Risk Management and Single- Pilot Resource Management Flashcards

1
Q

Define Risk….

A
  • Probability and Possible Severity
  • Accident or loss from exposure to various hazards
  • Injury to people and loss of resources
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Total Risk?

A

Sum of identified + unidentified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Identified Risk?

A
  • Been determined through various analysis techniques

- First task of system safety: Identify, within practical limitations all possible risks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Unidentified Risk?

A
  • Not yet identified
  • Some unidentified risks are identified when a mishap occurs
  • Some risk is never known
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Unacceptable Risk?

A
  • Cannot be tolerated by managing activity

- Subset of identified risk that MUST be eliminated or controlled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Acceptable risk?

A
  • Part of identified risk that is allowed to continue without further engineering or management action.
  • Decision is made with full knowledge that the user is exposed to the risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Residual Risk?

A
  • Risk leftover after safety methods are fully employed
  • Not the same as an acceptable risk
  • Sum of Acceptable + Unidentified
  • = Total risk passed on to a user
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Risk Management?

A

Risk management is a decision-making process. Identify hazards systemically, assess the degree of risk and determine the best course of action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a Hazard?

A
  • Present condition, event, object, or circumstance
  • Could lead or contribute to an unplanned or undesired event
  • Source of danger
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a Risk?

A
  • Future impact of hazard that is not controlled or eliminated
  • Possibility of loss or injury
  • Measured by;
  • Number of people or resources affected (Exposure)
  • Extent of possible loss (Severity)
  • Likelihood of loss (Probability)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Safety?

A
  • Freedom from conditions that cause:
  • Death
  • Injury
  • Occupational illness
  • Damage to or loss of equipment or property
  • Absolute safety is never possible
  • Relative term that implies a level of risk that is both perceived and accepted
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The goal of Risk Management?

A
  • Proactively identify safety-related hazards and mitigate the associated risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the ability to make good decisions based on?

A
  • Direct or indirect experience

- Education

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 4 fundamental principles of risk management?

A
  • Accept no unnecessary risk
  • Make risk decisions at the appropriate level
  • Accept risk when benefits outweigh costs
  • Integrate risk management into planning at all levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is an unnecessary risk?

A
  • Risk that carries no commensurate return in terms of benefits or opportunities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the steps in the risk management process?

A
  1. Identify hazard
  2. Assess the risk
  3. Mitigate the risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Step 1 of the Risk Management Process is to Identify Hazard

Explain this…

A

A hazard is defined as any real or potential condition that can cause degradation, injury, illness, death, or damage to property or equipment.

Experience, common sense, and specific analytical tools help identify risks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Step 2 of the Risk Management Process is to Assess the Risk

Explain this…

A

Each identified risk is assessed in terms of its probability and consequences.

You can use a risk assessment matrix such as an online flight risk awareness tool.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Step 3 of the Risk Management Process is to Mitigate the Risk
Explain this…

A

Investigate specific strategies and tools to reduce, mitigate or eliminate the risk.

High/ serious risk may be mitigated by lowering likelihood and or severity
Medium/Low risks do not normally require mitigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tips for implementing risk management process….

A
  1. Apply the steps in sequence
    - Each step is a building block and should be completed before starting the next
  2. Maintain a balance in the process
    - Allocate time and resources to all steps
  3. Apply the process in a cycle
    - Supervise and review
  4. Involve people in the process
    - Ensure risk controls are mission supportive
    - Ensure people who do the work see them as a positive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does PAVE stand for?

