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CSP Study Prep > Risk management > Flashcards

Risk management Flashcards

1
Q

a study method that requires multidisciplinary team, guided by an experienced leader and uses specific guide words such as no, increase, decrease, reverse that are systematically applied to parameters i.e. pressure flow, temperature, to identify consequences of deviation.

A

HAZOP

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2
Q

loss ratio

A

losses/exp mod*premium

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3
Q

cost to benefit ratio

A

cost/net benefit

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4
Q

probability of another accident (fork trucks)

A

fork truck accidents/# of total accidents

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5
Q

blank are signals preceding behaviors

A

activators

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6
Q

major hazardous air pollutants must use_ to reduce their emissions

A

maximum achieavable control technology MACT

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7
Q

promotes a mgmt review the intent of which is to achieve acceptable risk levels

A

as low as reasonably practicable ALARP

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8
Q

making everything reasonabl effort to maintain exposures to ionzing radiation as far beow the dose limit as practical

A

as low as reasonably achieve bale ALARA

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9
Q

this level of control is required for new criteria pollutant sources in the attainment areas. defined in the permitting process

A

best available contorl technology BACT

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10
Q

a_ is often the first step of a system reliability study. it involves reviewing as many components, assemblies and subsystems as possible and their causes and effects. can be qualitative and quantitative. it is inductive reasoning single point failure analysis.

A

FMEA

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11
Q

3 fundamental steps for ABC analysis

A

analyze the at risk behavior, analyze the safe behavior an draft the action plan

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12
Q

the strongest behavior consequences are

A

soon certain and positive

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13
Q

the transmission of multiple singles on a single path

A

multiplexing

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14
Q

dividing the channel bandiwtch into bands allocating a band to each system requiring the use of the channel for the transmission of signals.

A

frequency division multiplexing

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15
Q

the information is discrete in time therefore transmission scheme can provide rest periods between transmission. simpler cheaper form of multiplexing however only accesses one device at a a time

A

time division multiplexing

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16
Q

an example of chain of custody

A

taking photos, making notes, lighting, date/time, describing angles that photo was taken, any info important later in the process

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17
Q

the product conforms to the European union health safety and environmental protection standards

A

CE marking

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18
Q

who is the RSPA

A

research and special program administration. published performance standards HM181 for construction of packaging for transporting hazards materils

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19
Q

All certified hazardous materials packing must bear the what symbol

A

United Nations UN

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20
Q

the package identification code for UN symbol designates what three things

A

type of packaging, material of construction and when appropriate, and category of packaging

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21
Q

placed around a noise source to prevent noise from getting outside. normally lined with sound abortion material to decrease internal sound pressure buildup.,

A

enclosures

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22
Q

equipment used from preventing an employee from reaching a fall point such as an edge or the edge of an elevated working surface.

A

fall restraint systems

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23
Q

4 elements ABCDS of fall arrest are

A

anchorage, body wear, connector, deceleration device

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24
Q

GHS signal words indicating relative degree of severity of a hazard

A

danger and warning. danger more severe, warning less severe

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25
Q

a liquid which even in small quantities is liable to ignite within five minutes after contact with air

A

pyrophoric liquid

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26
Q

in confined space, process by which a permit space is removed from service and completely protected against the releaste of energy and material into the space by such means as blanking or blinding, misalinign or removing sections of lines, double block bleed system,

A

isolation

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27
Q

closer of a line duct or pipe by closing and locking or tagging two in line valves and by opening and locking or tagging a drain or vent valve in the line between the two closes valves

A

double block and bleed

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28
Q

means the absolute closer of a pipe, line or duct by fastening of a solid plate that completely covers the bore and can withstand the max pressure of the pipe line or duct with no lekage beyond the plate

A

blanking or blinding

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29
Q

intentional opening of a pipe, line or duct that is or has been carrying flammable, corrosive or toxic material, an inert gas or any fluid at a volume pressure or temp capable of causing injury.

