Stakeholders

Definition of a stakeholder. Who are considered stakeholders on a project?

Answer 148

People or organizations who are positively or negatively affected by or can positively or negatively affect the project or the product of the project

Question 149

Stakeholders

Once the steakholders are identified, how does the project manager ensure They are engaged throughout the project?

Answer 149

1. Determine their requirements (documentation of what needs to be done)
2. Determine their expectations (note documented the customer’s vision of the future)
3. Determine their interest (concern about the project)
4. Determine their level of influence (impact the project negatively or positively to some) and authority (ability to enforce decisions)
5. Pland to engage them
6. Plan how you will communicate with them
7. Manage their expectations, influence, and engagement
8. Monitor conmmunications and stakeholder engagemenr

Question 150

Stakeholders

According to the Process Groups model, what processes are involved in stakeholder engagement?

Answer 150

1. identify and analyze stakeholders
2. plan stakeholder engagement
3. manage stakehold engagement
4. monitor stakehold engagement

Question 151

Stakeholders

What are stakeholder expectations?

Answer 151

Beliefs about (or mental pictures of) the future. Some expectations will become requirements

Question 152

Stakeholders

Why is it important to identify all stakeholders as early as possible on a project?

Answer 152

Stakeholders discovered late in the project will likely request changes, which can cause costly changes and delays or loss of benefits and value

Question 153

Stakeholders

Name some tools and techniques of the identify Stakeholders process.

Answer 153

1. Questionnaires and surveys
2. Brainstorming and brain writing
3. Stakeholder analysis
4. Document analysis
5. Stakeholder mapping
6. Personas

Question 154

Stakeholders

Give some examples of stakes a stakeholder may have

Answer 154

1. Ownership: stakeholders may have to sell property for a proposed freeway expansion
2. Knowledge: stakeholder may be the expert who designed a legacy inventory system that is being replaced
3. Rights: stakeholder may be concerned that a new housing development will endanger the community by destroying the watershed or government official may be responsible for ensuring that the safety practices on a construction site
4. Interest: the community may be concerned that project will negatively impact their community
5. contribution: resource manager may be concerned to remember won’t be able to perform their normal operational work because of their additional Project work

Question 155

Stakeholders

What is a persona?

Answer 155

A concise description of a real or imagined stakeholder model.

Created for agile projects to batter image how each type of stakeholder will use the end product.

May be based on a real persona or a combination of characteristics from several types of product users.

Question 156

Stakeholders

What information about stakeholders might be included in a stakeholders register?

Answer 156

1. Stakeholder’s name and title
2. Supervisor
3. Project role
4. Contact information
5. Major requirements and expectations
6. Assessment information
7. Impact and influence
8. Attitude about the project
9. Stakeholder classification
10. Other relevant information

Question 157

Stakeholders

Why is it important to build good relationships with stakeholders?

Answer 157

Close relationships with stakeholders can provide an early warning system for problems on the project.

Question 158

Stakeholders

What are some of the methods that can be used for stakeholder engagement planning?

Answer 158

1. Stakeholder engagement assessment chart
2. Assumptions and constraints
3. Root cause analysis
4. Project elevator statement

Question 159

Stakeholders

What is the data representation tool used to compare stakeholders’ current and desired level of engagement?

Answer 159

Stakeholder engagement assessment chart

Question 160

Stakeholders

What is an elevator statement?

Answer 160

A short description of the project goals and benefits that allow the project manager to explain the project in the span of an elevator ride.

Question 161

Stakeholders

What is included in a stakeholder engagement plan?

Answer 161

Existing and desired engagement levels for all stakeholders, including plans to achieve desired levels.

Details about ways in which stakeholders will be involved in the project.

Guidelines and metrics for monitoring and evaluating how well the plan is meeting the needs of stakeholders and the project.

Question 162

Stakeholders

How does the stakeholder engagement plan differ from the communications management plan when it comes to documenting communication requirements?

Answer 162

The stakeholder engagement plan explains the importance of which stakeholders need to receive which information.
The communications management plan contains details about communications technology and methods.

Question 163

Stakeholders

Name some methods for managing stakeholder engagement in an adaptive environment.

Answer 163

1. Backlog refinement
2. Timeboxes
3. Daily standup
4. Release planning
5. Iteration planning
6. Iteration review
7. Retrospective
8. Project review (e.g. review/refinement of velocity, flexible scope for change control)

Question 164

Stakeholders

Name some agile information radiators used to keep stakeholders informed.

Answer 164

1. Kanban boards (story boards)
2. Release maps
3. Bug walls/bug boards
4. Continuous integration views
5. Burndown/burnup charts

Question 165

Stakeholders

Describe the role of a project owner on an agile project.

Answer 165

Participates in planning meetings, iteration reviews, and retrospectives.

Collaborates with the development team to prepare prioritized backlogs sufficient to develop small increments of product with each iteration.

Answers questions for the development team and prepares the backlog for the next iteration.

Question 166

Stakeholders

What is the advantage of agile modeling when it comes to product development?

Answer 166

The customer gets a better idea of what their needs are, and the team understands better how to build it.

Question 167

Stakeholders

Name some examples of agile modeling

Answer 167

1. Personas
2. Use case modeling.
3. Process models
4. Low-fidelity prototypes
5. Wireframes
6. High-fidelity prototypes

Question 168

Procurement

According to the Process Groups model, what processes are involved in procurement management?

(p 322)

Answer 168

1. Plan Procurement Management
2. Conduct Procurements
3. Control Procurements

Question 169

Procurement

What is the difference between centralized and decentralized contracting?

(p 325)

Answer 169

Centralized: there is one procurement department, and the procurement manager handles procurements for many projects
Decentralized: There is no procurement department or procurement manager assigned, and the project manager may be responsible for the plan, as well as conducting all work on all procurements.

Question 170

Procurement

Describe the project manager’s role in procurements

(p 326)

Answer 170

1. Know the procurement process.
2. Make sure the contract includes the scope of work and requirements.
3. Be involved during contract negotiations.
4. Define quality requirements.
5. Investigate an issues and take corrective action
6. Understand contract terms and conditions.
7. Ensure all work in the contract is done.
8. Work with the procurement department to manage contract changes.

Question 171

Procurement

What are the three broad categories of contracts?

(p. 327)

Answer 171

1. Cost-reimbursement (CR)
2. Fixed-price (FP)
3. Time and material (T&M)

Question 172

Procurement

What is a purchase order?

(σελ 328)

Answer 172

A unilateral contract typically used for buying commodities

Purchase orders become contracts when the buyer accepts the terms

Question 173

Procurement

What is an indefinite delivery, indefinite quantity (IDIQ) contract?

(σελ 329)

Answer 173

Provides for an indefinite number of goods and services within a fixed time and within a certain cost range.

Question 174

Procurement

What is an agreement versus a contract?

(p 321)

Answer 174

Agreement: A document or communication that outlines internal or external relationships and their intentions

Contract: A type of written or verbal agreement typically created with an external entity, where there is some exchange of goods or services for some type of compensation (usually monetary); a contract forms the legal relationship between the entities.

Question 175

Procurement

What is the difference between a buyer and a seller?

(p. 322)

Answer 175

The buyer is the company or person who purchases the goods or services

The seller is the company or person who provides the goods or services (may be called a contractor, subcontractor, supplier, designer, or seller)

Question 176

Procurement

Who has the cost risk in a fixed-price contract?

(p. 329)

Answer 176

The risk is borne by the seller

Question 177

Procurement

Who has the cost risk in a cost-reimbursable contract?

(p. 329)

Answer 177

The risk is borne by the buyer

Question 178

Procurement

Name some types of contracts that can be used on an agile project

(p 331)

Answer 178

Graduated fixed-price
Fixed-price work packages
Not-to-exceed time and material
Early termination

Question 179

Procurement

What is a standard contract?

(p. 332)

Answer 179

Contract drafted (or reviewed) by lawyers

Standard contracts generally do not require additional review if used for the purpose for which they were intended.

Question 180

Procurement

What are some examples of special provisions?

(p. 332)

Answer 180

May include additions, changes, or deletions to a standard contract.

Question 181

Procurement

What is a privity?

(p. 332)

Answer 181

A contractual relationship.

Question 182

Procurement

When is a fixed-price contract used?

(p. 327)

Answer 182

When acquiring goods, products, or services with well-defined requirements or specifications.

Question 183

Procurement

Name the advantages and disadvantages of a fixed-price contract.

(p. 330)

Answer 183

Advantages: Less work for the buyer to manage; seller has a strong incentive to control costs; companies have experience with this type of contract; the buyer knows the total price before the work begins.

Disadvantages: Seller may try to make up profits by charging more; seller may try to not complete some of the procurement statement of work; requires more work for the buyer to write the procurement statement of work; can be more expensive than other types if the procurement statement of work is incomplete.