A

P- Pilot
A- Aircraft
V- Environment
E- External pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

P in the PAVE acronym…

A

Pilot in Command

  • Am I ready for this trip?
  • Experience
  • Currency
  • Physical condition
  • Emotional condition

IMSAFE Checklist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A in the PAVE acronym…

A

Aircraft

  • Is this the right aircraft for the flight?
  • Am I familiar and current with this aircraft?
  • Is this aircraft equipped for the flight?
  • Instruments?
  • Lights?
  • Navigation?
  • Communication?
  • Can this aircraft use the runways available with an adequate margin for safety under current conditions?
  • Can this aircraft carry the planned load?
  • Can this aircraft operate at the altitude needed for this trip?
  • Does this aircraft have sufficient fuel capacity, with reserves for the trip?
  • Does the fuel quantity delivered match the fuel quantity ordered?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

V in the PAVE acronym…

A

Environment

  • What is the current ceiling and visibility?
  • In mountainous terrain consider having higher minimums
  • Consider the possibility that the weather may be different to the forecast. have alternate plans and be ready and willing to divert should an unexpected change occur.
  • Consider winds at the airport and the strength of the crosswind
  • In mountainous terrain consider the strong winds aloft and possible turbulence and downdraughts.
  • Are there thunderstorms present/ forecasted?
  • If there are clouds; is there any icing forecast?
  • What is the dew point temp and the current temperature at altitude?
  • Can descent be made safely along the entire route?
  • If icing is encountered are you experienced to use de-icing equipment? Is the equipment functional?
  • What icing conditions are the aircraft rated?

Airport considerations

  • Light available?
  • Check NOTAMS’s?
  • Engine failures and distance to the closest aerodrome

Airspace considerations

  • Remote areas?
  • Overwater?
  • Any airspace?

Night flying considerations

  • Overwater?
  • Aircraft lights?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

E in PAVE acronym…

A

External Pressures

  • Somone waiting
  • Don’t want to disappoint passenger
  • Desire to impress someone
  • Emotional pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Typical SOP’s to manage external pressures?

A
  • Allow time for the unexpected
  • Have alternates
  • Leave early
  • Inform others of delays
  • Manage passenger expectations
  • Eliminate pressure to return home
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the IMSAFE checklist?

A
I- Illness 
M- Medication
S- Stress
A- Alcohol
F- Fatigue
E- Emotion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Risk likelihood ratings

A
  • Probable
  • Occasional
  • Remote
  • Improbable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In regards to likelihood ratings…

What does Probable mean?

A

An event will occur several times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In regards to likelihood ratings…

What does Occasional mean?

A

An even twill probably occur sometimes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In regards to likelihood ratings…

What does Remote mean?

A

An event is unlikely to occur but is possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In regards to likelihood ratings…

What does Improbable mean?

A

An event is highly unlikely to occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The severity of event ratings?

A
  • Catastrophic
  • Critical
  • Marginal
  • Negligible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In regards to severity ratings…

What does Catastrophic mean?

A

Results in fatalities, total loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In regards to severity ratings…

What does Critical mean?

A

Severe injury, major damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In regards to severity ratings…

What does Marginal mean?

A

Minor injury, minor damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In regards to severity ratings…

What does Negligible mean?

A

Less than a minor injury, less than minor system loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the 3 FRAT score ranges and definitions for each?

A

RED (HIGH)

  • Risk likelihood and severity are normally reduced before departure
  • If risks cannot be mitigated flight cancellation occurs

YELLOW (SERIOUS)

  • Risk likelihood and severity needs reduction before departure
  • Begin by mitigating some higher scoring items

GREEN (MEDIUM)

  • Flight can departure or continue
  • Risk severity and likelihood may be reduced
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the 3 P model for pilots?

A
  • Perceive
  • Process
  • Perform
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the goal of the first P; Perceive?

A
  • Develop situational awareness
  • Look at how present events, objects or circumstances can contribute to an undesired future event
  • Pilot identifies and lists hazards associated with every aspect of flying
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the goal of the second P; Process?

A
  • Process information to determine if hazards constitute a risk
  • Measure degree of risk in terms of exposure , severity and probability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the goal of the third P; Perform?

A
  • Take action to eliminate the hazard or mitigate risk

- Continue to evaluate outcome of this action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How do you know a pilot is situationally aware?

A

The pilot has an overview of the total operation and is not fixated on one factor

44
Q

Obstacles to situational awareness?