A

line breaking

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30
Q

displacement of the atmosphere in a permit space by a noncombustible gas such a nitrogren to such an extent that the resulting atmospher is noncombustible. this producues IDLH oxygen defecient atmosphere.

A

inerting

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31
Q

hazardous atmosphere for oxygen

A

concentration below 19.5% and above 23.5%

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32
Q

hazardous atmosphere for dust and gas,vapors and mists

A

5 feet visual for dust or meets/exceeds its LFL. gas/vapors/mists= excess of 10% of its LFL

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33
Q

three traditional levels of warnings

A

danger, warning, caution. danger is immediate hazard sever injury/death, warning is for unsafe practices or hazards that could cause severe injury/death, and caution=result in minory injury, product damage or property damage

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34
Q

means that a portion of a tags inscription that is more specific than the signal word an that indicates the specific hazardous condition or an instruction to be communicated to the employees i.e high voltage, close clearance do not start

A

major message

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35
Q

portion of a tags inscription that contains the word or words that are intended to capture the employees immediate atttention

A

signal word

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36
Q

any action which reduces the losses incurred. i.e. reducing amount burned, or number of persons injured or by reducing oerational loss

A

loss reduction

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37
Q

4 steps of an effective loss prevention program

A

problem identification, selection of corrective measurees, implenation and feedback and control

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38
Q

a non destructive tension test performed by sling manufacture or equivalent entity to verify construction and workmanship of sling

A

non destructive testing

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39
Q

hood construction for perchloric acid (chemical plating and incendiary fireworks)

A

stainless steel with rounded corners all welded construction

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40
Q

LASER Stands for

A

light amlification by stiumulated emission of radiation

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41
Q

most common cause of laser induced tissue damge

A

thermal

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42
Q

ansi standard for lasers

A

Ansi z136.1

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43
Q

the blank published standards on laser safety

A

international electro technical commision IEC

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44
Q

lasers emits visible light and are limited to maximum output power of 1 milliwatt. can be protected from injury from natural blink reflex of turning the head

A

class 2 lasers

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45
Q

lasers have an output power greathern than 500mW milliwatt can cause injyr to both the eye and skin and will be a fire hazard

A

class 4 laser

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46
Q

lasers have an ouput power that is below the level at which eye injury can occur

A

class 1

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47
Q

lasers have an output power up to 500mW sufficent to cause an eye injyury. cannot cause skin inury. severity of eye injury will depeond on factures including the laser power entering the eye and exposure duration

A

class 3b lasers

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48
Q

lasers have a max power of 5mW. limits power of entering a dilated human eye. Hazardous when viewed with binoculars

A

laser 3a

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49
Q

tag attachments for loto must be non reusable and non releasble with a minum unlocking stenght of

A

50lbs

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50
Q

most common type of hyroxide bases is. can cause considerable heat when mixed with water or solvents

A

sodium hydroxide

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51
Q

metal carbonates react with acids to product

A

salt, water and carbon dioxide

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52
Q

involves sorption of the chemical into the surface of the material through diffusion through the material and desorption on the opposite side

A

permeation

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53
Q

process by which molecules of a solvent tend to pass through a semiperamble membrane from less concentrated solution into a more concentrade one thus equalizing the concentrations on each side of the membrane

A

osmosis

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54
Q

movement cause within a fluid (gas or liquid) by the tendence of hotter and therefore less dense materails to rise and colder denser materals to sink under influence of gravity which consqeuntly results in the transfer of heat

A

convection

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55
Q

physical changes to material caused by chemical which can include swelling stifenning wrinking changes in color and other pyhiscla deterioriation

A

degradation

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56
Q

maximum use concentration for respirators is calculated by

A

APF * PEL

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57
Q

upper limit at which the class of respirator is expectedto provide protection

A

maximum use concentration

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58
Q

employers shall certify that they have evaluated compliance with the provisions of the psm std everyt. compliance audits must be kept?