Question 184

Procurement

What is a time and material contract?

(p. 328)

Answer 184

he buyer pays on a per-hour or per-item basis

Question 185

Procurement

Name the advantages and disadvantages of a time and material contract

(p. 330)

Answer 185

Advantages: Can be created quickly; contract duration is brief

Disadvantages: Every hour or unit billed is profit for the seller; the seller has no incentive to control costs; appropriate only for small levels of effort on projects; requires a great deal of day-to-day oversight.

Question 186

Procurement

Define cost-reimbursable contract

(p. 328)

Answer 186

A contract where all the seller’s costs are reimbursed by the buyer

Question 187

Procurement

Name the advantages and disadvantages of a cost-reimbursable contract

(p. 330)

Answer 187

Advantages: Allows for a simpler procurement statement of work; usually requires less work to define scope; generally less costly

Disadvantages: Requires auditing seller’s invoiced; requires more work from the buyer; seller has only a moderate incentive to control costs; the total price is unknown.

Question 188

Procurement

What is a fixed-price work package?

(p. 331)

Answer 188

An agile contract that can be paid in increments when work packages are delivered, rather than paid as one lump sum at the end of the contract.

Question 189

Procurement

What does a sharing ration describe?

(p. 332)

Answer 189

How the cost savings or cost overrun will be shared as apportioned by percentage (e.g., 80/20, 80 percent buyer/20 percent seller)

Question 190

Procurement

What is a nondisclosure agreement?

(p. 332)

Answer 190

An agreement between the buyer and prospective sellers identifying the information or documents they will control and hold confidential, and who in the organization will have access to the confidential information.

Question 191

Procurement

What is a force majeure?

(p. 332)

Answer 191

A situation that can be considered an “act of nature” and is an allowable excuse for either party not meeting contact requirements.

Question 192

Procurement

What is the purpose of an incentive in a contract?

(p. 333)

Answer 192

Incentives are used to bring the seller’s objectives in line with the buyer’s and to motivate the seller towards efficiency. The buyer will provide an additional fee if the seller meets some cost, performance, or schedule objectives

Question 193

Procurement

What happens during the Plan Procurement Management process?

(p. 335)

Answer 193

1. Perform make-or-buy analysis
2. Create a procurement management plan
3. Create a procurement strategy for each procurement
4. Create a procurement statement of work for each procurement
5. Select the appropriate contract type for each procurement
6. Create the bid documents
7. Determine the source selection criteria

Question 194

Procurement

Name the methods for planning procurement management

(p. 336)

Answer 194

1. Make-or-Buy analysis
2. Logistics and supply chain management: lead time for for materials and equipment to be purchased.
3. Economic Measures.
4. Source Selection Analysis

Question 195

Procurement

What is make-or-buy analysis?

(p. 336)

Answer 195

Deciding whether the performing organization should do the project work itself or outsource some or all of the work

Question 196

Procurement

What artifacts result from the Plan Procurement Management Process?

(p. 337)

Answer 196

1. Procurement Management Plan
2. Procurement strategy
3. Procurement Statement of Work
4. Source selection criteria
5. Make-or-buy decision
6. Selected types of bid documents
7. Independent cost estimates
8. Change requests

Question 197

Procurement

What is source selection analysis?

(p. 338)

Answer 197

Determines the criteria that will be used to select sellers

Question 198

Procurement

What is a procurement management plan?

Answer 198

A plan that documents how procurements will be planned, executed, and controlled.

Question 199

Procurement

What are the types of bid documents?

(p 338)

Answer 199

1. Request for Information (RFI)
2. Request for Proposal (RFP)
3. Request for Quotation (RFQ)
4. Invitation for a bid (IFB)

Question 200

Procurement

What are source selection criteria?

(p. 338)

Answer 200

The factors the buyer will use to evaluate responses from the sellers

Question 201

Procurement

When are source selection criteria created, and when are the used?

Answer 201

Created during the Plan Procurement Management Process

Used during the Conduct Procurements process to pick a seller

Question 202

Procurement

What does noncompetitive procurement mean?

(p. 339)

Answer 202

The work is awarded to a single source or a sole source without competition

Question 202

Procurement

what should a project manager watch out for during a bidder conference?

(p 340)

Answer 202

1. Collusion
2. Sellers not asking questions in front of the competition
3. Making sure all the questions and answers are documented and distributed to all potential sellers

Question 203

Procurement

What is the purpose of proposal evaluation?

(p. 340)

Answer 203

Provides a basis to quantitatively evaluate proposals and minimize the influence of personal prejudices.

Question 204

Procurement

What does a weighting system do?

(p. 341)

Answer 204

Enables the buyer’s evaluation committee to analyze seller responses using the weighted source selection criteria

Question 205

Procurement

What is an independent cost estimate?

(p 341)

Answer 205

The buyer compares the seller’s proposed cost with an estimate created in-house or with outside assistance during procurement planning efforts

This allows the buyer to discover significant differences between what the buyer and seller intend in the procurement statement of work

Question 206

Procurement

What are the objectives of negotiation?

(p 342)

Answer 206

Obtain a fair and reasonable price
Develop a good relationship between the buyer and the seller.

Question 207

Procurement

What is required for a legal contract?

(p. 342)

Answer 207

1. Offer
2. Acceptance
3. Consideration (μεταφορά κάτι αξίας, αλλά όχι απαραίτητα χρήματα)
4. Legal Capacity (ξεχωριστές νομικές οντότητες που είναι όλες νομικά ικανές).
5. Legal purpose (δεν υπάρχει νόμιμη, επικυρώσιμη σύμβαση για την πώληση παράνομων αγαθών ή υπηρεσιών)

Question 208

Procurement

What is a contract change control system?

(p 342)

Answer 208

A system that is described in the contract and includes change procedures, forms, dispute resolution processes, and tracking systems

Question 209

Procurement

Name methods that can be used during the Control Procurements process

(p 345)

Answer 209

1. Performance reviews (analyzing available data to verify the seller performs as they should)
2. Inspections & audits
3. Earned value analysis (variances from the performance measurement baseline)
4. Trend analysis (performance is getting better or worse)

Question 210

Procurement

What is the purpose of a performance review during Control Procurements?

(p 345)

Answer 210

To verify that the seller is performing as they should by analyzing all available data

Question 211

Procurement

What is involved in an inspection regarding procurements?

(p 345)

Answer 211

Inspections may involve walkthroughs of the work site or deliverables reviews to verify compliance with the procurement statement of work

Variances or deviations may trigger change requests

Question 212

Procurement

What is involved in an audit regarding procurements?

(p 345)

Answer 212

An audit is to confirm that the seller’s activities comply with approved procurement policies and processes

Variances are identified, formal adjustments are made accordingly, and lessons learned are captured.

Question 213

Procurement

What can trend analysis help determine?

(p 345)

Answer 213

Whether performance is getting better or worse

If preventive actions can prevent significant variances in the future

It can help to develop forecast estimates and estimate at completion

Question 214

Procurement

Why might there be conflict between the procurement manager and the project manager?

(p 345)

Answer 214

The procurement manager is the only one with the power to change the contract

Question 215

Procurement

What would be reasons for termination of a contract?

(p 347)

Answer 215

Cause: The buyer may terminate a contract for cause if the seller breaches the contract (does not perform according to the contract)

Convenience: The buyer can also terminate the contract before the work is complete because they no longer want the work done (termination for convenience)

Question 216

Procurement

What is a constructive change?

(p 346)

Answer 216

A change that occurs when the buyer, through actions or inactions, limits the seller’s ability to perform the work according to the contract

Question 217

Procurement

What does a records management system do?

(p 347)

Answer 217

Keeps procurement documentation complete, organized, and accessible

Question 218

Procurement

What is involved in closing a procurement?

(p 347)

Answer 218

Tying up all the loose ends
Verifying all work and deliverables are accepted
Finalizing open claims
Financial closure (ensuring payment)

Question 219

Procurement

What is the difference between procurement closure and project closure?

(p 347)

Answer 219

Project closure: closing out a project or phase

Procurement closure: completing only that particular part of scope that has been procured through a third party

Question 220

Procurement

When are procurements considered closed?

(p 347)

Answer 220

When a contract is completed

When a contract is terminated before the work is completed

Question 221

Procurement

What needs to be done for procurement closure?

Answer 221

Product validation
Procurement negotiation
Financial closure
Procurement process audit
Updated to records
Final contract performance reporting
Creation of procurement file

Question 222

Project Management Foundations

what is operational work?

(p 53)

Answer 222

Ongoing work to support the business and systems of the organization

Question 223

Project Management Foundations

What is the definition of a project?