A
  • Fatigue
  • Stress
  • Work overload
  • Distraction
45
Q

Warning signs of fatigue…

A
  • Eyes going in and out of focus
  • Head bobs involuntarily
  • Persistent yawning
  • Spotty short- term memory
  • Wandering or poorly organised thoughts
  • Missed or erroneous perfromance of routine procedures
  • Degradation of control accuaracy
46
Q

Factors that cause pilots to be more susceptible to fatigue…

A
  • Low barometric pressure
  • Humidity
  • Noise
  • Vibration
47
Q

What is the only effective treatment for fatigue?

A

Sleep

48
Q

Countermeasures to fatigue…

A
  • Long naps (3-4 hours) can restore alertness for 12-15 hours
  • Short power naps (10-30 minutes) can restore alertness for 3-4 hours
  • Eat high-protein meals
  • Drink plenty of fluids, especially water
  • Rotate flight tasks and converse with other crew members or passengers
  • Keep the flight deck temperature cool
  • Move/ stretch in the seat and periodically get up to walk around the aircraft, if possible
49
Q

How to check learner is remaining situationally aware?

A
  • Positions of other aircraft in the pattern
  • Engine instruent indications
  • Aircrafts location on chart
50
Q

What is ADM?

A

Aeronautical Decision Making

51
Q

What is RM?

A

Risk Management

52
Q

What is TM?

A

Task Management

53
Q

What is AM?

A

Automation Management

54
Q

What is CFIT?

A

Controlled Flight Into Terrain

55
Q

What is SA?

A

Situational Awareness

56
Q

What are some operational pitfalls?

A
  • Peer Pressure
  • Mindset
  • Get there itis
  • Duck under syndrome
  • Scud running
  • Continuing VFR into instrument conditions
  • Getting behind the aircraft
  • Loss of positional or situational awareness
  • Operating without adequate fuel reserves
  • Descent below the minimum en route altitude
  • Flying outside the envelope
  • Neglect of flight planning, pre-flight inspections, and checklists
57
Q

What is the operational pitfall of Peer Pressure?

A

Poor decision making may be based upon an emotional response to peers rather than evaluating a situation objectively

58
Q

What is the operational pitfall Mindset?

A

A pilot displays mindset through an inability to recognize and cope with changes in a given situation

59
Q

What is the operational pitfall Get There Itis?

A

This disposition impairs pilot judgement through a fixation on the original goal or destination, combined with a disregard for any alternative course of action

60
Q

What is the operational pitfall Duck-Under syndrome?

A

A pilot may be tempted to make it into an airport by descending below minimums during an approach.
There may be a belief that there is a built-in margin of error in every approach procedure, or a pilot may want to admit that the landing cannot be completed and a missed approach must be initiated.

61
Q

What is the operational pitfall Scud running?

A

This occurs when a pilot tries to maintain visual contact with the terrain at low altitudes while instrument conditions exist

62
Q

What is the operational pitfall of Continuing VFR into Instrument conditions?

A

Spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles may occur when a pilot continues VFR into instrument conditions. This can be even more dangerous if the pilot is not instrument rated or current.

63
Q

What is the operational pitfall of Getting behind the aircraft?

A

This pitfall can be caused by allowing events or the situation to control pilot actions. A constant state of surprise at what happens next may be exhibited when the pilot is getting behind the aircraft.

64
Q

What is the operational pitfall of Loss of positional or situational awareness?

A

In extreme cases, when a pilot gets behind the aircraft, a loss of positional or situational awareness may occur. The pilot may not know the aircraft’s geographical location or may be unable to recognize deteriorating circumstances

65
Q

What is the operational pitfall of Operating without adequate fuel reserves?

A

Ignoring minimum fuel reserve requirements is generally the result of overconfidence, lack of flight planning, or disregarding applicable regulations

66
Q

What is the operational pitfall Descent below minimum Enroute altitude?

A

The duck-under syndrome as mentioned above can also occur during the en route portion of IFR flight

67
Q

What is the operational pitfall Flying outside the envelope?