A

3 years. 2 of most recent must be kept

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59
Q

all process hazard analysis must be updated every

A

5 years

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60
Q

PSM incident reports must be retained for _years and must be initiated _following an incident

A

5 years, 48 hours

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61
Q

psm refresher safety training should occur

A

ever 3 yrs

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62
Q

____analysis is a top-down, deductive failure analysis in which an undesired state of a system is analyzed using Boolean logic to combine a series of lower-level events. It is a deductive procedure used to determine the various combinations of hardware and software failures and human errors that could cause undesired events (referred to as top events) at the system level.

A

fault tree anaylsis

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63
Q

the _ gate (looks like a D) indicates the output occurs if all the input events are present

A

and

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64
Q

the _ gate (looks like a cresent) indicates the output occurs if at least once of the input events is present

A

or

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65
Q

two of the more common detailed design analysis techniques are

A

petri net and software-fault tree or soft tree analysis

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66
Q

important for safety critical systems. useful in finding software faults. nasa uses this and airforce. two trees are linked at their interfaces so that the enitire system can be anaylzed.

A

software fault tree soft tree analysis

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67
Q

analysis of cut sets is a technique that identifes single point and multiple case failures in a software system

A

soft tree

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68
Q

file transfer protocol

A

hyper text transfer protocol HTTP

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69
Q

set of protocols that make telenet, FTP email and other services possible among computers that dont belong to the same network

A

TCP IP

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70
Q

language used for web publishing

A

HTML hyper text markup language

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71
Q

the global address of documents and other resources on the world wide webe

A

URL uniform resource locator

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72
Q

it is a standarized application language for relational databases that is used to enter data into a database modify data delete dat and retrieve data

A

SQL structured query language

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73
Q

set of technology standards and technical specifcations that enable info to be routed from one network to another over the internet

A

IP internet protocol

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74
Q

extends across a apublic netowkr or internet. enables users to send and recieve data acorss shared or public networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private network

A

VPN

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75
Q

software application for retreving presenting and traersing information resources on the world wide web

A

web browser

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76
Q

an _ is identified by a uniform resource identifier and may be a web page, image, vidoe or other piece of content

A

information resource

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77
Q

most common computer networks are

A

peer to peer and client server

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78
Q

network that has three to 5 users, they can share printers, scanners, fax machines

A

peer to peer network

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79
Q

common means of making information available to multiple users

A

local area networks. LAN technology is ethernet

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80
Q

what do particulate respirators do

A

capture dust, mist and fumes

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81
Q

use chemical filters called cartridges or canisters to remove dangerous gases or vapors.

A

gas and vapor respirators

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82
Q

is one of the leading causes of boom failure

A

side loading

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83
Q

side load can occur when

A

load is dragged or pulled sideways, load swings rapidly, when crane is not level, exposed to high winds. tilt up construction can cause this to.

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84
Q

occurs when a load is quickly jerked in any direction or if it is allowed to free-fall before the rigging catches it.

A

shock loading. causes= rapid acceleration, sudden stopping suddden load release

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85
Q

at least what % of crane incidents are contributed to mobile crane because outriggers are not set up properly

A

50%

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86
Q

added to outrigger pad if poor ground conditions exist

A

float

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87
Q

in general NFPA requires all sprinkler heads to have at least _PSI

A

7

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88
Q

to determine required flow QPM=

A

q=k multiplied by square root of P

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89
Q

the weight density of water is

A

62.4l lbs/ft^3

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90
Q

the approx value for determining the pressure exerted by a colum of water is

A

multiply each foot of rise by .433

91
Q

hydrocarbons are classified into two types of

A

aliphatic and aromatic

92
Q

aliphatic carbons are subdivided into saturdated and unsaturated compounds and include the alkanes;

A

methane, ethane, propane and butane

93
Q

aromatic hydrocarbons are derivative of the parentcompound

A

benzene

94
Q

are members of a calss of organic compounds in which an oxygen atom has bridged between two hydrocarbon groups. either highly volatile or extremely flammable.

A

ethers

95
Q

what has the greatest flammability range

A

acetylne

96
Q

examples of oxodizers

A

hydrogen peroxide, perchalorate, permamanganate, chromate, nitrate chrlorate.