(p. 54)

Answer 223

Temporary endeavor - with a beginning and an end

Creates a unique product, service, or result

Question 224

Project Management Foundations

Why is a project undertaken?

(p. 54)

Answer 224

To drive a change in a product or process from a current state to a future state, to achieve a specific objective

To create business value for the organization and its stakeholders

Question 225

Project Management Foundations

What is the difference between a program and a portfolio?

(p 54)

Answer 225

A program is a group of related, sub-projects and other program-related activities, organized and managed into a coordinated set of efforts.

A portfolio is a group o programs, projects, and related operational work, all prioritized and implemented to achieve a specific business objective.

Question 226

Project Management Foundations

What is organizational project management (OPM)?

(p 55)

Answer 226

A framework that guides portfolio. program, and project management to achieve the organization’s strategic goals

Question 227

Project Management Foundations

What is governance?

(p. 55)

Answer 227

Governance is designed to support the specific culture and attributes of the organization

Organizational governance refers to the overall structure of an organization (policies and procedures for how the work will be done)

Project governance must be determined so that the project is in agreement with organizational governance.

Question 228

Project Management Foundations

Define the three primary formats of organizational structure

(p 56)

Answer 228

1. Functional: the organization is grouped by areas of specialization (e.g. accounting and marketing)
2. Project-oriented: the company is organized by project; the team has no department to go to at project end; the project manager has control of the project
3. Matrix: attempts to maximize the strengths of both the functional and project-oriented structures; team members report to two managers and do project work in addition to normal departmental work

Question 229

Project Management Foundations

What is the difference between a strong matrix and a weak matrix?

(p. 56)

Answer 229

in a strong matrix, the balance of power rests with the project manager while in a weak matrix, power rests with the functional manager and the project manager serves as a coordinator (has some authority and can make some decisions but reports to a higher-level manager) or expediter (organizes communications an assists administratively but canno5t make or enforce decisions)

Question 230

Project Management Foundations

What are the three possible forms of a PMO?

(p 58)

Answer 230

Supporting: provides the policies, methodologies, templates, and lessons learned for projects within the organization. It typically exercises a low level of control over projects.
Controlling: provides support and guidance on how to manage projects, trains others in project management software and other tools, and ensures compliance with organizational policies. It typically has a moderate level of control over projects
Directive: provides project mangers for different projects and is responsible for the results of those projects. All projects, or projects of a certain size, type, or priority are managed by this office. A directive PMO has s high level of control over projects

Question 231

Project Management Foundations

What is the role of the value delivery office (VDO)?

(p 58)

Answer 231

In an adaptive environment, it helps enable project management.

Question 232

Project Management Foundations

What is the difference between present value and net present value?

(p, 60)

Answer 232

Present value is the value today of future cash flows

Net present value is the present value of the total benefits (income or revenue) minus the costs over many time periods

Question 233

Project Management Foundations

Name some economic measures for project selection

(p. 56-57)

Answer 233

Return on investment
Present Value
Net Present Value
Internal rate of return
Payback period
Cost-Benefit analysis

Question 234

Project Management Foundations

During project selection, what does economic value added (EVA) determine?

(p. 63)

Answer 234

Whether the project returns more value than it costs

Question 235

Project Management Foundations

What is opportunity cost?

(p. 63)

Answer 235

The opportunity given up by selecting one project over another

Question 236

Project Management Foundations

What are sunk costs

(p. 63)

Answer 236

Expected costs - what has already been spent

Sunk costs should not be considered when deciding whether to continue with a troubled project.

Question 237

Project Management Foundations

What is the idea behind the law of diminishing returns?

(p. 63)

Answer 237

Adding more input (for example, programmers) will not produce a proportional increase in productivity (such as modules of code per hour)

Question 238

Project Management Foundations

What is working capital?

(p. 63)

Answer 238

An organization’s current assets minus its current liabilities

Question 239

Project Management Foundations

What are the types of depreciation?

(p. 63)

Answer 239

Straight-line: the same amount of depreciation is taken each year

Accelerated: depreciates faster than straight-line depreciation

Question 240

Project Management Foundations

what are organizational process assets (OPAs)?

(p. 64)

Answer 240

Company processes, procedures, and policies

Organizational knowledge repositories (historical information, lessons learned)

Question 241

Project Management Foundations

Give some examples of historical information

(p. 64)

Answer 241

Activities
WBSs
Backlogs
Benchmarks
Reports
Risks and risk response plans
Estimates
Retrospective findings
Resources used
Project management plans
Project documents
Prototypes
Baselines
Correspondence

Question 242

Project Management Foundations

What are enterprise environmental factors (EEFs)?

(p. 65)

Answer 242

An organization’s culture, technology, and external governmental standards, rules, and regulations.

Question 243

Project Management Foundations

What is an assumptions log?

(p. 65)

Answer 243

A repository of both assumptions and specifics related to constraints

Question 244

Project Management Foundations

List project constraints that may occur throughout the life of a project

(p. 65)

Answer 244

1. Schedule
2. Cost
3. Risk
4. Scope
5. Quality
6. Resources
7. Customer Satisfaction

Question 245

Project Management Foundations

What is a project management information system (PMIS)?

(p. 67)

Answer 245

The PMIS includes automated tools, such as scheduling software, a configuration management system, shared workspaces for files storage or distribution, work authorization software, time-tracking software, and procurement management software, as well as repositories for historical information.

It is used in many planning, executing, and monitoring and controlling processes

Question 246

Project Management Foundations

Describe the functions of work performance data, work performance information, and work performance reports.

(p. 68)

Answer 246

Work performance data: measurements and details about activities gathered during the Direct and Manage Project Work process

Work performance information: work performance data that is analyzed to make sure it conforms to the project management plan and to assess what it means for the project as a whole

Work performance reports: Work performance information that is organized and distributed to the various stakeholders who need top receive and possible act on the information.

Question 247

Project Management Foundations

Name some frequently used project management tools and techniques

(p. 66-67)

Answer 247

Data Gathering
Data analysis
Data representation
Decision-making
Communication
Interpersonal and team skills
Project Management information System (PMIS)
Expert Judgment
Meetings

Question 248

Project Management Foundations

When is a meeting most useful?

(p. 67)

Answer 248

When getting input or feedback from groups of people

Question 249

Project Management Foundations

Name and describe the role of the agile team leader

(p. 69)

Answer 249

A servant leader whose responsibility is to ensure that the adaptive methods and processes to be used on the project are well understood and being followed, and to help the team by removing impediments to building and delivering the product of the project

The agile coach, team leader, or scrum master

Question 250

Project Management Foundations

Describe the role of the project manager in a predictive environment

(p 68)

Answer 250

Ensures the project meets objectives related to communications, stakeholders, risk, quality, and procurement management

Directs and contributes to planning

Manages the team’s work and physical resources while the team works to build the product of the project

Question 251

Project Management Foundations

What is the role of the sponsor/initiator?

(p 70)

Answer 251

In a predictive environment, a sponsor is typically someone in management who provides the financial resources for the project and supports the project and protects if from unnecessary changes.

In an agile environment, the product owner’s roles is in some ways analogous to that of a sponsor, being responsible for ensuring the project delivers value and benefits.

Question 252

Project Management Foundations

Who are the stakeholders?

(p 70)

Answer 252

Anyone who will be impacted by the project or may positively or negatively impact the project

Question 253

Integration

What is the purpose of integration management?

(p 77)

Answer 253

To pull all the pieces of project together into a cohesive hole, the processes, people, and goals for which the project was undertaken

Question 254

Integration

What is the Develop Project Charter process?

What are its outputs?

(p 80)

Answer 254

Creating the project charter, which involves planning the project at a high level to assess whether it is feasible within the given constraints.

Outputs:
Project charter
assumptions log

Question 255

Integration

What is included in a project charter?

(p. 82)

Answer 255

1. Project title and description
2. Project manager assigned an authority level
3. Business case
4. Preassigned resources
5. Key stakeholder list
6. High-level product description and key deliverables
7. High-level assumptions
8. High-level constraints
9. Measurable project objectives
10. Project approval requirements
11. Overall, project risks
12. Project exit criteria

Question 256

Integration

In an agile environment, where should scope, schedule, and risk plans be incorporated?

(p 85)

Answer 256

In the product backlog and release roadmaps.

Question 257

Integration

What is a project life cycle?

(p 86)

Answer 257

Describes the phases of work on a project to produce the deliverables

Question 258

Integration

What happens during a management review?

(p 86)

Answer 258

Management and stakeholders will compare project progress to what was planned and identified needed changes to any of the management plans.

Question 259

Integration

What is tailoring, and when is it done?

(p. 86)

Answer 259

Determining the extent to which process need to be used based on the needs of the project.