A

The assumed high-performance capability of a particular aircraft may cause a mistaken belief that it can meet the demands imposed by pilots overestimated flying skills

68
Q

What is the operational pitfall Neglect of flight planning, preflight inspections, and checklists?

A

A pilot relies on short and long-term memory, regular flying skills, and familiar routes instead of established procedures and published checklists.
This can be particularly true for experienced pilots

69
Q

What are the 5 Ps?

A
  • Plan
  • Plane
  • pIlot
  • Passengers
  • Programming
70
Q

What is the goal of system safety?

A

Utilize all 4 concepts (ADM, Risk Management, Situational Awareness, and SRM) so the risk can be reduced to the lowest possible level

71
Q

The 1st stage of the decision-making process is defining the problem; this entails…

A
  • Recognising that a change has occurred or an expected change did not occur
  • Perceived first through senses then distinguished through insight experience
  • These abilities and objective analysis are used to determine the exact nature and severity of the problem
72
Q

Definition of Aeronautical Decision Making

A

A systemic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances

73
Q

Definition of Attitude

A

A personal motivation predisposition to respond to persons, situations or events in a given manner that can nevertheless be changed or modified through training as sort of a mental shortcut to decision making

74
Q

Definition of Attitude management

A

The ability to recognize hazardous attitudes in oneself and the willingness to modify them as necessary through the application of an appropriate antidote thought

75
Q

Definition of Crew Resource management

A

The application of team management concepts in the flight deck environment. It was initially known as cockpit resource management but as CRM programs evolved to include cabin crews, maintenance personnel, and others the phrase crew resource management was adopted.
This includes a single pilot, as in most general aviation aircraft.
Pilots of small aircraft as well as crews of larger aircraft must make efficient use of all resources; human resources, hardware, and information.
A current definition currently includes all groups routinely working with the cockpit crew who are involved in decisions required to operate a flight safely.
These groups include; pilots, dispatchers, cabin crew members, maintenance, and ATC.
CRM is one way of addressing the challenge of optimizing the human-machine interface and accompanying interpersonal activities.

76
Q

Definition of Headwork

A

Required to accomplish a conscious, rational thought process when making decisions. Good decision making involves risk identification and assessment, information processing and problem-solving

77
Q

Definition of judgment

A

The mental process of recognizing and analyzing all pertinent information in a particular situation, a rational evaluation of alternative actions in response to it, and a timely decision on which action to take

78
Q

Definition of personality

A

The embodiment of personal traits and characteristics of an individual that are set at a very early age and extremely resistant to change

79
Q

Definition of Poor judgment chain

A

A series of mistakes that may lead to an accident or incident. Two basic principles generally associated with the creation of a poor judgement chain are: 1. One bad decision often leads to another and 2. as a string of bad decisions grows, it reduces the number of subsequent alternatives for continued safe flight. ADM is intended to break the poor judgement chain before it can cause an accident or incident.

80
Q

Definition of risk elements in ADM

A

Take into consideration the 4 fundamental risk elements; the pilot, the aircraft, the environment, and the type of operation that comprise any given aviation situation

81
Q

Definition of Risk management

A

The part of the decision-making process which relies on situational awareness, problem recognition and good judgement to reduce risks associated with each flight

82
Q

Definition of Situational awareness

A

The accurate perception and understanding of all the factors and conditions within the 4 fundamental risk elements that affect safety before during and after flight

83
Q

Definition of Skills and procedures

A

The procedural, psychomotor, and perceptual skills are used to control a specific aircraft or its systems. They are the airmanship abilities that are gained through conventional training are perfected and become almost automatic through experience

84
Q

Definition of Stress management

A

The personal analysis of the kinds of stress experienced while flying, the application of appropriate stress assessment tools, and other coping mechanisms

85
Q

The 2nd stage of the decision-making process is choosing a course of action; this entails…

A
  • Pilot evaluates the need to react to the problem

- Determines actions to resolve the situation in the time available

86
Q

The 3rd stage of the decision-making process is Implementing the decision and evaluating the outcome; this entails…

A
  • Think ahead and determine how the decision could affect other phases of flight
  • Continue to evaluate the outcome and ensure it is producing the desired outcome
87
Q

2 steps to improve flight safety…

A
  1. Identify personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight

2. Learning behaviour modification steps

88
Q

What are the 5 hazardous attitudes that can affect a pilot’s ability to make sound decisions and exercise authority properly?