97
Q

ignite spontaneously when in contact with air.

A

pyrophiric materials

98
Q

describes a violent reaction which occurs when two materials encounter each other.

A

hypergolic

99
Q

is the process of decomposition in the presence of heat

A

pyrolisis

100
Q

rapid burning fire which produces flame speed that travels slower than speed of sound

A

deflagration

101
Q

_ have the highest KST rate (a measuremnt of inherent expolisve power) of all combustible metal dusts.

A

aluminum powders

102
Q

to exinguish ordinary solid materials

A

type a extinguisher, water foam, dry chemical

103
Q

to extinguish flammable liquids

A

foam c02 dry chemical halon type b extunguisher

104
Q

to extinguish electrical equipemnt

A

type c; co2 and dry chemical halon

105
Q

to extinguish combustible metals

A

special agents type d

106
Q

dust explosion pentagon

A

ignition, dispersion of dust particles, combustible dust, oxygen in the air, confinement of dust cloud

107
Q

what size of dust particles is critera for dust explosion

A

420 microns

108
Q

predicts the ease and likilihood of igntion of a disperesed dust cloud

A

minimum ignition energy

109
Q

measure the min amount of dust dispersed in the air required to spread an explosion

A

min explosive concentration

110
Q

one method used to reduce possbility of fire hazard is use of an inerting gas to reduce the oxidizing agent concentration. the most important property of this gas is

A

heat capacity

111
Q

Class I IA, IB & IC flash point

A

below 100, boiling below 100 & flash below 73, at or above 100 & below 73, at or above 73 and below 100

112
Q

class II, class IIA, class IIB flash point

A

at or abov e 100 and below 140, at or above 140, at or above 140 and below 200, at or above 200

113
Q

ordinary hazard distance to an exit with and without fire sprinkler protection is

A

200 and 400

114
Q

storage of high hazard materials an exit shiuld be with and without fire protection

A

75 and 100

115
Q

desinged to alarm when then temp of the operating element reaches a specified point

A

fixed temperature heat detector

116
Q

designed to alamr when the temp of surrounding air reaches a predetermeined level regardless of rate of temp rise, element configuarion compensates for thermal lag

A

rate compensation

117
Q

desinged to alarm when the rate of a temperature increase exceeds a predetemined value (usually 12 to 15 degrees per min) an ex of use would be on a pteroleum based hydaulic pump to prevent explosions

A

rate of rise

118
Q

designed to keep the pressure in the system elevated to a specified level when the system is not in use so that the fire pump doesnt have to run all th etime

A

jockey pump

119
Q

the national incident management system is the reponsibility of

A

deprtment of homeland security

120
Q

under ICS the command staff positions include

A

safety officer, publinc information officer and liason officer

121
Q

ICS is organized into three components

A

incident command, command staff and general staff positions

122
Q

has the essential authority to terminate any operations deemned to be unsafe and even to override the authority of the IC to do so

A

safety officer

123
Q

responisble for passing info regarding the incident to the public and media

A

public information officer

124
Q

position is reponsible for interating and coordinate with other response entitites not represented

A

liason officer

125
Q

individuals who are likely to witness or discover a hazardous substnace relase and who have been trained to iniate an emergency response sequence

A

awareness level

126
Q

response to the relasees or potential relase of hazardous substance part of the intial response to the site for protecting nearby persons property or envionrment from the effects of the release. trained to respond in defenseive fashion without stopping release

A

operations level

127
Q

they stop the release to plug patch or otherwise stop the relase of a hazardous substance

A

hazardous materials technican

128
Q

a term that provides a relative estimate of the level of physical stress associated with a manual lifting tax

A

lifting index

129
Q

support the hazardous materials techincans but require a more directed or specific knowledge of the various substances they may be called upon to contain. also act as site liason with federal, state, local and other govenment authorities

A

hazardous materials specialist

130
Q

assume control of the incident beyond the first responder awareness level

A

on scen incident commander

131
Q

personnel, not necessairly an employers employees who are skilled in the operation of certain equipment such as mechanized earth moving or digging equipment who are needed temporarilit to perofrm immediate emergency work who could be exposed to hazards at the emergency scence