It’s part of developing the project management plan during project planning

Question 260

Integration

Name the individual management plans.

(p. 86)

Answer 260

1. Scope
2. schedule
3. cost
4. quality
5. resources
6. communication
7. risk
8. procurement
9. stakeholders

Question 261

Integration

What is the purpose of baselines?

What three elements make up the performance measurement baseline?

(p 86)

Answer 261

Used to analyze and report project performance.

The three elements that make up the performance measurement baseline are:
1. Schedule baseline
2. Scope baseline
3. cost baseline

Question 262

Integration

What is included in a project management plan?

(p. 86)

Answer 262

1. Project life cycle
2. tailoring
3. development approach
4. management reviews
5. Individual management plans
6. Performance measurements baseline
7. requirements management plan
8. change management plan
9. configuration management plan

Question 263

Integration

What is the purpose of the requirements management plan?

(p 87)

Answer 263

It defines how requirements will be gathered, analyzed, Prioritized, evaluated and documented, as well as how the requirements will be managed and controlled throughout the project

Question 264

Integration

What is a change management plan?

(p 87)

Answer 264

The change management plan describes how changes will be managed and controlled

Question 265

Integration

What is the develop project management plan process?

What is its output?

(p 87)

Answer 265

The process of creating a project management plan that is bought into, approved, realistic, and formal.

Output: project management plan

Question 266

Integration

How do the project manager and product owner ensure that the project plan is viable?

(p 87)

Answer 266

Via the prioritization of the backlog and through a timeshare product roadmap

Question 267

Integration

What are project documents? Name some examples Of project documents.

(p 89)

Answer 267

Any project-related documents that aren’t part of the project management plan, including
1. Project charter
2. assumptions log
3. issue log
4. estimates
5. Lessons learned register
6. team charter
7. schedule and resource calendars.
8. Reports (quality, risk etc.)
9. resource requirements
10. requirements documentation
11. change log
12. agreements.
13. Contracts
14. statements of work
15. Risk register
16. forecasts
17. quality metrics

Question 268

Integration

What is a kickoff meeting?
When does it occur?

(p. 89)

Answer 268

A meeting of the key parties involved in the project to announce the start of the project, to ensure everyone is familiar with its details, including objectives and roles and responsibilities, and to ensure a commitment to the project from everyone. It takes place before the develop project management plan process is completed

Question 269

Integration

What are the key outputs of the Direct and Manage Project Work process?

(p 90)

Answer 269

1. Issue log
2. Deliverables
3. Work performance data
4. New change requests
5. Updates to the project management plan and project documents.

Question 270

Integration

What is the work authorization system?

(p 90)

Answer 270

It keeps the team and functional managers informed of upcoming work assignments and milestones

Question 271

Integration

What is the record for successful knowledge management?

(p 91)

Answer 271

An organizational culture of trust in which the project manager and stakeholders exchange knowledge without fear of judgment

Question 272

Integration

What are the types of knowledge?

(p 91)

Answer 272

There are 2 types of knowledge:

1. Explicit knowledge is fact-bawd and can be easily communicated through words and symbols
2. Test knowledge may provide context or explanation to explicit knowledge. It is not easily documented. It includes emotions, experience, and ability, which are difficult to communicate in words and symbols but can be learned.

Question 273

Integration

What is osmotic communication?

(p 92)

Answer 273

Phenomena of communication and knowledge sharing being facilitated and enhanced simply by team members being in proximity to one another.

Question 274

Integration

Describe the function of lessons learned as an input and as an output to project work

(p 92)

Answer 274

As an input, lessons learned help improve the current project. As an output, they help make the organization better.

Question 275

Integration

What are the key outputs of the monitor and control project work process?

(p. 93)

Answer 275

1. Change requests
2. Work performance reports
3. Updates to the project artifact

Question 276

Integration

Describe the three main categories of change requests

(p 94)

Answer 276

Corrective Action: actions taken to bring expected future project performance in line with the project management plan

Preventive Action: actions taken to deal with anticipates or possible deviations from the performance measurement baseline and other metrics

Defect repair: rework required when a component of the project does not meet reequipments

Question 277

Integration

In an agile environment, when does the team implement changes?

(p 95)

Answer 277

Accommodating changes in an agile environment is assumed to be an ongoing part if the project management process

Question 278

Integration

What is the key focus of integrated change control?

(p 95)

Answer 278

To look at the impact of each change on all the project constraints, the value of which is to reduce the potential risk of not fulfilling project objectives

Question 279

Integration

What is a change control board?
Who might be on a change control board?

(p 96)

Answer 279

The group responsible for reviewing and analyzing the change requests in accordance with the change management plan for the project

May include the project manager, customer, experts, sponsor, functional managers, and others

For the exam, assume that most plan-based projects have changed control boards.

Question 280

Integration

What steps are involved in the process for making changes to a project?

(p 96)

Answer 280

Evaluate the impact: evaluate (assess) the impact of the change on all aspects of the project

Identify options: this can include cutting other activities, compressing the schedule by crashing or fast tracking, or looking at other options.

Get the change request approved internally (through the CCB)

Get customer buy-in (if required)

Question 281

Integration

Who has decision-making authority for making major changes in an agile or hybrid environment?

(p 98)

Answer 281

The product owner, although everyday decisions and minor changes are managed within the team

Question 282

Integration

What does the project manager need to do during the close project or phase process?

(p 99)

Answer 282

Get formal acceptance of the project and its deliverables, issue a final report that shows the project has been successful, issue the final lessons learned, and index and archive all the project records

Question 283

Integration

What is the definition of a transition?

(p 100)

Answer 283

Handing off the product to the customer or operations

Question 284

Build and Support Team Performance

According to the Process Groups model, what processes are involved in resource management?

(p. 126)

Answer 284

1. Plan Resource Management
2. Estimate Activity Resources
3. Acquire Resources/Team
4. Develop Team
5. Manage Team
6. Control Resources

Question 285

Build and Support Team Performance

What is the difference between a RAM chart and a RACI chart?

(p 131)

Answer 285

The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) chart cross-references team members with the activities or work packages they are to accomplish.

The RACI chart defines role assignments more clearly by noting how team members are to be involved with four categories: Responsible (R), Accountable (A), Consulted (C), Informed (I)

Question 286

Build and Support Team Performance

What is the purpose of an organizational breakdown structure?

(p 131)

Answer 286

To assign project responsibilities to divisions or departments within the organization, such as IT or marketing.

Question 287

Build and Support Team Performance

What is the purpose of a resource breakdown structure (RBS)?

Answer 287

To break the work down by type of resource needed

Question 288

Build and Support Team Performance

What is organizational theory?

(p 132)

Answer 288

Organizational theory is a method to study organizations to identify how they solve problems and how they maximize efficiency and productivity and meet the expectations of stakeholders.

Question 289

Build and Support Team Performance

What artifacts result from the Plan Resource Management process?

(p 132-133)

Answer 289

1. Resource Management Plan
2. Team Charter
3. Updates to project documents

Question 290

Build and Support Team Performance

What are the components of a resource management plan?

(p 132)

Answer 290

1. Human Resources Management Plan
2. Recognition Plan

Question 291

Build and Support Team Performance

What is the purpose of a team charter?

(p 133)

Answer 291

A working agreement developed by the members of the project team, it describes the approach the team will take regarding communications, decision-making, and conflict resolutions, as well as ground rules for team meetings

Question 292

Build and Support Team Performance

What is the purpose of a resource histogram?

(p 134)

Answer 292

It provides a method for visualizing resource requirements and comparing required resources to their availability to better enable estimating.

Question 293

Build and Support Team Performance

What is the purpose of resource leveling?

(p. 134)

Answer 293

To minimize the peaks and valleys of resource usage during a project

Question 294

Build and Support Team Performance

Name some of the types of team configurations

(p 137)

Answer 294

1. Dedicated
2. Part-time
3. Partnerships
4. Virtual Teams
5. Pre-assigned
6. Agile

Question 295

Build and Support Team Performance

What is pre-assignment?

(p 138)

Answer 295

Resources that are assigned before the project begins

Question 296

Build and Support Team Performance

What is it called when there is a tendency to rate team members high or low on all criteria due to the impression of a high or low rating on one specific criterion?

(p. 138)

Answer 296

Halo Effect

Question 297

Build and Support Team Performance

What are the methods for acquiring resources?

(p. 138)

Answer 297

1. Multicriteria decision analysis
2. Interpersonal and team skills
3. Pre-assignment
4. Virtual teams

Question 298

Build and Support Team Performance

What artifacts result from the Acquire Resources process?

(p. 139)

Answer 298

1. Resource assignments
2. Project or work assignments
3. Resource calendars
4. Updates to the project management plan and project documents

Question 299

Build and Support Team Performance

What are some of the methods for developing a team?