A
  1. Anti-Authority
  2. Impulsivity
  3. Invulnerability
  4. Macho
  5. Resignation
89
Q

Explain Anti-Authority….

A

‘Don’t tell me’
This attitude is found in people who do not like anyone telling them what to do.
In a sense, they are saying ‘ no one can tell me what to do’
They may be resentful of having someone tell them what to do or may regard rules, regulations, and procedures as silly or unnecessary.
However, it is always a pilot prerogative to question authority if it seems to be in error.

90
Q

Explain Impulsivity….

A

‘Do it quickly’
This is the attitude of people who frequently feel the need to do something- anything- immediately.
They do not stop to think about what they are about to do; they do not select the best alternative, and they do the first thing that comes to mind.

91
Q

Explain Invulnerability…

A

‘It won’t happen to me’
Many people believe that accidents happen to others, but never to them.
They know accidents can happen, and they know that anyone can be affected.
They never really feel or believe that they will be personally involved.
Pilots who think this way are more likely to take chances and increase risk.

92
Q

Explain Macho…

A

‘I can do it’
Pilots who are always trying to prove that they are better than anyone else is thinking ‘I can do it, ill show them’
Pilots with this type of attitude will try to prove themselves by taking risks in order to impress others. While this pattern is thought to be a male characteristic, women are equally susceptible.

93
Q

Explain Resignation…

A

‘What’s the use?’
Pilots who think ‘whats the use?’ do not see themselves as being able to make a great deal of difference in what happens to them.
When things go well, the pilot is apt to think that it is good luck.
When things go badly, the pilot may feel that ‘someone is out to get me’
or attribute it to bad luck.
The pilot will leave the action to others, for better or for worse.
Sometimes, such pilots will even go along with unreasonable requests just to be the nice guy.

94
Q

Types of stressors?

A
  • Physical stress
  • Physiological stress
  • Psychological stress
95
Q

What is physical stress?

A

Conditions associated with the environment, such as temperature and humidity extremes, noise, vibration, and lack of oxygen

96
Q

What is physiological stress?

A

Physical conditions such as fatigue, lack of physical fitness, sleep loss, missed meals (low blood pressure), and illness

97
Q

What is psychological stress?

A

Social or emotional factors, such as death, divorce, sick child, or demotion at work.
This type of stress may also be related to mental workload such as analyzing a problem, navigating an aircraft or making decisions

98
Q

Techniques to manage stress..

A
  • Relaxation time
  • Physical fitness
  • Tiem management
99
Q

What are internal resources?

A
  • Found in the flight deck
  • Pilots can enhance internal resources by improving their own capabilities
  • Persuing additional training
  • Frequently reviewing flight information publications
  • Checklists
  • Charts
  • Passengers
100
Q

What are external resources?

A
  • ATC
101
Q

What to do when experiencing workload overload?

A

Stop, think, slow down and prioritize

102
Q

System safety flight training occurs in 3 steps, these are?

A
  1. Stick and rudder maneuvers
  2. Tenets of system safety
  3. Several safety of flight issues
103
Q

For SBT instruction to be effective, what information is vital to establish?

A
  • Scenario destinations
  • Desired learning outcomes
  • Desired level of learner performance
  • Possible inflight scenario changes
104
Q

Important things to remember for a good scenario…

A
  • It is not a test
  • Will not have a single correct answer
  • Does not offer an obvious answer
  • Engages all 3 learning domains
  • Is interactive
  • Should not promote errors
  • Should promote SA and DM
  • Requires time-pressured decisions
105
Q

What 4 components make up SRM grades?

A
  1. Explain
  2. Practice
  3. Manage/ Decide
  4. Not observed