A

skilled support personnel

132
Q

employees who are in their regular duties work with and are trained in the hazards or specific hazardous substances and who will be called upon to provide tehchnical advice or assitance at a hazardous substance relase incident to invidula in charge

A

specialist employee

133
Q

the epa has responsbility for protection of the public and the environment ffrom accidental chemical releases under

A

risk management program

134
Q

does OSHA require an employer to submit their PSM program online

A

no

135
Q

other major difference is RMP rule in epa is epas _ consquencues

A

off site consequence analysis for each covered process in order for facilty to determine worse release case scenario and their alternative release scenario

136
Q

in threshold determination, osha lumped

A

all flammable liquids <100 Flash Point together and set their threshold at 10,000lbs.

137
Q

EPA treats flammable liquids differently in that speicifc flammable liquids must be listed by

A

CAS numbers to be an extremely hazardous substance

138
Q

an interactive process of exchance of information and opinion among individuals groups and instittuions. discussio about risk types and levels and about methoods for managing risks

A

risk communication

139
Q

six traits of successful risk communicators

A

speaking ability, repuation (trustworthy & credible), SME, image of authortiy, lack of vested interest, ability to connect (empathy).

140
Q

used to indicate a water flow, manual station actuation, fire detector activation, discharge of a system

A

alarm signals

141
Q

used to indicate time critical input, such as guard cehck in, loss of water or agent pressure, valves in the wrong positon, exit light not funtioning

A

supervisory signal

142
Q

used to indicate a fault in the system, shorted wiring, loss of signal, ground fault.

A

trouble signals

143
Q

the test for chromium is

A

test in the urine at end if shift at end of workweek

144
Q

a disorder resulting from a compression of nerves and blood vessels between clavicle and first and second ribs at the brachial plexus. it can be caused by typing keying, carrying heavy leads or keeping the head arms and shoulders in unnatural positons

A

thoractic oulet sysndrom

145
Q

when pitot tube is connected to a manometer for ventialion measurements the inputs to the manometer are __ and _ and the outputs are_

A

TP and SP, outputs VP. tp=vp+sP

146
Q

instrument of chouce where teh exhaust opening is large and the air velociites are low as in spray booths or chemical hoods (measuring air velocity).

A

swinging vane anemoter or velometer

147
Q

useful for measuring the airflow through large supply and exhaust openings where air velocities are relatively high,

A

rotating vane anemoeter

148
Q

in calibration of airflow instrucments a _ is considered a primary standard

A

spirometer

149
Q

what measures persons accumulated radiation dose

A

pocket dosimeter in conjunction with a film badge

150
Q

three measurements of radiation are

A

amount of radioactivity, ambient radiation levels and radiation dose

151
Q

the guiding principle for radiation safety is

A

ALARA or as low as reasonably achieveable

152
Q

a measure of energy deposited in tissues/matter and amount of charge from ion particles produced in air

A

Roentgen R

153
Q

amount of abosorved energy deposited in tissue/matter

A

radiation absorved dose

154
Q

biologically weighted absorved dose.important in case of internal exposure

A

REM

155
Q

can occur from acute or chronic exposrues, affects the exposed body, may be months or years after exposurcan cause cancser

A

somatic

156
Q

direct irradiation of developing fetus, results in death or deformity; physiological effects of radiation

A

teratogencic

157
Q

which would be procedure used to determine effectivness of recently implemented controls for exposure reduction to benzene

A

urine tests after the work shift

158
Q

the successful design of an exhaust hood depends on all three; in this order

A

rate of airflow through the hood; location of the hood and shape of the hood

159
Q

what needs to be conducted if there is a sick building syndrome

A

health hazard evaluation HHE or similar evaluation by qualified IAQ

160
Q

how many biosafety levels are there

A

4

161
Q

biosafety level? agents not know to consistently cause disease in healthy audults