(p. 140)

Answer 299

1. Colocation
2. Virtual Teams
3. Interpersonal and team skills
4. Recognition and rewards
5. Training
6. Individual and team assessments
7. Communications technology for virtual teams

Question 300

Build and Support Team Performance

What are the responsibilities of the project manager when it comes to team building?

(p. 140)

Answer 300

1. Guide, manage, and improve the interactions of team members.
2. Improve trust and cohesiveness among team members
3. Incorporate team-building activities into project activities
4. Ensure the project vision is clear and continue to communicate that vision when necessary
5. Ensure roles and responsibilities are clearly defined

Question 301

Build and Support Team Performance

What are some characteristics of team building?

(p. 140)

Answer 301

Team building requires a concerted effort and continued attention throughout the life of the project

Team building should start early in the life of the project

Question 302

Build and Support Team Performance

What traits can a project manager model to create a positive work environment?

(p. 140)

Answer 302

1. Transparency
2. Integrity
3. Respect
4. Positive interactions
5. Support
6. Courage
7. Celebrating successes

Question 303

Build and Support Team Performance

What is colocation?

(p. 141)

Answer 303

The entire team has offices together in one place or one room

Question 304

Build and Support Team Performance

What are the challenges of a virtual team?

(p 141)

Answer 304

Finding ways to create “virtual colocation” - to replicate the benefits of face-to-face collaboration, osmotic communication, tacit knowledge, and improved relationships that come from working near ach other.

Question 305

Build and Support Team Performance

Name some communications technology tools that can help a team keep in touch during a project.

(p. 141)

Answer 305

1. Video-conferencing and live chats
2. Interactive Whiteboards
3. Instant Messaging
4. Presence-based Applications
5. Virtual Kanban Boards

Question 306

Build and Support Team Performance

What is a team performance assessment?

What are project performance appraisals?

(p. 141-142)

Answer 306

Team performance assessment: An assessment by the project manager meant to evaluate and enhance the effectiveness of the project team

Project performance appraisals: Evaluations of the performance of individual team members

Question 307

Build and Support Team Performance

What are key performance indicators?

(p 142)

Answer 307

Measures used to review project performance

Question 308

Build and Support Team Performance

List some common key performance indicators used on agile projects

(p. 142)

Answer 308

1. Rate of progress
2. Remaining work
3. Likely completion date
4. Likely costs remaining

Question 309

Build and Support Team Performance

What artifacts result from the Develop Team process?

(p 143)

Answer 309

1. Team performance assessments
2. Change requests
3. Project management plan updates
4. Project documents updates
5. Organizational process assets updates

Question 310

Build and Support Team Performance

What are some of the key actions a project manager can take to help team members sustain high performance?

(p 144)

Answer 310

1. Trach and evaluate team performance.
2. Provide leadership.
3. Mentor team members.
4. Plan and facilitate career development.
5. Deal with team issues.
6. Look for conflicts team members cannot resolve on their own.
7. Facilitate conflict resolution.
8. Negotiate and influence.
9. Adjust plans based on performance data.
10. Manage risks to team success.
11. Observe what is happening.
12. Use an issue log to track resolution

Question 311

Build and Support Team Performance

What are the burndown and burnup charts?

(p 144)

Answer 311

Burndown and burnup charts are a way to track team performance

A burndown chart tracks the work yet to be down on a project, while a burnup chart tracks the work that has been completed.

Question 312

Build and Support Team Performance

What artifacts result from Manage Team Process?

(p 145)

Answer 312

1. Change requests
2. Project management plan updates
3. Project document updates
4. Enterprise environmental factors updates.

Question 313

Build and Support Team Performance

What is an issue log?

(p. 145)

Answer 313

A record that facilitates the assessment of the causes of issues, the impact of issues on scope, schedule, cost, risk, and other aspects of the project, and the recommendation of corrective actions that could be taken.

Question 314

Schedule

What is a lag? What is a lead?

(p. 189)

Answer 314

Lag: Waiting time inserted between activities

Lead: How soon an activity can start before its predecessor activity is completed

Question 315

Schedule

What are milestones?

(p. 190)

Answer 315

Identified points in the project schedule where particular objectives should be met

Question 316

Schedule

According to the Process Groups model, what processes are involved in schedule management?

(p 191)

Answer 316

1. Plan Schedule Management
2. Define Activities
3. Sequence Activities
4. Estimate Activity Durations
5. Develop Schedule
6. Control Schedule

Question 317

Schedule

What are the results of a properly planned and managed project?

(p 192)

Answer 317

1. All or most deliverables are completed and delivered in the planned timeframes, within budget and with the agreed quality attributes
2. The number of changes to the project are within expectations
3. Project outputs are largely accepted and stakeholders seem satisfied
4. The cadence of development, testing, and implementations is appropriate to the specific project and to the development approach and life cycle selected
5. Measurements indicate the project is performing as planned
6. Projects benefits can be realized in the timeframe they were planned for

Question 318

Schedule

What key artifact results from the Plan Schedule Management process?

Answer 318

Schedule management plan (formal or informal)

Question 319

Schedule

How is decomposition used in the Define Activities process? How is this different than decomposition done during the Create WBS process?

Answer 319

Work packages are being broken down into activities. In Create WBS, deliverables are being broken down into work packages (smaller deliverables)

Question 320

Schedule

What artifact results from the Sequence Activities process?

(p 194)

Answer 320

Project schedule network diagram

Question 321

Schedule

What do network diagrams show?

(p. 194)

Answer 321

The network diagram shows just dependencies between activities
If estimates and leads and lags are added to the diagram later in the schedule management process, it can also show the critical path
If plotted out against time (is made calendar-based), the network diagram is a time-scaled schedule network diagram

Question 322

Schedule

What are the four types of logical relationships between activities in the precedence diagramming method?

4 types of logical relationships between activities

(p 195)

Answer 322

Finish-to-start (FS): An activity must finish before the successor ca start
Start-to-start (SS): An activity must start before the successor can start
Finish-to-finish (FF): An activity must finish before the successor can finish
Start-to-finish (SF): An activity must start before thee successor can finish

Question 323

Schedule

What are mandatory dependencies?

Dependencies to concider when sequencing activities

Answer 323

The order in which activities must be done, due to the inherent nature of the work or as required by a contract . Also called hard logic.

Question 324

Schedule

What are discretionary dependencies?

Dependencies to concider when sequencing activities

(p. 195)

Answer 324

The order in which the organization had chosen to have work performed. Also called preferred, preferential, or soft logic.

Question 325

Schedule

Define external dependencies and internal dependencies

Dependencies to concider when sequencing activities

(p 195)

Answer 325

External: Dependencies based on the needs of a party outside the project

Internal: dependencies based on the needs of the project; may be under the control of the project team

Question 326

Schedule

What artifacts result from the Estimate Activity Durations process (predictive environment)?

Estimate how long ecah activity will take, 3 answers

(p 197)

Answer 326

1. Activity attributes
2. Basis of estimates
3. Updates to project documents

Question 327

Schedule

What artifacts result from activity estimating in an adaptive environment?

4 results

(p 197)

Answer 327

1. Prioritized backlog of user stories
2. Coarse-grained estimates of user stories
3. Release goal focused on customer value
4. Target release date or release number

Question 328

Schedule

What are some inputs to Estimate Activity Durations?

8 inputs

(p. 198)

Answer 328

1. Activity lists and activity attributes
2. Assumption log
3. Lessons learned register
4. Resource breakdown structure
5. Resource requirements
6. Project team assignments
7. Resource calendars
8. Risk register

Question 329

Schedule

What is padding? What is the problem with padding?

(p. 198)

Answer 329

A pad is extra time or cost added to an estimate because the estimator does not have enough information or feels insecure about their estimating

Padding undermines the ability to develop a realistic schedule and budget

Question 330

Schedule

What is analogous estimating (top-down)?

Methods for Predictive Estimating (can apply to adaptive as well)

(p. 199)

Answer 330

Analogous estimating uses expert judgment and historical information to estimate

Question 331

Schedule

What is required for bottom-up estimating?

Methods for Predictive Estimating

(p. 199)

Answer 331

An accurate WBS

Question 332

Schedule

What is parametric estimating?

Methods for Predictive Estimating (x per y)

(p. 199)

Answer 332

Parametric estimating involves creating a mathematical equation using data from historical records or other sources, such as industry requirements or standard metrics, to create estimates.

Question 333

Schedule

What tools might an estimator use to create parametric estimates?

Methods for Predictive Estimating

(p. 200)

Answer 333

Regression analysis (Scatter Diagram) or a learning curve (by example)

Question 334

Schedule

What is the difference between triangular distribution (simple average) and beta distribution (weighted average)?

Methods for Predictive Estimating

(p. 200/201)

Answer 334

Triangular distribution is a simple average giving equal weight to each of the three-point estimates when calculating the expected activity duration or cost; it uses the formula (P+O+M)/3

Beta distribution is a weighted average that gives stronger consideration to the most likely estimate; it uses the formula (P+4M+O)/6

Question 335

Schedule

What are some estimated techniques used in an agile environment?

Methods for Adaptive Estimating

(p. 203/204)

Answer 335

1. Affinity estimating (το παράδειμα με τα φρούτα)
2. T-shirt sizing
3. Planning Poker

Question 336

Schedule

What is the difference between T-shirt sizing and Planning Poker?

Methods for Adaptive Estimating

Answer 336

They are both adaptive estimating techniques, but T-shirt sizing assigns effort and number of user stories of each feature in terms of T-shirt sizes, while Planning Poker uses cards to assign a relative unit (such as story points) to each user story with the goal of building an agreed-upon estimate of the work.

Question 337

Schedule

What are the two types of reserves being evalutated in reserve analyisi?

Methods of Data Analysis

(p 205)

Answer 337

1. Contingency reserves (PM)
2. Management reserves (Sponsor)

Question 338

Schedule

What is alternatives analysis?

Activity estimates not acceptable within constraints of the project

(p. 205)

Answer 338

Alternative analysis involves evaluation the impact of each option on project constraints, including financial investment versus time saved and level of risk.

This process will result in the determination of the best approach to completing project work within the constraints

Question 339

Schedule

What is first of five?

Methods of Decision Making

(p. 206)

Answer 339

A voting technique where team members show their level of support by holding up zero to five fingers. Voting is repeated untill everyone in the group indicates their support by showing at least three fingers

Question 340

Schedule

What is a schedule model?

Develop Schedule

(p. 207)

Answer 340

The schedule model consists of all the project data that will be used to calculate the schedule, such as the activities, duration estimates, dependencies, and leads and lags. The project schedule is an output of the schedule model.

Question 341

Schedule

What is the critical path method?

Schedule Network Analysis

(p. 208)

Answer 341

Determining the longest duration path through the network diagram, the earliest and latest an activity can start, and the earliest and latest it can be completed

Question 342

Schedule

What is near-critical path?

Schedule Network Analysis

(p 209)

Answer 342

The path closest in duration to the critical path; the closer in length the critical and near=critical paths are, the more the risk to the project

Question 343

Schedule

Define total float, free float, and project float

Schedule Network Analysis

(p. 209)

Answer 343

1. Total Float: The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project end date or an intermediary milestone
2. Free float: The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of its successor(s)
3. Project float: The amount of time the project can be delayed without delaying the externally imposed project completion date required by the customer or management (also referred to as positive total float)

Question 344

Schedule

What are the two formulas for calculating float?

(p. 209)

Answer 344

• Late start (LS) - Early start (ES)
• Lat finish (LF) - Early Finish (EF)

Question 345

Schedule

What is the difference between crashing and fast tracking?

Methods for Schedule Compression

(p. 214)

Answer 345

Crashing involves adding or adjusting resources in order to compress the schedule while maintaining the original project scope, while fast-tracking involves compressing the schedule by doing more critical path activities in parallel

Question 346

Schedule

What is Monte Carlo analysis?

3 point estimation

(p. 218)

Answer 346

A technique that uses computer software to simulate the outcome of a project, based on the three-point estimates (optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely) for each activity and the network diagram

Monte Carlo analysis is also used as a risk management tool to quantitatively analyse risks

Question 347

Schedule

What is resource optimization?

(p. 218)

Answer 347

Finding ways to adjust the use of resources

Question 348

Schedule

What is the difference between resource leveling and resource smoothing?

Resource Optimization

(p. 218)

Answer 348

Resource leveling is a resource optimization technique that allows the project manager to level the peaks and valleys of the schedule from one month to the other, resulting in a more stable number of resources.
Resource smoothing is a modified form of resource leveling, where resources are leveled only within the limits of the float of their activities, so the completion dates of activities are not delayed.

Question 349

Schedule

On an agile project, what is the difference between a release and an iteration?

Agile Schedule Development

(p. 219)

Answer 349

An iteration is a short, timeboxed development period, typically one to four weeks in duration
A release is a group of iterations that results in the completion of a valuable deliverable on the project

Question 350

Schedule

What are cumulative flow diagrams used for?

Agile Schedule Development

(p. 219)

Answer 350

Tracking and forecasting the delivery of value
CFDs can help the project manager gain insight into project issues, cycle times, and likely completion dates.

Question 351

Schedule

What is velocity?

Agile Schedule Development

(p. 220)

Answer 351

The measure of a team’s capacity for work for each iteration, it allows the team to gauge how much work they will be able to do in the future based on the work they have completed in the past

Question 352

Schedule

What are some of the key outputs of the Develop Schedule process?

Develop Plan-Driven Schedule

(p. 220)

Answer 352

1. Project Schedule
2. Bar charts
3. Milestone charts
4. Schedule baseline
5. Change requests
6. Schedule data
7. Project document updates

Question 353

Schedule

What are the main presentation formats for a schedule?

(p. 222)

Answer 353

1. Network Diagrams
2. Bar Charts
3. Milestone Charts

Question 354

Schedule

What do simple bar charts show?

(p. 222)

Answer 354

Progress reporting and control; they are weak planning tools

Question 355

Schedule

What do milestone charts show?

(p. 222)

Answer 355

High-level project status; they only show major events

Question 356

Schedule

What artifacts result form the Control Schedule process?

(p. 222)

Answer 356

1. Work performance informatin
2. Schedule forecasts
3. Change requests
4. Updates to the schedule management plan
5. performance measurement baseline, and project documents

Question 357

Schedule

What is the purpose of reestimating?

Methods of Control Schedule

(p.224)

Answer 357

To make sure the project objectives can still be satisfied within the schedule, buget, and other project constraints

Question 358

Communications

According to the Process Groups model, what processes are involved in communications management?

(p. 274)

Answer 358

1. Plan Communications Management
2. Manage Communications
3. Monitor Communications

Question 359

Communications

What outcomes should be expected as a result of communication management?

(p. 275)

Answer 359

1. Communications are planned and executed so the right information is flowing in the right way, to the right people, at the right time and in the appropriate formats
2. The project manager solicits feedback to ensure a common understanfing
3. Communication strategies and tactics are measured and analyzed on a regular basis. Changes are made as neede
4. Communication management strategies and tectics contribute to stakeholder satisfaction

Question 360

Communications

What tools can help a project manager determine and analyze communications requirements?

(p. 277)

Communication Requirements

Answer 360

1. Stakeholder registry
2. Stakeholder personas
3. Stakeholder engagement plan
4. Locatoins of stakeholders
5. Number of communication channels

Question 361

Communications

What are some components of a communication management plan?

(p. 277)

Question 362

Communications

What are some rules for effective meetings?

(p. 279)

Question 363

Communications

What types of meeting do agile teams have?

(p. 280)

Answer 363

1. Daily Standup
2. Iteration review
3. Retrospective findings

Question 364

Communications

What are some important elements of project reporting?

(p. 280)

Question 365

Communications

Name some of the different types of project reports

(p. 280)

Question 366

Communications

List ways agile projectsshare knowledge

(p. 281)

Answer 366

1. Daily standups
2. Product demo
3. Kanban boards
4. Information radiators
5. Personas
6. Wireframes

Question 367

Communications

What are information radiatos?

(p. 281)

Answer 367

Highly visible displays of information placed in high-traffic areas that inform stakeholders about the project’s status

Question 368

Communications

What doesthe project manager do to monior communication effectiveness?

(p. 282)

Answer 368

1. Determine whether the communications management plan is being followed
2. Confirm communications and feedback are understood
3. Ensure that communications are meeting the needs of the stakeholders
4. Identify where communication is breaking down (if needed)
5. Adjust as necessary to meet stakeholder and team needs

Question 369

Risks and Issues

What is Risk Management?

(p. 286)

Answer 369

The process of identifying, evaluating, and planning responses to uncertain events that might occur during the course of a project

Question 370

Risks and Issues

What is on a watch list?

(p. 286)

Answer 370

Risks that currently do not warrant planned risks responses, but it is understood that any of these risks could become more probable and need a planned response

Question 371

Risks and Issues

Who is a risk owner?

(p. 286)

Answer 371

An individual who watches out for the occurrence of an assigned risk and leads the implementation of preplanned responses

Question 372

Risks and Issues

What is an opportunity in risk management?

(p. 286)

Answer 372

A risk event that has a positive impact to deliver even more value to the organization and customer than planned

Question 373

Risks and Issues

What is a spike?