A

BSL 1

162
Q

biosafety level ? agents associated with human disease, hazard is from precutaneous injury, ingestion, mucous membrane exposure

A

BSL 2

163
Q

biosafety level ?; indigenous or exotic agents with potential for aersol transmission, diseases may have serious or lethal consquences

A

bsl 3

164
Q

biosafety level? dangerous/exoitic agents with pose high risk of life threatening diseas; aerosol transmitted lab infections or related agents with unkown risk of transmission

A

bsl 4

165
Q

most common type of cold induced injury/illness is

A

hypothermia, frost bite, trench foot

166
Q

optimal heat body temp is?….is the body less capable of coping with heat loss than with heat gain

A

98.6 plus or minus 1.8; true

167
Q

what are the two physioligcal adaption to cold stres

A

reducing blood cirucaltion; booosting body metablism thoruhg shivering

168
Q

_ is the primary human response to preventing excessive exposure to cold stress

A

behavior; clothing insultaion, increasing activity, seeking warm locations.

169
Q

hazards associated with cold stress are manifested in two distinct fashions

A

systemic (hypthermia) and local (localized tissue).

170
Q

usally arises because of inadeqaute clothing during exposure to cold temps and high realative humudits;; reddending of skin accompanied by itching and swelling

A

chilblains

171
Q

prolonged unprotocted exposures to cold temps above 32 degrees, whitening of skins pain or itching

A

frostnip

172
Q

exposure to temps less than 32 degres; skin color white to gray to black; reduction in touching sensation and numbness

A

frostbite

173
Q

body temp less than 95 degrees, chills euphoria, pain in extremities, slow and weak pulse, extreme expouser to cold stress; alxhol and drug use can conritbute;

A

hypothermia

174
Q

severe itching and tingling similar to frostbite; swelling severe spasms, signs are blisters; respons to touch depends on depth of frezing; cause of exposre to cold above freezing and dampness

A

trench foot

175
Q

fingers blanch with cold exposure; from exposure to cold and vibration

A

raynauds disorder

176
Q

chills, restlesness, red face, erratice behavior collapse, shivering unconcsiouness, body temp greater than 104, excessice exposure to heat

A

heat stroke

177
Q

fatigue, blurred vision, diziness, headache, high pulse rate, inseure gate, pale face, low blood pressure, body temp normal ; causes include dehydration, distribution of blood to the lower periphery

A

heat exhaustion

178
Q

no early symptoms, faatigue weakness/dry mouth, excessive fluid loss caused by sweating, alcohol consumption

A

dehydration

179
Q

brief fainting blurred vision, fainting, normal body temp, ; causes because of pooling of blood in legs and skin from prolonged static posture and heat exposure

A

heat syncope

180
Q

incapcicapating pain in muscles, painful muslce cramps especially in adominal or fatigued muscles, electrolyrte imbalance caused by porlonged sweating without fluids

A

heat cramps

181
Q

involve the systematic measurement of the physical properities of the human body, body size and shape. plays important in industrial design clothing desing

A

anthropometry

182
Q

scientific study of human or non-human body movement. addresses physiological, biomechiacnal and physological mechanisms of movement

A

kinesiology

183
Q

focus on how organisms, organ systems organ cells and mimolecules carry out the chemical or phyiscal ufunctions that exists in a living syhstem

A

physiology

184
Q

substances capable of damaging the liver are called

A

hepatotoxins

185
Q

main function of the kidneyss is

A

filter blood and waste

186
Q

toxins that damage kidneys; most heavy metals fall into this category; mercury, arsenic, lithium

A

nephrotoxin

187
Q

substances capable of producing blood disorders

A

hematoxins

188
Q

chemicals that affect bone marrow

A

arsenic, bromine, methyl chorloide benzene

189
Q

chemicals that affect platelets

A

aspirin, benzene and tetrachlorotheane

190
Q

chemicals that cause instant tearing at low concentrations

A

lacrimators

191
Q

tranmissable TSE of mule deer, white tailed deer, elk or moose. chronic weight loss leading to death