(p. 287)

Answer 373

A short iteration dedicated to explore an issue or an approach
Often used to explore big risks like new processes or technology

Question 374

Risks and Issues

What are the two types of spikes?

(p. 287)

Answer 374

1. Architectural spikes
2. Risk-based spikes

Question 375

Risks and Issues

What is the purpose of fast failure?

(p. 288)

Answer 375

The earlier failure occurs the quicker resources can be diverted to a different strategy on a project, or even to a different project

Question 376

Risks and Issues

According to the Process Groups model, what processes are involved in risk management?

(p. 288)

Answer 376

1. Plan Risk Management
2. Identify Risks
3. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
4. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
5. Plan Risk Responses
6. Implement Risk Responses
7. Monitor Risks

Question 377

Risks and Issues

Name the factors to consider when assessing risk

(p. 286)

Answer 377

1. The probability that a risk event will occur (how likely)
2. The range of possible outcomes (impact or amount at stake)
3. Expected timing for it to occur in the project life cysle (when)
4. The anticipated frequency of risk events from that source (how often)

Question 378

Risks and Issues

Define risk appetite

(p. 287)

Answer 378

A general, high-level description of the acceptable level of risk to an individual or organization

Question 379

Risks and Issues

Define risk threshold

(p. 287)

Answer 379

The specific point at which risk becomes unacceptale

Question 380

Risks and Issues

What are the desired outcomes of risk management?

(p. 290)

Answer 380

1. Internal and external environmental factors are considered
2. Risk and responses address the inherent uncertainty and complexity on projects
3. Risk related to all possible variables and constraints are accounted for
4. Issues are eliminated with risk response plans
5. Risks are reviewed in every meeting, triggers are monitored, and risks are addressed before they happen
6. There is normally a plan in place to deal with risk events
7. Risk management helps to limit cost, time, and resource investments on the project

Question 381

Risks and Issues

Describe the difference between qualitative and quantitative risk analysis

(p. 294)

Answer 381

Qualitative risk analysis is a subjective evaluation and the numbers used to rate each risk are usually based on a scale of 1-5 or 1-10
Quantitative risk analysis is a more objective evaluation and the rating of each risk is based on an estimate of the actual probability and the actual monetary value at stake (impact)

Question 382

Risks and Issues

What may be included in the risk management plan?

(p. 290-291)

Answer 382

1. Risk strategy
2. Methodology
3. Roles and responsibilities
4. Funding
5. Timing
6. Risk categories
7. Stakeholder risk appetite/thresholds
8. Definitions of probability and impact
9. Reporting
10. Tracking

Question 383

Risks and Issues

What is a risk breakdown structure?

(p. 291)

Answer 383

A hierarchical chart that can help identify and document risk categories

Question 384

Risks and Issues

What are the risk categories related to project constraints?

(p. 292)

Answer 384

1. Schedule
2. Cost
3. Quality
4. Scope
5. Resources
6. Customer satisfaction

Question 385

Risks and Issues

What does risk data quality assessment show?

Answer 385

Accuracy and reliability of a risk to determine if it is valid and whether more researche is needed to understand it

Question 386

Risks and Issues

What is the main artifact that results from the identify Risks process?

(p. 293)

Answer 386

Risk register

Question 387

Risks and Issues

What are some examples of risk identification techniques?

(p. 293)

Answer 387

1. Brainstorming
2. Checklist analysis
3. Interviewing
4. Root Cause Analyis
5. Assumption analysis
6. Constraint analysis
7. SWOT analysis
8. Documentation reviews

Question 388

Risks and Issues

What is a project pre-mortem?

(p. 293)

Answer 388

A facilitated team exercise that aims to identify the possible failure points on a project before they happen

Question 389

Risks and Issues

What steps are typically involved in a project pre-mortem?

(p. 293)

Answer 389

1. Imagine the failure
2. Generate reasons for the failure
3. Consolidate the list
4. Revisit the plan

Question 390

Risks and Issues

Name methods used for the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process

(p. 294-295)

Answer 390

1. Risk management quality assessment
2. Risk categorization
3. Probability and impact matrix
4. Risk parameters assessment

Question 391

Risks and Issues

What does quantitative risk analysis determine?

(p. 296)

Answer 391

1. which risk events warrant a response plan and which require the most attention
2. Overall project risk (risk exposure)
3. The quantified probability of meeting project objectives

Question 392

Risks and Issues

What tools can a project manager use to determine quantitative probability and impact?

(p. 297)

Answer 392

1. Expert judgment from the team and risk specialists
2. Data-gathering techniques, such as interviewing
3. Data analysis techniques, such as sensitivityt analysis and decision tree analysis
4. Interpersonal and team skills
5. Cost and schedule estimating
6. Use of historical records from previous projects

Question 393

Risks and Issues

What is sensitivity analysis?

(p. 297)

Answer 393

A technique to analyze and compare the potential impacts of identified risks

Question 394

Risks and Issues

What is the formula for expected monetary value?

(p. 297)

Answer 394

Probability times impact, or
EMV = P x I

Question 395

Risks and Issues

What is the purpose of a decision tree?

(p. 298)

Answer 395

To model all the possible choices to resolve and issue

Question 396

Risks and Issues

What are the possible risk response strategies for threats?

(p 301-302)

Answer 396

1. Avoid: Eliminate the threat by eliminating its cause
2. Mitigate: Reduce the probability or impact of the threat
3. Transfer: Make another part responsible for the risk (outsourcing, insurance, warranties, bonds, guarantees)
4. Escalate: Move the threat to the program or portfolio level
5. Accept:

• Passive acceptance - do nothing; if it happens, it happens
• Active acceptance - develop contingency plans in advance

Question 397

Risks and Issues

What are the possible risk response strategies for opportunities?

(p. 302)

Answer 397

1. Exploit: Make sure the opportunity occurs
2. Enhance: Increase probability or positive impact of the risk event
3. Share: Allocate full or partial ownership of the opportunity to a third party
4. Escalate: Move the opportunity to the program or portfolio level
5. Accept: Do nothingl if it happens, it happens

Question 398

Risks and Issues

What key outputs of the Plan Risk Responses process are added to the risk register?

(p. 305)

Answer 398

1. Residual Risks
2. Contingency plans
3. Fallback plans
4. Risk owners
5. Secondary risks
6. Risk Triggers
7. Contracts
8. Reserves (contingency and management)

Question 399

Risks and Issues

What is communicated in a risk report?

(p. 304)

Answer 399

The risks of greatest threat or opportunity, overall project risk exposure, anticipated changes, and anticipated outcomes of planned risk responses

Question 400

Risks and Issues

What is a pure risk?

(p. 292)

Answer 400

An insurable risk, such as fire, theft, property damage

Question 401

Risks and Issues

What are residual risks?

(p. 301)

Answer 401

The risks that remain after risk response planning

Question 402

Risks and Issues

What are secondary risks?

(p. 302)

Answer 402

New risks created by the implementation of risk response strategies

Question 403

Risks and Issues

What is the difference between a contingency plan and a fallback plan?

Answer 403

A contingency plan describes the specific actions that will be taken if the opportunity or threat occurs

A fallback plan describes specific actions that will be taken if the contingency plans are not effective

Question 404

Risks and Issues

What are risk triggers?

(p. 305)

Answer 404

Events that trigger contingency responses
They let risk owners know when to take action

Question 405

Risks and Issues

What is a risk-adjusted backlog?

(p. 308)

Answer 405

A backlog that is prioritized for the risk responses that have been developed for identified risks

Question 406

Risks and Issues

Describe set-based design

(p. 309)

Answer 406

Exploring multiple options, or designs, early in the project and eliminating the ones that won’t work

It creates flexibility and allows teams to develop knowledge as they work through the different options

Question 407

Risks and Issues

What are workarounds?

(p. 311)

Answer 407

Unplanned responses developed to deal with the occurrence of unanticipated events or problems on a project (or to deal with risks that had been accepted because of unlikelihood of occurence and/or minimal impact)

Question 408

Risks and Issues

What can a contingency reserve be used for?

(p. 305)

Answer 408

To handle the impact of the specific risk for which it was set aside

Question 409

Risks and Issues

What is technical performance analysis?

(p. 312)

Answer 409

Uses project data to compare planned versus actual completion of technical requirements to determine if there is any variance from what was planned

Question 410

Risks and Issues

What happens during a risk reassessment?

(p. 311)

Answer 410

The team reviews the risk management plan and risk register and adjusts the documentation as required

Question 411

Risks and Issues

What is a risk review?

(p. 311)

Answer 411

A regular review to discuss the effectiveness of planned risk responses that have need implemented on the project

The may result in the identification of new risks, secondary risks created by risk response plans, and risks that are no longer applicable

Question 412

Risks and Issues

What are risk audits?

(p. 311)

Answer 412

Assessments of the overall process of risk management on the project

Question 413

Risks and Issues

What agile tools allow for ongoing monitoring and controlling for risk?

Answer 413

Retrospectives and risk burndown charts

Question 414

Risks and Issues

What is the purpose of technical performance analysis?

Answer 414

Compares planned versus actual completion of technical requirements to determine if there is any variance from what was planned

Any variance could indicate possible risks to the project, either opportunities or threats

Question 415

Risks and Issues

What artifacts result from the Monitor Risks process?

(p. 313)

Answer 415

1. Change Requests
2. Project Management plan updates
3. Project document updates (included the risk register)
4. Work performance information
5. Organizational process assets updates

Question 416

Risks and Issues

What key outputs of the Monitor Risks process are added to the risk register?

(p. 313)

Answer 416

1. Outcomes of risk reassessments and risk audits
2. Results of implemented risk responses
3. Updated to previous parts of risk management
4. Closing of risks that are no longer applicable
5. Details of what happened when risks occurred
6. Lessons learned

Question 417

Compliance and Delivering Value

What is the definition of a value chain?

Answer 417

A systematic series of steps that go into the creation of a delivered product

Question 418

Compliance and Delivering Value

What is the purpose of value stream mapping?

Answer 418

The team tries to eliminate waste and gain efficiencies in a product delivery process by visualizing, discussing, and analyzing all steps in the process

Question 419

Compliance and Delivering Value

What is the definition of a system?

Answer 419

A continually interacting and interdependent group of items or activities

Question 420

Compliance and Delivering Value

What are the two categories for compliance requirements from the business environment?

Answer 420

1. Governmental regulations and societal norm
2. Organizational governance

Question 421

Compliance and Delivering Value

What is organizational governance?

Answer 421

A system within the organization that exists to support the delivery of value to stakeholders

Question 422

Compliance and Delivering Value

What is project management compliance?

Answer 422

Tailoring to project organizational practices and tools supplied by the PMO

Question 423

Compliance and Delivering Value

What is systems thinking?

Answer 423

An awareness that organizations exist within the context of many systems working together for mutual benefit.

Question 424

Compliance and Delivering Value

What is value delivery?

Answer 424

Delivering the promised value of the project and product scope.

Question 425

Compliance and Delivering Value

What are the project management principles?

Answer 425

1. Stewardship
2. Team
3. Stakeholders
4. Value
5. Systems thinking
6. Leadership
7. Tailoring
8. Quality
9. Risk
10. Adaptability and resiliency
11. Enable change to achieve the envisioned future state

Question 426

Compliance and Delivering Value

What is the definition of stewardship?

Answer 426

Acting with care and integrity, and establishing and maintaining trust

Question 427

Compliance and Delivering Value

How can a project manager navigate complexity?

Answer 427

By continually evaluating their approaches, methods, and plans on the project to ensure they are in line with project (and organizational and societal) complexity

Question 428

Compliance and Delivering Value

What is the difference between a minimally marketable feature (MMF) and a minimally viable product (MVP)?

Answer 428

An MMF is the smallest feature that can be released into the marketplace, which stakeholders need or will find useful. MMFs are delivered on a regular basis as updates to already existing consumer products

An MVP is a version of a product with just enough features to make it useful. The most critical features can be used by early customers. An MVP allows the project manager and team to see how the increment of the product appeals to the customer and how the customer uses the product

Question 429

Compliance and Delivering Value

What should a project manager do to manage environmental changes?

Answer 429

• Have a high level of sophistication about the products and services, the organization, and the environment
• Maintain awareness and monitor the possibility of change of any kind
• As potential changes are identified, evaluate the changes and their impacts
• Plan a response
• Lead the team in operating within the organization and the project to support the planned response

Question 430

Compliance and Delivering Value

Why is it important to understand organizational culture, politics, and governance?

Answer 430

It enables the project manager to make needed changes within their projects in ways that minimize negative effects and keep the project moving forward

Question 431

Compliance and Delivering Value

Name the change models

Answer 431

ADKAR
8-step Process for Leading Change
Virginia Satir Change Model
Transition Model

Question 432

Compliance and Delivering Value

What is the ADKAR model?

Answer 432

ADKAR stands for Awareness, Desire, Knowledge, Ability, and Reinforcement, which are the five steps that an individual goes through to adapt to change

The model helps change management professionals to develop communications and activities for impacted stakeholders undergoing change at each stage of their journey

Question 433

Compliance and Delivering Value

What does the Virginia Satir change model acknowledge?

Answer 433

Things often get worse before they get better, but they will eventually get better with clear communication and support

Question 434

Common Agile Methodologies

What are the seven principles of Lean methodology?

Answer 434

1. Eliminate waste: eliminate waste in the value chain and value stream mapping
2. Amplify learning
3. Decide as late as possible: in adaptive environments so much information does not available the beginning of a project there are four decisions about the next stage “should be made at the last possible moment”
4. Deliver as fast as possible: the teams are delivering value continually and as quickly as possible
5. Empower the team: trust people’s skills, provide training when needed and trust the team to make the decisions about their own work
6. Build integrity in: a product that works well and is user friendly
7. See the whole: we must sing holistically about the product since there are interacting parts that also interdependent

Question 435

Common Agile Methodologies

What method can be used to help eliminate waste?

Answer 435

Value stream mapping

Question 436

Common Agile Methodologies

Describe a Kanban board

Answer 436

1. Kanban boards were meant to be low-tech and high-touch
2. They can be created with sticky notes on white boards or flip charts
3. They can also be digital

Question 437

Common Agile Methodologies

What are the five core principles of Kanban?

Answer 437

Visualize the workflow
Limit WIP (work in progress)
Manage flow
Make process policies explicit
Improve collaboratively

Question 438

Common Agile Methodologies

What is a pull system?

Answer 438

On a Kanban board, team members pull tasks (or sticky notes) from one column to the next as work is completed

Question 439

Common Agile Methodologies

What does Scrum call an iteration?

Answer 439

Sprint

Question 440

Common Agile Methodologies

What is the difference between a product backlog and a sprint backlog?

Answer 440

The product (or project) backlog represents all the known product scope: Features are continuously added and removed as the customer makes decisions about product scope

The sprint backlog is the specific increment or increments of product that are currently at the top of the prioritized backlog and are selected for the next (or current) sprint

Question 441

Common Agile Methodologies

What are the Scrum core concepts?

Answer 441

Iterative and incremental development
Dedicated team
Cross-functional team
Pillars
* Transparency
* Inspection
* Adaptation

Question 442

Common Agile Methodologies

What question are to be answered at a daily scrum?

Answer 442

Also known as a daily standup, participants answer these questions:
* What have I completed since the last meeting?
* What am I working on today?
* Are there any impediments to progress?

Question 443

Common Agile Methodologies

What are the rules of the daily scrum?

Answer 443

• If team members have something to report they must attend
• If team members have nothing to report, they shouldn’t speak at the meeting
• Talk is restricted to addressing the three questions
• If a team member has identified an impediment, it will be taken up after the meeting by the Scrum Master or anyone else who may be able to help remove the impediment. It is not to be elaborated during the meeting.

Question 444

Common Agile Methodologies

What is a spike?

Answer 444

An iteration specifically planned to explore risks to understand them better and thus reduce them.

Question 445

Common Agile Methodologies

What is an architectural spike?

Answer 445

An iteration that explores new technological approaches to show they will work for the product and the project.

Question 446

Common Agile Methodologies

Name the five values that guide XP teams

Answer 446

1. Simplicity
2. Communication
3. Feedback
4. Courage
5. Respect

Question 447

Common Agile Methodologies

What is test-driven development?

Answer 447

The team creates the tests before they develop the code (the code has to be built to pass the tests)

Question 448

Common Agile Methodologies

What is pair programming?

Answer 448

Developers work together, taking tums developing code while the other watches.

Question 449

Common Agile Methodologies

What does the Crystal Family of Methodologies help the project manager and team find?

Answer 449

A situation-specific solution

Question 450

Common Agile Methodologies

What is Scaled Agile Framework (SAFe)?

Answer 450

A set of management practices and processes that guide a group of agile teams to work towards a common, often longer-term goal

Question 451

Common Agile Methodologies

What are the four core values of SAFe?

Answer 451

1. Alignment
2. Built-in quality
3. Transparency
4. Program execution

Question 452

Common Agile Methodologies

What agile model is focused on feature delivery?

Answer 452

Feature Driven Development (FDD)

Question 453

Common Agile Methodologies

What are the four agile values?

Answer 453

Individuals and interactions over processes and tools
Working software over comprehensive documentation
Customer collaboration over contract negotiation
Responding to change over following a plan