A

chronic waste disease

192
Q

affects the fingers and hands, symptoms include numbness, tingling, ashen skin, loss of feeling and control, from exposure to vibration = operation of chain saw, pnumatic hammer, gasoline powered tools

A

raynauds syndrome (white finger)

193
Q

common in meat packing, core making or poulty operations, affets hands/wrists. symptoms include; pain, swelling,

A

tenosynovitis

194
Q

affects thumbs and includes pain at the base of the thumb, butchers, housekeepers, packers, seamstresses

A

DE Queravians disease

195
Q

any activity which decreases or prevents the creation of waste or which decreases toxiity of the waste stream without treatment

A

source reduction

196
Q

the reduction, to the extent feasible, of hazardous waste that is generated or subsequently treated, stored or disposed. inlcudes any source reduction o rrecylcing activity

A

waste minimization

197
Q

used by the EPA, means source reduction.

A

pollution prevention

198
Q

any activity which decreases the amount of waste materials that require waste management efforts.

A

wast reduction

199
Q

process by which clumps of solids in water or sewege aggregated through biolgical or chemical action so they can be separate from water or sewage

A

flocculation

200
Q

remove or seperate a portion of the water in a sludge or slurry to dry the sludge so it can be handled and diosposed of

A

dewater

201
Q

decrasing the acidity or akilinity of a substance by adding alkaline or acidic materails

A

netrualiztiaon

202
Q

a checmical or pyhsical process that kills pathogenic organism in water ,air or on surfaces.

A

disinfection

203
Q

in which a process waste is conveted throuhg closed systems to tank storage and then recycled in tanks before returning reprocessed material to production sssystem

A

closed loop recycling

204
Q

either the destruction of waste (for ex incineration, energy recover) or putting it in the ground

A

disposal

205
Q

fraction of feed-stock used in manufacturing a material which is derived from wastes captured during or just after the manufacturing process

A

pre consumer recycled content

206
Q

desinged for new construction office buildings where buildings can earn points for satisfiying environmental impaces inherent in the design, construction and operations/mgmt of buulding.

A

LEED

207
Q

LEED has six environmetnal principles

A

sustainable sites, water efficiency, energy/atmosphere, materils/resources, indoor environemtnal air quality and innovation/design. SWEMii

208
Q

flanges can increase velocity and decrease flow rate by

A

25%

209
Q

wide varierty of paramerts affect atompsheric dispersion of toxix materials

A

wind speed, atmospheric stability, ground conditons, buildings, water, trees, height of release above ground level, momentum and boyancy of material released

210
Q

most commenly cited violation National safety counciln accidetn prevention mantual for administariton and programs for envionemental

A

mislableing of chemicals and hazardous waste

211
Q

soil column is classified by

A

particle size

212
Q

operations for enivironmetnal spill response include

A

planing, PPE, mitigation and decontamination

213
Q

acronym for the use of technology to control environmenteal impacts without causing an organization financial hardship

A

EVABAT “ ecnomic viable application of best available technology

214
Q

PCBS are found in

A

transformers capacitors flurescent light ballasts

215
Q

any activity which decreases or prevents the creation of waste or which decrease the toxicity of the waste stream without treatment

A

oxidation reductions

216
Q

which colors are on a corrosive placard

A

black and white

217
Q

un agency that impacts international hazardous waste transportation

A

IMO

218
Q

system life cycle phases included

A

concept, development, operation disposal

219
Q

most prevalent for solvent recovery because ease of separation means, common for waste oil which more common on larger scale

A

distillition

220
Q

common for vapor phased solvent recovery and for low concentration aqueos stream

A

carbon adsorption

221
Q

low pressure membrane separation process, applicable to coolant mixtures. resulting from metal waste streams inorganic wastes,

A

ultrafiltration

222
Q

does operation level in emergency response try to stop the release

A

no they respond in defensive way. contain release from safe distance

223
Q

to identify hazardous conditions, assess their risk, and establish effect risk control measures is primary function of

A

loss control system

CSP Study Prep (3 decks)

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